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IIA-CIA-Part1 Essentials of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of an organization's risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance may or may not align with risk appetite depending on whether the assessment is quantitative or qualitative

B.

Risk is assessed on both an inherent and a residual basis

C.

The framework addresses four organizational objective categories strategic, historical, operational, and investment

D.

External risks and internal opportunities are omitted from the risk assessment scope

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Questions 5

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the chief audit executive s responsibility for confirming to the board the organizational independence of the internal audit activity'?

Options:

A.

The CAE must do this at least annually

B.

The CAE must do this at least once every five years

C.

The CAE must do this upon completion of each external quality assessment

D.

The CAE should do this periodically in conjunction with a review of the internal audit charter

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Questions 6

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes expense reimbursement fraud?

Options:

A.

Theft of cash after it is recorded in the books

B.

Theft of cash before it is recorded in the books

C.

Theft of assets through fictitious or inflated invoices

D.

Theft of assets through false mileage travel logs and meal charges

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Questions 7

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would the internal audit activity examine in order to evaluate the organization's governance process for strategic and operational decisions'?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment process including interviews with senior management.

B.

The organization’s mission and value statements, code of conduct, and whistleblowing policy

C.

Board meeting minutes the board policy manual, and past audit reports

D.

Staff compensation objective setting and the performance evaluation policy and process

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Questions 8

Which of the following is a greater consideration for internal auditors when they are performing a consulting engagement than when they are performing an assurance engagement'?

Options:

A.

The relative complexity of the engagement

B.

The cost of the engagement relative to its benefits

C.

The extent of work needed to achieve the engagement's objective

D.

The needs and expectations of the engagement client

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Questions 9

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates a rationalization as the root cause of potential fraud?

Options:

A.

Managers who have been with the organization for several decades become aware that newly hired, younger managers are being moved more quickly into senior positions.

B.

The controller at a nationwide manufacturing company recently opted to no longer require two-week mandatory vacations for accounting staff.

C.

Security cameras that monitor cash handling at the register are not functioning.

D.

The organization is slowly phasing out three mature products that produce the highest commissions for the sales staff

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Questions 10

Recently an organization’s internal audit activity discovered ghost employees who receive payments Senior management decides to strengthen the internal control measures to address this Which of the following is considered an effective control to mitigate payments to ghost employees?

Options:

A.

Staff transfers are reviewed by the recruiting manager and approved by the head of human resources

B.

New staff requisition forms are authorized by operational management and acknowledged by the head of human resources

C.

Staff salary payments and accounting records are approved by the head of accounting and acknowledged by the head of human resources

D.

The staff salary payment list is reviewed by the head of payroll and endorsed by the head of human resources

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Questions 11

Which of the following best illustrates the application of due professional care during an audit of the procurement department?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor began checking purchase requisitions for proper authorizations. He stopped when he discovered an instance of noncompliance. and he concluded the controls were ineffective.

B.

The internal auditor discovered an instance where management did not follow the standard bidding processes. The auditor assessed the validity of management’sreasons for deviating from standard practice and the supporting documentation, and determined that the deviation was acceptable.

C.

The internal auditor selected a sample of purchase orders with amounts greater than S5.000, the threshold at which the organization requires a bidding process. The auditor obtained documentation of the bidding process for each purchase order in the sample.

D.

The internal auditor analyzed bidding documents provided by management. Management indicated that the documents were purchase orders issued to a sole-source vendor Based on the analysis and management's declaration, the internal auditor determined that the procurement process was effective.

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Questions 12

Which of the following parties would be responsible for ongoing monitoring of the organization's corporate social responsibility activities to reduce its carbon footprint?

Options:

A.

Chief audit executive

B.

Facility operation manager

C.

Public relations manager

D.

Regulatory agency

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Questions 13

A large commercial bank was fined by regulators for fraudulent practices when employees, over a period of time, opened thousands of new accounts for existing clients without the clients' consent. It was later found that employees were given unrealistic new account targets and were aggressively monitored by management on a daily basis.

Which of the following controls would have most likely reduced the likelihood of the fraudulent practice from occurring?

Options:

A.

An evaluation of the current performance and compensation program.

B.

The performance of background investigations on all existing employees.

C.

The availability of fraud training to all employees.

D.

The availability of an employee whistleblower hotline

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Questions 14

Which of the following tools would be most useful to an internal auditor performing an assessment of the effectiveness of the organization's risk responses?

Options:

A.

Heat map.

B.

Risk and control matrix.

C.

Risk register.

D.

Process map.

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Questions 15

Which of the following best demonstrates that an internal auditor is applying due professional care when planning an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Assessing the risk of noncompliance with laws and regulations

B.

Following the policies as prescribed by the internal audit manual.

C.

Advising management of the area under review on how to mitigate internal control risks.

D.

Conducting the engagement on the presupposition that fraud exists.

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Questions 16

Which of the following is an example of a risk avoidance strategy?

Options:

A.

Hedging against exchange rate variations.

B.

Limiting access to an organization’s data center.

C.

Selling a nonstrategic business unit.

D.

Outsourcing a high-risk activity

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Questions 17

Which of the following fraud schemes is often an off-book fraud*?

Options:

A.

Payroll fraud

B.

Disbursement fraud

C.

Corruption

D.

Information misrepresentation

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Questions 18

An internal auditor extended the scope of testing for a disbursements engagement following a fraud risk assessment Despite the investment of additional audit resources no significant issues were found Unfortunately a major payment fraud was discovered several

months later According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the internal auditor's application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Due professional care was not applied because no additional work should have been performed unless there was actual evidence of fraud

B.

Due professional care was not applied because the extended scope resulted in no issues being identified, while fraud actually existed

C.

Due professional care was applied as the internal auditor modified the scope based on reasonable judgment, despite the additional cost of resources

D.

Due professional care was applied as the cost of audit resources should not be a determining factor in the degree of testing undertaken

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Questions 19

An organization’s senior management team is awarding substantial bonuses if employees meet financial targets. Which of the following motivators to potentially commit fraud would become most likely in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Opportunity

B.

Pressure

C.

Rationalization

D.

Justification

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Questions 20

Which of the following actions taken during an audit engagement is the best demonstration of an internal auditor's due professional care?

Options:

A.

Ensure that all financial information related to the engagement is included in the audit plan and examined for irregularities.

B.

Document all audit tests completely.

C.

Consider the possibility of noncompliance or irregularities at all times during an engagement.

D.

Notify the audit committee of any noncompliance or irregularity discovered during an engagement

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Questions 21

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions best demonstrates that due professional care has been considered by the internal audit activity when conducting a review of an organization's assets?

Options:

A.

Determining whether any opportunity exists for senior executives to misappropriate property or funds

B.

Planning and executing fieldwork In a complete and timely manner to identify all significant risks

C.

Verifying whether the board of directors has implemented effective internal controls

D.

Having senior management determine whether the degree of work planned is sufficient to meet engagement objectives

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Questions 22

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity’s responsibilities in providing consulting services?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive is responsible for deciding the priority of consulting services in the internal audit plan

B.

The scope of consulting services is determined primarily by the internal auditor with input from management of the area under review

C.

The board defines the internal audit activity’s responsibilities over consulting activities

D.

Adding value to an organization requires the internal audit activity to initiate a consulting engagement

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Questions 23

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions is a chief audit executive required to take with regard to reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Report external assessments upon completion of such assessments

B.

Report external assessments at least annually

C.

Report ongoing monitoring quarterly

D.

Report post-engagement reviews at least once every five years

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Questions 24

An automobile manufacturer will become one of the first in the industry to adopt a new inventory management software. Despite the system being new to the market, senior management believes that the benefits are great enough to offset the potential risks. Which of the following aspects of risk management does senior management’s decision best illustrate?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Inherent risk.

C.

Risk tolerance.

D.

Risk appetite.

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Questions 25

What should be the first step for a newly hired chief audit executive to build and maintain the proficiency of the internal audit activity'?

Options:

A.

Incorporate the basic criteria of internal audit competency into job descriptions

B.

Complete a periodic skills assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

Develop a competency or skill assessment tool.

D.

Perform benchmarking with competitors to learn what other firms are doing related to this topic

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Questions 26

The chief audit executive of an organization assigns audit resources to undertake a consulting engagement requested by senior management the previous year, and a scheduled assurance audit of the procurement process Which of the following appropriately differentiates the two engagements?

Options:

A.

The details of assurance services are expected to be included in the risk-based audit plan; this is not the case for consulting services.

B.

The objectivity of assurance services is impaired when undertaken by internal auditors who have had recent prior responsibility in the area under review; this is not the case for consulting services

C.

The performance of assurance services may be outsourced for competency gaps: this is not the case for consulting services.

D.

The results of assurance services are required to be monitored; this is not the case for consulting services

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Questions 27

Management is installing security cameras to identify unauthorized physical access to the organization's warehouse. This is an example of which of the following types of controls?

Options:

A.

Detective controls.

B.

Key controls.

C.

Primary controls.

D.

Preventive controls

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Questions 28

Which of the following best describes the type of organizational culture known as adaptability culture'?

Options:

A.

A results-oriented culture that values competitiveness and personal initiative

B.

A culture that emerges in quick-response and high-risk decision-making environments

C.

A culture that is characterized by low involvement with environmental and health issues

D.

A culture that places high value on participation and meeting the needs of employees.

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Questions 29

Which of the following activities aligns with The IIA's Core Principles for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports to senior management for compensation decisions and communications of audit results to the board

B.

Final reports from consulting engagements show the summary of findings, and the internal auditor’s advice is clearly distinct and separate from management's decisions

C.

Internal auditors rotate through operations and management positions then perform audit engagements on these areas to ensure timely application of their knowledge

D.

Due to limited resources, internal auditors prioritize assurance on internal controls and risk management and exclude evaluating governance processes, which are deemed outside of their core responsibilities

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Questions 30

An internal auditor performed a risk assessment and concluded that the controls over access privileges to a bank account were appropriate. Later, the auditor learned that a contractor was using a shared password provided by an authorized user of the account. Which of the following statements best describes the auditor's application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Due professional care was exercised, despite the auditor’s failure to identify the significant risk.

B.

Due professional care was not exercised because the auditor failed to identify all the significant risks during the risk assessment.

C.

Due professional care was not exercised because the residual risk from the possibility of authorized users sharing their passwords was not considered.

D.

Due professional care was not exercised because the auditor failed to conduct interviews to obtain testimonial evidence of possible password sharing

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Questions 31

During the audit of taxation processes in the organization internal auditors have verified that all employees of the finance department received training on taxation guidelines. The training is mandatory and is automatically assigned via email invitation to all new employees in the department. Which type of controls have the auditors tested?

Options:

A.

Directive

B.

Preventive

C.

Detective

D.

Automatic

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Questions 32

Which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot provide consulting services related to operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

B.

The nature of consulting services to be performed by internal auditors must be defined in the internal audit charter

C.

If internal auditors have potential impairments to objectivity related to the proposed consulting engagement, the engagement must be declined.

D.

If internal auditors lack the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform the consulting engagement, the engagement can proceed with proper disclosures.

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Questions 33

Which of the following are considered root causes of fraud?

Options:

A.

Rationalization and corruption

B.

Corruption and opportunity

C.

Opportunity and perceived need

D.

Perceived need and weak internal controls

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Questions 34

Which of the following is true with regard to an organization's risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Risks represent a single point estimate

B.

Each organization faces the same types of risk.

C.

Risks may relate to failing to achieve positive outcomes.

D.

Mitigated risks are no longer considered to be inherent.

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Questions 35

Which of the following is a true statement regarding controls such as ethical values, tone at the top and operational style?

Options:

A.

Transaction testing, mapping and flowcharting is applicable while testing such controls

B.

Breakdowns in the these types of controls have historically led to fraudulent financial reporting

C.

Such controls can be defined as inherently ob)ective and tangible elements of control

D.

From an audit perspective it is significantly easier to assess ethical values than segregation of duties

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Questions 36

Which of the following statements is true regarding the disclosure of results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

If the results of both internal and external assessments support conformance with the Standards, the internal audit activity must communicate this to the board and senior management in writing.

B.

If it has been in existence fewer than five years and has no documented external assessment, the internal audit activity may not indicate that it is operating in conformance with the Standards.

C.

If nonconformance affects its ability to fulfill its professional responsibilities or stakeholder expectations, the internal audit activity should disclose nonconformance as well as its impact.

D.

If an external assessment reflects an overall conclusion of nonconformance, the internal audit activity may continue to communicate that it conforms with theStandards if it discloses a remediation plan, including timeline with subsequent validation.

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Questions 37

Which of the following statements best illustrates why internal auditors assess soft controls?

Options:

A.

Assessing soft controls are an effective method of assessing risk related to personnel.

B.

Assessing soft controls, as opposed to hard controls, makes it easier to evaluate operating effectiveness.

C.

Assessing soft controls can help internal auditors in undertaking root-cause analysis.

D.

Assessing soft controls provides more objective information than assessing hard controls.

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Questions 38

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the required elements of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments provide sufficient objectivity to provide evidence to the board that the internal audit activity understands the organization’s control processes.

B.

Quality assessments focus on the internal audit activity's structure, relationships with stakeholders, compliance with the Standards, and internal audit staff proficiency.

C.

In order to comply with the Standards, the internal audit activity must obtain an objective assessment of its processes and function at least once a year.

D.

Internal auditors completing internal assessments must demonstrate certification to perform quality assessments.

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Questions 39

Which of the following is most likely to impair the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

B.

The CAE oversees the effectiveness of the organization’s risk management function.

C.

The CAE reports functionally to the CEO.

D.

The CAE managed the finance department for the past five years.

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Questions 40

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true of the internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program?

1 Monitoring the internal audit activity’s performance must be ongoing

2 All aspects of the internal audit activity should be evaluated

3 The requirement for external assessments can be satisfied through self-assessments that are validated by an independent external party

4 The review of assurance services should be the primary focus

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

1 3 and 4

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Questions 41

Which of the following is an example of an entity-level control pertaining to the finance area of an organization'?

Options:

A.

Key account reconciliation such as bank reconciliation

B.

Segregation of duties between posting and reviewing journal entnes

C.

A signing authority matrix for spending approvals

D.

The establishment of a finance and audit committee

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Questions 42

Which of the following is an example of risk monitoring to ensure a system is performing as intended?

Options:

A.

Checking the progress of risk treatment plans

B.

Considering the consequence and likelihood of risks

C.

Documenting the risks and their areas of impact

D.

Communicating to management about risks

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Questions 43

Which of the following would be considered advanced expertise which most internal auditors are not expected to possess'?

Options:

A.

The ability to evaluate fraud risk

B.

The ability to detect and investigate fraud

C.

The ability to assess risk management strategies

D.

The ability to create test databases

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Questions 44

Which of the following would be the most effective fraud prevention control?

Options:

A.

Email alert sent to management for checks issued over $100,000.

B.

Installation of a video surveillance system in a warehouse prone to inventory loss.

C.

New hire training to explain fraud and employee misconduct.

D.

Daily report that identifies unsuccessful system log-in attempts

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Questions 45

Which of the following is the best example of a computer forensic audit activity?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor compared vendor addresses to employee home addresses.

B.

An internal auditor used analytical software to trace all disbursements processed on weekends.

C.

An internal auditor tried to circumvent the logical access controls of the purchasing system.

D.

An internal auditor recovered emails of an employee who was suspected of fraudulent activities

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Questions 46

Which of the following is an example of a risk avoidance strategy?

Options:

A.

Outsourcing the payroll function

B.

Installing cameras in the mailroom

C.

Exiting a product line

D.

Insuring all fixed assets

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Questions 47

Which of the following statements is true regarding the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Reporting on the QAIP to the board should occur at least once every five years

B.

The responsibility for the selection of an external assessor rests with the board

C.

The qualifications of the assessors must be communicated to the board

D.

The reporting of outcomes of the QAIP can be delegated to senior audit staff

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Questions 48

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk management function has the sole responsibility for identifying and managing risks in all departments

B.

Risk management is a core responsibility of the internal audit activity

C.

The internal audit activity should consider the organization’s maturity, structure, and the competitive environment to establish the organization’s risk appetite

D.

The internal audit activity may use a risk management or control framework to assist in risk identification

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Questions 49

Which of the following describes two duties that should not be performed by the same person?

Options:

A.

Posting cash receipts and cash payments to the general ledger.

B.

Posting bad debt write-offs and reconciling the accounts payable subsidiary ledger.

C.

Distributing payroll checks and approving sales returns for credit.

D.

Recording cash receipts and preparing bank reconciliations.

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Questions 50

Which of the following factors is most important for internal auditors to consider when prioritizing fraud risks?

Options:

A.

The organization’s code of conduct.

B.

The organization’s competition.

C.

The organization’s code of ethics.

D.

The organization’s culture

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Questions 51

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with the Standards relating to continuing professional development of internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Regulatory approval from an accrediting agency.

B.

Self-assessments against a competency framework.

C.

Approval and signoff from the board of directors.

D.

A review by external auditors on an annual basis

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Questions 52

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department. Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

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Questions 53

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

A description of their job responsibilities,

Options:

A.

A non-disclosure agreement.

B.

An annual declaration of commitment to

C.

The IIA s Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter.

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Questions 54

Which of the following should a general internal auditor be able to characterize as an IT-related risk?

Options:

A.

Computer servers are in a room that is accessible to all employees,

B.

An IT architect avoids taking vacations and sharing his workload with coworkers,

C.

Hours billed by IT developers exceed 24 hours daily.

D.

Audit logs are lacking in a system that processes personal data.

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Questions 55

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) is tasked with creating a new internal audit activity within the organization. Which of the following would the CAE need to include in the new internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The requirement to provide an annual cost analysis that justifies having an internal audit activity

B.

The specific engagements that the internal audit activity will perform for the organization

C.

The board s oversight role and responsibilities pertaining to the internal audit activity

D.

The relevant regulations that will guide the internal audit activity's regulatory compliance assessments

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Questions 56

An employee accepts cash payments from customers and does not record the sale. This is an example of which of the following types of fraud?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation.

B.

Skimming

C.

Corruption.

D.

Lapping.

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Questions 57

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the interna! audit activity's work?

Options:

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment,

B.

Policies that match internal auditors' performance with feedback from management of the area under review.

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of inappropriate business relationships.

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Questions 58

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization's general attitude toward risk,

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management.

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization's general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept.

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms.

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Questions 59

Which of the following scenarios would most significantly restrict the areas where internal audit could perform assurance services?

Options:

A.

Regulators mandate specific audit engagements to be included in the audit plan.

B.

The internal audit activity reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the CEO and functionally to the audit committee.

D.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

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Questions 60

Due to the increased operational responsibility of the CEO the chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization currently reports to the chief financial officer (CFO) What is the likely impact of such a situation?

Options:

A.

There may be limitation in the scope of engagements that can be undertaken

B.

The CFO could provide expert advice when auditing areas under his purview

C.

The internal audit activity is adequately positioned when the CAE reports to a member of executive management

D.

The expertise of finance staff can be called upon during an audit of finance-related areas

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Questions 61

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility (CSR) evaluation activities may be performed by the internal audit activity?

1. Consult on CSR program design and implementation.

2. Serve as an advisor on CSR governance and risk management.

3. Review third parties for contractual compliance with CSR terms.

4. Identify and mitigate risks to help meet the CSR program objectives.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3,

B.

1 2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Questions 62

During a review of employee benefits, a staff internal auditor observed an ambiguity in the incentive compensation policy. If reported, it could negatively impact the internal auditor's compensation. Which of the following would encourage the internal auditor to be objective in his work?

Options:

A.

Periodic reinforcement of the internal audit activity's code of ethics disclosure practices.

B.

External assessments of the internal audit activity every five years.

C.

Audit committee review of every engagement report at the conclusion of the audit.

D.

Internal audit charter approved by the board.

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Questions 63

If an internal auditor suspects fraud during an engagement which of the following is expected of the auditor?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the suspected activities to determine whether a forma! investigation is warranted,

B.

Immediately inform senior management and the board of the suspected fraud.

C.

Ascertain the level of resources needed to formally investigate the fraud, and proceed with the investigation if resources permit,

D.

Include in the engagement documentation all possible effects and the potential impact of the fraud to the organization

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Questions 64

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments. The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International! Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct.

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause.

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior.

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee, requires conformance with the Standards

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Questions 65

If the skills and competencies are not present within the internal audit activity to complete an ad-hoc assurance engagement, which of the following is an acceptable

resolution?

Options:

A.

Politely decline the engagement due to a lack of qualified staff available at the time.

B.

Complete the engagement as requested, with the best of the current staffs abilities.

C.

Consider using employees from other departments in the organization on the audit team.

D.

Change the scope of the testing to ensure that only available staff proficiencies are used

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Questions 66

According to NA guidance, which of the following conditions would enhance the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The organizational culture rewards critical and objective thinking.

B.

The quality of work performed by the internal audit activity is periodically reviewed,

C.

The organization establishes effective governing body oversight,

D.

Audit assignments are rotated among internal audit staff

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Questions 67

Senior management relies on the professional judgment of an internal auditor and uses outcomes of her audit work to make business decisions Which of the following personal qualities displayed by the internal auditor is most likely the foundation for this relationship?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Negotiation skills.

C.

Business acumen

D.

Flexibility

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Questions 68

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a large organization has been asked by the board to assume responsibility for risk management and compliance operations, both of which are distinct departments within the organization and are subject to periodic audits by the internal audit activity In regards to future audits of these functions which of the following approaches would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be overseen by a competent external assurance provider

B.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be overseen by a senior audit manager within the internal audit activity other than the CAE

C.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be conducted by internal auditors under the supervision of management from both functions

D.

Audits of risk management and compliance functions should be earned out by a team of the most experienced auditors overseen by the CAE

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Questions 69

When a plant manager from within the organization is hired as a rotational internal auditor within the internal audit activity which area should he most likely be trained for immediately?

Options:

A.

Industry knowledge

B.

Project management

C.

Leadership skills

D.

Risk assessments

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Questions 70

Which of the following strategies for professional development best demonstrates an internal auditor’s competency'?

Options:

A.

Completed education credits

B.

Membership in professional organizations

C.

Subscriptions to sources of relevant professional information

D.

Professional development and training plans

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Questions 71

Which of the following is the best way for an internal auditor to demonstrate due professional care?

Options:

A.

Conduct an audit to the same extent that another prudent auditor would under similar circumstances

B.

Seek feedback from the engagement supervisor during the engagement

C.

Execute internal audit work in such a manner as to provide absolute assurance of compliance

D.

Request and receive client feedback surveys during the engagement

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Questions 72

Which of the following would be considered an impairment to an internal auditor's objectivity when performing a review of the organization's procurement function'?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor worked on the implementation of the accounting system within the organization before joining the internal audit activity last year

B.

The internal auditor is part of a multidisciplinary team tasked to assist with a new project implementation checklist within the organization

C.

The internal auditor worked as a sourcing specialist before joining the internal audit activity last year

D.

The internal auditor participates in a cross-departmental team for information and data security within the organization

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Questions 73

In a small organization, management is unable to achieve adequate segregation of duties for its cash-handling procedures Therefore hidden surveillance cameras were installed to monitor cash-handling activities Which of the following best describes this type of control?

Options:

A.

Corrective control

B.

Process-level control

C.

Compensating control

D.

Preventive control

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Questions 74

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by the chief audit executive (CAE) best demonstrates the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE seeks senior management approval of the internal audit charter

B.

The CAE obtains senior management's approval to hire staff

C.

The CAE reports significant issues to the organization's CEO

D.

The CAE provides the board with an annual budget for approval

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Questions 75

Which of the following threatens internal audit objectivity'?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors are expected by senior management to identify a minimum of five major control weaknesses in each area audited

B.

Internal auditors are prevented from accessing information necessary to undertake their audit engagements

C.

The chief audit executive reports directly to the chief financial officer who previously led the internal audit activity

D.

The CEO requests the internal audit activity develop a charter that clearly delineates its purpose and responsibilities within the organization

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Questions 76

Which of the following can be used to minimize employees’ resentment of controls?

Options:

A.

Making sure employees are exempt from participating in control creation

B.

Implementing controls without lengthy explanations of their purpose

C.

Developing general constricting controls rather than detailed ones

D.

Not using controls to achieve goals

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Questions 77

According to IIA guidance, which of the following threats to objectivity is described as familiarity'?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor is a close friend or relative of the manager or an employee of the audit client

B.

An internal auditor has a long-term business relationship with the audit client.

C.

An internal auditor has an economic stake in the performance of the organization

D.

An internal auditor is exposed to or perceived to be exposed to pressures from external parties

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Questions 78

The largest risks facing an organization should be mitigated by which type of controls?

Options:

A.

Entity-level

B.

Activity-level

C.

Transaction-level

D.

Process-level

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Questions 79

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

Options:

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

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Questions 80

An internal auditor assigned to a supplier management process engagement reviews the risk assessment with the process owner The auditor inquires about the risk response for potentially engaging unqualified third-party service providers The process owner responds that due diligence checks are undertaken to make sure that third parties possess requisite competencies before they are engaged Which of the following risk management techniques is the process owner using?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance

B.

Risk reduction

C.

Risk sharing

D.

Risk acceptance

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Questions 81

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred Into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

B.

If it is a consulting engagement decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible

C.

If it is a consulting engagement accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

D.

If it is an assurance engagement accept the assignment becausethe chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor's previous role when this engagement was assigned

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Questions 82

In the COSO internal control framework, which of the following components serves as the foundation for the other components?

Options:

A.

Control activities.

B.

Control environment.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Monitoring

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Questions 83

Which of the following strategies would be the most effective to share an organization's risk of losses through foreign currency transactions related to the accounts payable process?

Options:

A.

Using a hedging strategy.

B.

Implementing controls to follow up on deviations.

C.

Purchasing liability insurance.

D.

Purchasing foreign currency reserves.

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Questions 84

Which of the following actions is the internal audit activity best positioned within the organization to perform?

Options:

A.

Determine organizational risk tolerances

B.

Monitor the organization's risk mitigations

C.

Determine the likelihood and impact of risks

D.

Advise the board on risk management issues

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Questions 85

Which of the following best describes the board’s role in establishing effective organizational governance?

Options:

A.

The board is involved in approving operational policy

B.

The board monitors key processes and procedures

C.

The board has oversight responsibility for organizational resources

D.

The board approves management's detailed plans and objectives

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Questions 86

Which of the following is an example of a risk reduction strategy?

Options:

A.

Outsourcing the payroll function.

B.

Absorbing the cost of losses.

C.

Insuring fixed assets.

D.

Installing cameras around the plant

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Questions 87

Which of the following preventative controls would be most effective for organizations facing business disruptions and respective financial losses?

Options:

A.

Develop a business continuity plan for contingent situations,

B.

Insure the organization against financial losses.

C.

Rely on third-party cloud solution providers for the organization's systems.

D.

Hedge company assets via purchasing derivatives.

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Questions 88

Which of the following is true regarding the stakeholder theory of corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

An organization has a fiduciary duty to put shareholders' needs first

B.

Customers' needs are the primary responsibility of the organization

C.

Competitors are considered stakeholders of the organization

D.

Employees are the organization's best assets and primary responsibility

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Questions 89

In which of the following situations would the organizational independence of an internal audit activity be impaired?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports administratively to the CEO.

B.

Scope limitations are imposed on internal audits.

C.

The internal audit activity provides assurance services for an activity for which the engagement supervisor had responsibility within the previous year.

D.

The compensation committee of the board approves the remuneration of the chief audit executive.

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Questions 90

Which documents would help a forensic auditor identify instances of collusion between an employee and vendor to defraud the organization?

Options:

A.

Email correspondence.

B.

Payment request forms.

C.

Vendor invoices.

D.

Bank statements.

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Questions 91

In addition to her internal audit activity responsibilities, the chief audit executive has been asked to oversee the organization's insurance function. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Welcome the additional responsibility, as it represents an opportunity to gain more information for future audits.

B.

Revise the internal audit charter to include oversight of the insurance function, ensuring that all of her responsibilities are properly documented.

C.

Report the request to the board and recommend alternate processes to obtain assurance related to insurance activities.

D.

Promptly remove the organization's insurance function from the audit universe.

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Questions 92

Which of the following is an appropriate roe fa the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the organization's key risks are managed through appropriate controls.

B.

Assisting the organization in maintaining effective controls.

C.

implementing new controls to promote continuous improvement

D.

Validating control assessments performed by the external auditor.

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Questions 93

Which of the following policies promotes internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the CEO

B.

The CAE s compensation is approved by the chief financial officer

C.

The CAF's appointment is determined by the CEO

D.

The CAE reports administratively to the chief operating officer

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Questions 94

A new internal audit activity is considering the adoption of a risk and control framework. Which of the following is the most appropriate consideration during this process?

Options:

A.

The framework should not be developed by the internal audit activity

B.

The framework should apply to individual projects rather than the organization as a whole

C.

The framework should always be tailored to the organization

D.

The framework should require fewer resources to implement

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Questions 95

An organization's board has approved an expansion plan into a new market. The board acknowledged that if the expansion is not successful, the organization would encounter large monetary losses consisting of legal fees, research and development costs, rent expenses, and labor fees. Which of the following has the board approved?

Options:

A.

The risk response.

B.

The risk tolerance.

C.

The residual risk.

D.

The inherent risk.

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Questions 96

In which of the following situations has the internal auditor violated the IIA's Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

An employee confided in an internal auditor and told him about fradulent activities. Although the employee asked for confidentially, the auditor disclosed her identity later during police questioning.

B.

While auditing payroll controls, an auditor was granted temporary access to salary data. The auditor referred to the acquired information while negotiating her work conditions three months later.

C.

Management considers an auditor to be highly competent and asked the audit to participate in an upcoming acquisition project. The auditor declined the request, calming a lack of knowledge.

D.

An internal auditor failed to acquire the continuing education credits needed for the year and requested that. The IIA change his certification status to inactive until the completed the required education activities.

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Questions 97

An internal auditor notes that inventory counts are conducted on Mondays only and that all documentation is on paper as there are no computers in the underground warehouses. Also she notices that the person responsible for receiving the goods is the same one who distributes materials and spare parts Finally, she sees that spare parts are written off and taken by the heads of mining units to different underground locations to wait for their turn to be installed. Which of the described findings requires more consideration from a fraud risk perspective?

Options:

A.

The job responsibilities of the warehouse employee compromise segregation of duties

B.

Spare parts are written off before their actual usage and installation

C.

Warehouse management is conducted on paper and requires further investigation

D.

The inventory counts take place on specific days of the week for no apparent reason

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Questions 98

Who is held responsible for oversight of the organization's risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Operational management.

B.

Board of directors.

C.

Internal auditors.

D.

Head of risk management.

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Questions 99

Which of the following options describes the reason that conformance with The IIA's Code of Ethics is mandatory for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder confidence in the competence of the internal audit activity and of professional internal auditors.

B.

Ethical compliance is necessary for internal auditors and the internal audit activity to accept responsibility for providing g absolute assurance about the organization's risk management.

C.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder trust and confidence in the validity of the profession of internal auditing and the internal audit activity's findings.

D.

The internal audit activity's ethical compliance sets the tone for the ethical compliance by the organization's board, management, and employees.

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Questions 100

IT management requires all employees in the IT department to attend annual training on the department’s mission values and key performance measures This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge’s kills gap

B.

Monitoring gap

C.

Accountability/reward failure

D.

Communication failure

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Questions 101

A chief audit executive (CAE) was asked by senior management to establish and manage a risk management function. A new chief risk officer was hired a year later to assume these responsibilities. As this function was included in the current annual audit plan, the CAE engaged an external resource for a risk management engagement. Which of the following potential threats to objectivity was the CAE likely addressing?

Options:

A.

Self-review threat.

B.

Advocacy threat.

C.

Familiarity threat.

D.

Personal relationship threat.

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Questions 102

The internal audit activity is responsible for conducting fraud investigations. A potential fraud instance was identified during an audit engagement. The chief audit executive appoints a lead investigate. Which of the following would most likely be the next step?

Options:

A.

Ask internal auditors to gather all relevant information evidence

B.

Identify and interview witnesses first potential suspects later.

C.

Conduct a fraud risk assessment to the most vulnerable areas.

D.

Determine me competencies needed and assess whatever team members have a conflict of interest.

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Questions 103

Of all the common characteristics of frauds, which of the following can the organization influence the most?

Options:

A.

Pressure or incentive.

B.

Rationalization

C.

Opportunity

D.

Commitment.

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Questions 104

In order for an internal auditor to assess the opportunity for fraud to occur in an organization, which of the following does the auditor first need to understand?

Options:

A.

Fraud prevention.

B.

Fraud detection.

C.

Corporate culture.

D.

Forensic analysis techniques.

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Questions 105

According to MA guidance, which of the following is true with regard to the internal audit charter?

1. It specifies the minimum resources needed for assurance engagements.

2. It requires final approval from senior management.

3. It defines the internal audit activity's authority and responsibilities.

4. It describes the expectations for communicating the results of a quality assurance and Improvement program.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

3 and 4 only.

C.

1.2. and 4.

D.

2. 3. and 4.

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Questions 106

What is expected of internal auditors in regards to due professional care?

Options:

A.

Auditors perform assurance services without regard to cost

B.

Auditors perform assurance services effectively to identify all risks

C.

Auditors perform assurance services needed to achieve the engagement's objectives

D.

Auditors perform assurance services to guarantee all significant risks will be addressed

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Questions 107

Which of the following indicates that internal audit independence may be compromised?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor maintains a close personal relationship with operational management.

B.

Material observations were intentionally left out of the audit report.

C.

Internal auditors assigned to the audit engagement did not have the knowledge, skills, and competencies needed to perform their responsibilities.

D.

An internal auditor failed to apply professional skepticism while performing audit tests in an area overseen by an experienced, reputable manager

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Questions 108

According to MA guidance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Coaching management in responding to risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on management's behalf.

C.

Imposing risk management processes.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

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Questions 109

Which of the following demonstrates that the internal audit activity exercises due professional care?

Options:

A.

Supervisors provide feedback to internal auditors after workpapers are reviewed

B.

A self-assessment is conducted through the quality assurance and improvement program every five years

C.

Internal auditors are required to give absolute assurance of regulatory compliance

D.

The chief audit executive reports functionally to the board

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Questions 110

It is important for the chief audit executive to consider the level of competence of the internal audit staff because their competence influences which of the following?

Options:

A.

The cost-benefit relationship of planned audits.

B.

Proficiency needed to carry out engagements.

C.

Achievement of the objectives of internal control.

D.

Quantity of the audits performed.

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Questions 111

Which of the following best demonstrates organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports directly to the board

B.

Internal auditors may not disclose personal data of the audit client

C.

Internal auditors may not accept gifts from management of the area under review

D.

Internal auditors must observe the law and make required disclosures

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Questions 112

Which of the following is true regarding risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Impact and likelihood should be assessed together.

B.

Impact and likelihood should be given equal consideration by the internal auditor.

C.

Impact and likelihood should be measured using quantitative methods.

D.

Impact and likelihood should be used to determine risk response.

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Questions 113

Which of the following organizations has reached the most mature level of corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

An organization that is able to provide goods and services society needs and thus maximizes profit to its owners.

B.

An organization that ensures compliance to legal frameworks of the countries in which it operates and sells its products.

C.

An organization that is willing to make contributions not mandated by law or economics and expects no payback.

D.

An organization that requires its decision makers to act with equity, fairness, and respect for the rights of individuals.

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Questions 114

The chief audit executive (CAE) is drafting the annual internal audit plan and seeks input from senior management and the external auditor prior to submitting it for approval to the board. According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The CAE's actions are likely to impair the Independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

The CAE acted appropriately, and the independence of the internal audit activity was not impaired.

C.

The CAE should have developed the audit plan without outside influence to maintain objectivity.

D.

The CAE acted appropriately, as he has authority to determine who reviews and approves the audit plan.

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Questions 115

Prior to commencing a financial compliance engagement, the engagement supervisor reads the business plan for the finance department and meets informally with the director to learn more about any key issues. Which of the following competencies is the engagement supervisor demonstrating?

Options:

A.

The ability to inspire trust

B.

The ability to communicate effectively

C.

The ability to display courage

D.

The ability to understand the needs of stakeholders

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Questions 116

Which of the following skills is critical for assessing corporate social responsibility through a self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Assessment skills

B.

Assurance skills

C.

Interviewing skills

D.

Facilitation skills

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Questions 117

Which of the following qualifies as an acceptable consulting service provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Develop training and system rollout plans in response to the results of the change readiness assessment of a new sales distribution model

B.

Lead a risk self assessment session for laboratory managers to help identify inherent risks and provide recommendations on how to evaluate the risks

C.

Audit a third party cloud service provider to review the effectiveness of governance and management controls in providing secure services to its customers

D.

Conduct a post-implementation assessment of the enterprise resource planning system to determine whether project objectives were met and to identify opportunities to maximize potential benefits

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Questions 118

Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing a governance risk management and compliance framework within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fewer internal audits

B.

More effective interviews

C.

Automated risk management strategy tools

D.

Reduced assurance costs

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Questions 119

Which of the following is a key determinant used by external auditors to decide whether they can rely on work performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The auditors' independence.

B.

The auditors' objectivity.

C.

The auditors' integrity.

D.

The auditors' confidentiality.

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Questions 120

Which of the following engagements would be considered an appropriate consulting service?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity of a commercial bank routinely performs branch audits for compliance with regulations.

B.

The internal audit activity participates in a cosourcing arrangement with an IT audit firm to test information systems security.

C.

The internal audit activity facilitates biannual training of the risk management team in risk identification methodologies.

D.

The internal audit activity partners with external auditors annually to complete fieldwork required as a part of the external audit exercise.

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Questions 121

According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding an effective governance process?

Options:

A.

It stipulates that risk needs to be considered when making strategic decisions.

B.

It encourages strict segregation of the risk management and internal control processes.

C.

It relies on effective risk management when establishing the organization's risk appetite.

D.

It relies on the board to devise ways to communicate the effectiveness of internal controls.

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Questions 122

The organization's chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an immediate assurance engagement following several product recalls. However, the internal audit staff does not have the required Knowledge and experience to adequately assess all the relevant processes and procedures. According to 11A guidance, which of the following actions should the CAE take under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Use the current available resources to conduct the review and exclude those procedures that can't currently be performed.

B.

Implement an accelerated training plan to provide the audit staff with the necessary skills and knowledge to conduct the engagement.

C.

Encourage management to accept the assessed risk until the internal audit activity is able to adequately review the area.

D.

Obtain assistance for the audit team from other internal assurance providers who possess the requisite expertise in the area.

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Questions 123

Which of the following should play a leading role in overseeing the ethical atmosphere of an organization?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity

B.

Operating management

C.

Senior management

D.

Board of directors

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Questions 124

Six months after an employee was transferred to the internal audit activity his former operating manager requested that he return to assist a project team with the evaluation of a new pricing module for the organization’s online ordering system According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor cannot be assigned to this project, as it has been fewer than 12 months since he was transferred from that department.

B.

Another internal auditor should be appointed to the engagement to preserve the independence of the internal audit activity

C.

The auditor cannot participate in the assignment, as providing an opinion would impair his objectivity

D.

The auditor may participate on the project, as the nature of the assignment is consulting

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Questions 125

What should the chief audit executive do when the internal audit activity is found to be in nonconformance with the Code of Ethics or the Standards?

Options:

A.

Assign competent staff to the area under audit to remediate the nonconformance.

B.

Determine how the deviation impacted the overall scope of the internal audit activity.

C.

Meet with the board to gam an understanding of the board's expectations.

D.

Communicate the matter to the board at the time of the next external assessment.

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Questions 126

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to ensure that a newly formed internal audit activity remains free from undue influence by management?

Options:

A.

Appoint the chief audit executive as a member of the board.

B.

Adopt written policies and procedures for the internal audit activity, approved by the board.

C.

Ensure the chief audit executive reports administratively to the audit committee.

D.

Establish the internal audit activity’s position within the organization in an audit charter.

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Questions 127

An internal auditor observed that sales staff are able to modify or cancel an order in the system prior to shipping* She wonders whether they can also modify orders after shipping. Which of the following types of controls should she examine?

Options:

A.

Batch controls.

B.

Application controls.

C.

General IT controls.

D.

Logical access controls

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Questions 128

Which of the following best describes the type of risk that an adequately designed and effectively operating system of internal controls should mitigate?

Options:

A.

Net.

B.

Controllable.

C.

inherent,

D.

Residual.

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Questions 129

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a new internal audit activity is creating an internal audit charter According to IIA guidance, which of the following terms is most likely to

be included in the charter?

Options:

A.

Senior management will be present whenever the CAE interacts with the board, to ensure effective communication among all three parties.

B.

Internal auditors will advise on the design of control policies and procedures in any area where the organization does not possess the requisite expertise,

C.

Internal auditors will demonstrate competence, concern, and the dedication expected of a professional,

D.

Internal auditors will receive performance-based compensation, including bonuses for reporting more than a stipulated number of observations.

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Questions 130

Which of the following actions is a chief audit executive most likely to take in order to identify gaps in the internal audit activity’s knowledge, skills, and competencies?

Options:

A.

Complete a skills assessment of the internal audit activity based on. The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework.

B.

Develop a competency assessment tool for the internal audit activity based on The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework.

C.

Incorporate the basic criteria for competency of the internal audit activity into the job descriptions of potential internal auditors,

D.

Develop an internal audit activity plan for training internal auditors to perform required assurance and consulting activities.

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Questions 131

Outsourcing a business activity is considered which of the following risk management techniques?

Options:

A.

Sharing a risk.

B.

Avoiding a risk.

C.

Reducing a risk.

D.

Mitigating a risk

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Questions 132

During an assurance engagement internal auditors interview operational management to gather and evaluate information. Which approach is most important for internal auditors to be able to listen effectively to interviewees in the given situation?

Options:

A.

Make an audio recording of the interview

B.

Interrupt with questions during unclear statements

C.

Express interest by asking follow-up questions

D.

Avoid periods of silence

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Questions 133

When issuing his department’s performance report, a sales director in an insurance company knowingly fails to correct the reserves for unearned income that resulted from cancellations of policy subscriptions. This could be considered which of the following types of fraud?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation

B.

Skimming

C.

Disbursement fraud

D.

Information misrepresentation

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Questions 134

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the Fraud Triangle component known as "perceived opportunity"?

Options:

A.

Substantial bonuses are awarded if financial targets are met.

B.

Duties are not properly segregated.

C.

Employees may perceive favoritism and feel overlooked and resentful.

D.

Bonuses may not be paid this year.

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Questions 135

Senior management has decided to adopt the key principles approach of the ISO 31000 risk management framework. According to IIA guidance, which of the following principles is most appropriate when implementing the risk management process in a dynamic agency?

Options:

A.

Everyone in the agency has a primary responsibility for identifying and managing risks as part of the risk management process.

B.

The risk management process, while evaluating risk, should develop a mechanism to rank the relative importance of each risk.

C.

The risk management process should be regularly reviewed and respond to changes in the environment, to remain relevant.

D.

The risk management process should use a formal technique to consider the consequence and likelihood of each risk.

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Questions 136

In which of the following ways can a chief audit executive demonstrate to the board that the internal audit activity collectively possesses all of the skills needed to complete its annual goals?

Options:

A.

Involve board members in hiring activities and request advice.

B.

Require all internal audit staff to complete the same training course on a general audit subject,

C.

Require senior auditors to obtain a professional certification.

D.

Provide a competency assessment of the internal audit staff.

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Questions 137

After being assigned to an audit of the accounts payable process, an internal auditor privately notifies the chief audit executive that she is a finalist for an open manager position within the accounts payable department. Which of the following is the IIA Code of Ethics principle that the auditor upheld?

Options:

A.

Independence.

B.

Confidentiality.

C.

Objectivity.

D.

Competency

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Questions 138

During a payroll audit, the internal auditor discovered that several individuals who have the same position classification as he are earning a significantly higher salary. The auditor noted the names and amounts of each, and he planned to prepare a request to the chief audit executive for a salary increase based on this information. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was violated in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Competency.

B.

Objectivity,

C.

Integrity.

D.

Confidentiality

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Questions 139

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor uses benchmarking research to support preparation of a report to stakeholders that contains significant findings about control deficiencies. Which of the following skills did the auditor demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Internal audit management.

B.

Conflict negotiation.

C.

Critical thinking.

D.

Persuasion and collaboration.

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Questions 140

When taken by a chief audit executive, which of the following actions would be most likely to prevent division management from exaggerating sales reports?

1. Announcing a series of internal audit engagements focusing on compliance with corporate sales-reporting policies.

2. Asking the president and the board to issue a statement of corporate policy stressing the importance of accurate management

reporting and the negative consequences of intentional misreporting.

3. Setting up a hotline for employees to report fraudulent behavior anonymously,

4. Assisting the controller in developing and monitoring a series of business process indicators, which are historically correlated with, but independent of sales.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 141

Upon joining the internal audit activity, each new auditor receives a copy of the audit handbook. Which of the following handbook policies has the greatest risk of compromising audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should obtain 80 hours of continuing professional education every two years, 20 of which should be audit-related, and the remainder may be operations-related.

B.

Internal auditors should rotate to other areas of the organization for nonaudit assignments to gain an understanding of the organization's operations.

C.

Internal auditors should have direct and unrestricted access to personnel and information throughout the organization and the governing board.

D.

Internal auditors should undergo annual performance appraisals conducted by the chief audit executive, who reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

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Questions 142

Management assessed the organization’s risk of expanding operations into a new, but volatile, region and began looking for a compatible local partner to manage sales and distribution. Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Avoidance.

B.

Acceptance.

C.

Reduction.

D.

Sharing

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Questions 143

Which of the following skills is most important for an internal auditor who facilitates control self-assessment workshops to possess?

Options:

A.

Groupthink.

B.

Collaboration skills.

C.

Process analysis skills.

D.

Project management skills.

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Questions 144

Which of the following best demonstrates that the internal audit activity is using due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity reports directly to the board on the engagements it performs.

B.

Internal auditors undertake the necessary training to complete their audit work.

C.

The completion of engagements is based on the assumption that fraudulent activities may exist.

D.

Internal auditors consider the use of technology-based audit and other data analysts techniques

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Questions 145

Which of the following best describes the risk contained in an initial public offering for a new stock?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Net risk.

C.

Inherent risk.

D.

Underlying risk.

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Questions 146

Which of the following is an example of a directive control?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties.

B.

Exception reports.

C.

Training programs.

D.

Supervisory review.

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Questions 147

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership.

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting.

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Questions 148

A multinational organization has asked the internal audit activity to assist in setting up the organization’s risk management system. The chief audit executive (CAE) agrees to take on the engagement as a consultant. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the CAE to undertake?

Options:

A.

Coordinate and facilitate risk workshops for management to attend.

B.

Establish the degree of risk appetite for management to accept.

C.

Set risk indicators and mitigation plans for management to implement

D.

Determine the number of significant risks for management to report to the board.

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Questions 149

An engagement supervisor noted that an internal auditor's personal relationship with a process owner resulted in the auditor providing a favorable and partial assessment during an audit within that process owner's area. According to MA guidance, which of the following should be used to manage this impairment?

Options:

A.

An internal audit charter.

B.

An employee disciplinary policy.

C.

A functional audit committee.

D.

A functional reporting placement.

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Questions 150

According to the Standards, which of the following is a requirement for internal audit professional development plans?

Options:

A.

Plans must include a path to certification so that each internal auditor has a certification in auditing finances.

B.

Plans must ensure that staff development activities are based primarily on the skills and competencies needed to complete the audit plan.

C.

Plans must include rotating audit areas so that auditors acquire business knowledge to be efficient in performing engagements.

D.

Plans must include rotating auditors out into business units for temporary assignments so they can obtain more business knowledge.

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Questions 151

In an internal audit charter, which of the following statements regarding the chief audit executive (CAE) would be most directly related to describing the responsibilities of the internal audit activity*?

Options:

A.

The CAE shall report functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The CAE and the Internal audit activity shall have full access to any and all records and personnel of the organization that are relevant to audit engagements

C.

The CAE and the internal audit activity shall be independent and objective in performing their work.

D.

The CAE shall report periodically on the performance of the internal audit activity relative to its plan

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Questions 152

A newly hired internal auditor is performing an engagement that requires significant IT expertise that he does not possess. If the auditor does not alert the chief audit executive about his lack of expertise and decides to perform the engagement anyhow, which principle of the IIA's Code of Ethics would he violate?

Options:

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Competency.

C.

Effective communication

D.

Professionalism

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Questions 153

Which of the following scenarios violates The IIA's standard regarding internal audit independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports on the internal audit activity's day-to-day tasks and responsibilities to the CEO.

B.

An assessment of the risk management function is reviewed by an outside consulting firm because the CAE is temporarily fulfilling the role of risk manager.

C.

The CAE regularly meets with the organization's chief risk officer, who validates all reported audit findings and dictates which will be Included In the package to the audit committee.

D.

The internal audit activity will experience staffing shortages for the next six months due to planned and unplanned leaves of absence; therefore the CAE proposed including fewer audits in the annual audit plan compared to the previous financial year.

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Questions 154

The chief audit executive (CAE) planned an in-person group training to help internal auditors perform onsite inspections of an automobile manufacturing facility. The training would have allowed the auditors to better understand the production of the organization's automobiles. However, a global health crisis has impacted the training by prohibiting in-person contact at the facility. Which of the following could the CAE use to provide auditors with a better understanding of the organization s production process?

Options:

A.

A general web-based training on auditing manufacturing processes.

B.

Self-study courses on the industry's production practices

C.

Industry publications that discuss production methods

D.

A virtual meeting with management that explains the production of automobiles

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Questions 155

An organization sells products through distributors. The organization's chief audit executive insists that the organization's code of conduct be applicable to their distributors as well. Which of the following risks would this mitigate?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Market manipulation

C.

intellectual property leakage

D.

Reputational damage

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Questions 156

During fieldwork, an internal auditor located a significant internal control issue. Without identifying the origins of the issue, the auditor concluded the engagement and included the issue in the final audit report. To enhance audit quality, which of the following skills should the internal auditor improve?

Options:

A.

Business acumen.

B.

Critical thinking.

C.

Communication.

D.

Audit report writing.

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Questions 157

According to MA guidance, which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The IIA's Code of Ethics must exist outside of the charter to maintain independence.

B.

The charter must be approved by both senior management and the board.

C.

The nature of consulting services does not need to be defined in the Internal audit charter.

D.

The charter provides a framework for performing a broad range of value-added audit services.

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Questions 158

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility {CSR) evaluation activities may be performed by the internal audit activity?

1. Consult on CSR program design and implementation

2. Serve as an advisor on CSR governance and risk management.

3. Review third parties for contractual compliance with CSR terms.

4. Identify and mitigate risks to help meet the CSR program objectives.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3.

B.

1,2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 159

Which of the following drivers of fraud is directly controllable by an organization?

Options:

A.

Pressure

B.

Rationalization

C.

Opportunity

D.

Incentive

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Questions 160

According to NA guidance which of the following should be documented in the internal audit chatter?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment process applied by the internal audit activity

B.

The organization's internal control framework used by the internal audit activity

C.

The nature of consulting services provided by the internal audit activity

D.

The performance evaluation process used by the internal audit activity

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Questions 161

Which of the following would be the best choice for a continuing professional development requirement for a newly created internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Require all internal auditors to create a training plan based on a competency self-assessment.

B.

Require internal auditors to complete all of their training through webinars, to increase efficiency and avoid traveling

C.

Require all internal auditors to become a member of The Institute of Internal Auditors.

D.

Require internal auditors to create a training plan based on their areas of interest

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Questions 162

Which of the following best demonstrates organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the CEO.

B.

The CAE's compensation is approved by the chief financial officer.

C.

The CAE's appointment Is determined by the CEO

D.

The CAE reports administratively to the chief operating officer.

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Questions 163

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities would typically be examined when using the maturity model approach for assessing an organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Monitor and review

B.

Performance measurement.

C.

Setting the context.

D.

Communication.

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Questions 164

A third-party provider's questionable labor practices have exposed the organization to reputational risks and regulatory risks. Which of the organization's risk management practices was most likely ineffective?

Options:

A.

The organization ensured that the third-party vendor provided the best pricing for the requested services.

B.

The organization conducted quality control reviews of provided services to ensure industry standards were met.

C.

The organization performed a due diligence review of all vendors during the bid review process.

D.

The organization planned to issue a resolution concerning the third-party provider's labor practices.

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Questions 165

Which of the following best describes a responsibility of the board of directors with regard to risk management throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

Monitor the organization's overall risk activities in relation to its risk appetite and other risk criteria.

B.

Guide the integration of risk management with other business planning and management activities.

C.

Review the portfolio of risk of the organization in relation to its risk appetite.

D.

Assume responsibility for the effectiveness and success of the risk management framework

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Questions 166

An organization employs ongoing monitoring and is considering implementing periodic evaluations to assess the continuing effectiveness of its risk management process. Which of the following statements Is true with regard to such periodic evaluations?

Options:

A.

Periodic evaluations are considered to be less objective than ongoing monitoring.

B.

Periodic evaluations can be more effective than ongoing monitoring.

C.

Periodic evaluation frequency may depend on the results of ongoing monitoring.

D.

Periodic evaluations frequently identify problems more quickly than ongoing monitoring.

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Questions 167

Which of the following scenarios is a characterize of an organization with a highly effective ethical culture?

Options:

A.

An organization implements and communicates to staff a formal and comprehensive code of conduct, which is clear and understandable.

B.

An organization waives reference and background checks when hiring for certain sensitive positions in order to not violate potential employees' rights to privacy.

C.

An organization punishes senior management more harshly for ethics violations than it would for lower-level staff to send a message throughout the organization.

D.

An organization conducts surveys of employees, suppliers, and customers once every five years to determine the slate of the ethical climate in the organization.

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Questions 168

When beginning an engagement to assess the effectiveness of the organization's newly revamped risk management processes, which of the following should internal auditors review first?

Options:

A.

Key risk disclosures in the annual report.

B.

Existing risk assessment and identification processes.

C.

Organizational strategy and business plans.

D.

Risk mitigation plans and risk responses.

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Questions 169

A manufacturer of power tools is experiencing regular fluctuations in the price of electrical power which is having a serious impact on the bottom line. Which of the following would be the most effective risk strategy to reduce the impact of these fluctuations?

Options:

A.

Use an average cost for power to smooth the bottom line.

B.

Analyze the amount of power used to produce each power tool.

C.

Review the current process to identify opportunities to reduce power usage.

D.

Use a forward contract for bulk power purchases

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Questions 170

A newly hired internal auditor is most likely to need further education in the area of business acumen in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

She was transferred from the managerial accounting department of the same organization.

B.

She was recruited from the internal audit activity of another organization that operates in a different industry.

C.

She was offered a permanent position after she had worked with the organization for two years in a temporary auditor-in-training position.

D.

She previously served on the organization's external audit team and was recruited to the internal audit activity following the current year's financial audit.

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Questions 171

According to IIA guidance, which of the following training methods is considered most effective in assisting new entry-level internal auditors in achieving competence with internal audit practices in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Pursuance of an internal audit certification.

B.

Enrollment in internal audit practice webinars.

C.

Attendance of internal audit workshops.

D.

Involvement in a variety of audit assignments.

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Questions 172

Under which of the following circumstances should the final audit report include a disclosure of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

An external quality assessment of the internal audit activity is performed only once every five years.

B.

The internal auditor provided negative assurance, because he found no evidence of misconduct.

C.

The annual internal audit plan includes some consulting engagements that are based on opportunities rather than risks to the organization.

D.

A new internal auditor moved into the internal audit activity from the payroll department and was immediately assigned to the payroll audit.

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Questions 173

Which of the following activities best ensures that internal auditors grow professionally in alignment with current industry trends to meet the expectations of primary stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Deploying self-assessments against a competency benchmark.

B.

Acquiring memberships in professional organizations.

C.

Developing professional succession plans.

D.

Obtaining subscriptions to professional journals in their area of interest.

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Questions 174

Which of the following would be the most appropriate first step for the board to take when developing an effective system of governance?

Options:

A.

Determine the organization’s overall risk appetite.

B.

Establish a governance committee.

C.

Delegate authority to members of senior management.

D.

Identify key stakeholders and their expectations

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Questions 175

During an audit engagement, a junior staff internal auditor begins to suspect a fraud may have occurred involving a friend of the engagement supervisor. He reports his concerns to the engagement supervisor, who disagrees with his suspicions and directs him to continue with the engagement as planned. Given the circumstance, what is the most appropriate action for the junior auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Document in the workpapers and expand testing.

B.

Continue with the engagement as planned, per the more senior auditor.

C.

Report the suspected fraud to law enforcement officials and seek financial restitution.

D.

Escalate the concern to the chief audit executive.

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Questions 176

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by a new chief audit executive would be most appropriate to gain an understanding of the current level of knowledge, skills, and competencies required by an internal audit activity to fulfill its responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Identify gaps in the activity’s proficiency, based on criteria defined by a widely accepted competency framework.

B.

Have a quality assessment review performed by an expert external entity.

C.

Identify a mature internal audit activity to serve as a benchmark for measuring the internal audit activity’s competence.

D.

Assess whether members of the internal audit activity understand and apply the 11As mandatory guidance.

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Questions 177

Which of the following is a responsibility of the internal audit activity as it relates to risk and risk management?

Options:

A.

Evaluating and suggesting improvements to the risk management process.

B.

Establishing the organization's risk appetite.

C.

Determining whether the risk attitude is aligned with shareholder interests.

D.

Ensuring an adequate risk management system is in place.

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Questions 178

A fraud investigation was completed by management, and a proven fraud was communicated to relevant authorities. According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles would be most appropriate for the internal audit activity to undertake after the investigation?

Options:

A.

Plan employee sessions and team building strategies for the organization to improve awareness of fraud among employees

B.

Review the investigation and implement any improvements to the process.

C.

Conduct lessons learned sessions to ascertain how the fraud occurred and which controls failed.

D.

Determine why the fraud was not detected earlier and design controls to strengthen early detection.

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Questions 179

An organization's board recommends revising the internal audit charter by adding requirements regarding the hiring and compensation of the chief audit executive as well as information on approving the internal audit budget. Which of the following is the board most likely defining in the charter?

Options:

A.

Functional and administrative responsibilities of internal audit activity.

B.

Authority and objectivity of internal audit activity.

C.

Independence and objectivity of internal audit activity.

D.

Assurance and improvement of internal audit activity.

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Questions 180

Which of the following would be considered an indicator that an organization's ethics program is not yet well developed?

Options:

A.

Disciplinary actions for ethics compliance violations are reviewed by the internal audit activity for consistency.

B.

Communication of ethics compliance expectations is the responsibility of employees' direct managers.

C.

The organization's code of ethics and related compliance policy are reviewed annually for potential updates.

D.

The board of directors reviews ethics oversight metrics for violations and compliance.

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Questions 181

What is the primary reason for establishing a continuing professional development program within an organization's internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To ensure all internal audit responsibilities can be met

B.

To ensure all audit staff members are capable of performing a quality self-assessment.

C.

To ensure that each auditor maintains responsibility for his own professional development.

D.

To attract the best and most talented candidates in the profession

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Questions 182

Which of the following represents a deficiency in the control environment?

Options:

A.

The sales department has failed to achieve targets for the last nine months.

B.

Employees report suspicious activity by calling the organization's ethics hotline.

C.

Hiring procedures do not include background checks for prospective job candidates.

D.

Management reports three potential ethics issues to the board of directors.

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Questions 183

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the strongest indicator of deficiencies in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

The periodic evaluation of risk ratings is primarily dependent on subjective assessments.

B.

Separate evaluations of the risk management process were conducted, but the results were never integrated.

C.

Management's primary objective is minimizing changes to the structure and operation of the risk management process.

D.

Many aspects of the related enterprise risk management program are informal and undocumented.

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Questions 184

Considering the concepts of organization wide risk management and the system of internal controls, the internal audit activity as a whole can be considered which of the following types of control?

Options:

A.

Transaction-level control.

B.

Management-oversight control.

C.

Governance control.

D.

Process-level control.

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Questions 185

Which of the following is a limitation of detective internal controls in fraud management?

Options:

A.

Implementation costs tend to be higher than the expected benefits.

B.

They tend to be easy for fraudsters to circumvent.

C.

They are not designed to improve efficiency of operations.

D.

They are not effective in preventing fraud.

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Questions 186

Which of the following describes the most appropriate match between a potential temporary guest auditor candidate and an upcoming audit assignment?

Options:

A.

A purchasing manager with two years of prior audit experience in public practice to lead a contracts management audit

B.

A communications officer who worked in the marketing department during the last six months to conduct a customer loyalty program audit

C.

A manager of social responsibility who has a nursing background to participate m a health and safety audit for the corporate office and plant facilities

D.

An accounting manager who discovered and reported fraud committed by a payables clerk to conduct a performance audit of accounts payable

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Questions 187

Which of the following offers the feast evidence that the internal audit activity has achieved organizational independence?

Options:

A.

An independent third party has assessed the organization's system of internal controls to be adequate and effective.

B.

The chief audit executive reports both functionally and administratively to the CEO.

C.

The internal audit charter is drafted properly and approved by the appropriate parties.

D.

The mission statement and strategy of the internal audit activity demonstrates alignment to organizational objectives.

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Questions 188

Due to extreme liquid fuel price fluctuations, management decided to designate a specific price below which liquid fuel shall not be sold to customers, but instead shall be pumped into storage tanks. Which of the following risk responses has management selected?

Options:

A.

Risk reduction.

B.

Risk transfer.

C.

Risk acceptance.

D.

Risk avoidance.

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Questions 189

What is the primary purpose of The IIA's Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

Communicate specific activities appropriate to the performance of internal auditing

B.

Promote ethical culture within corporations and other business organizations

C.

Establish mandatory standards of competence for the practice of internal auditing

D.

Establish principles and expectations governing behavior of individuals and organizations in the conduct of internal auditing

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Questions 190

Which of the following should be part of the internal audit activity's duties?

Options:

A.

Actively reporting to the governing body.

B.

Providing risk management frameworks.

C.

Assisting management in developing processes and controls to manage risks and issues.

D.

Identifying and mitigating significant risks to the organization.

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Questions 191

Which of the following would be an important aspect of an internal auditor's role in fraud management?

Options:

A.

Utilizing analytical techniques to actively discover instances of potential fraud

B.

Conducting fraud based audits to ensure that fraud will be detected during engagements

C.

Implementing fraud prevention controls to minimize and mitigate the risk of fraud

D.

Reporting instances of fraud discovered during engagements to regulatory bodies

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Questions 192

Which of the following best describes a consulting engagement rather an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Bank internal auditors review an activity checklist to determine that the loan officer followed proper procedures.

B.

The chief financial officer asks for the internal auditor's opinion regarding whether the new accounting pronouncements were properly and comprehensively adopted

C.

An internal auditor is assigned to assess whether a proposed new initiative to convert a customer service system would be cost effective.

D.

Senior management asks the internal audit activity to review compliance with customer data security regulations

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Questions 193

According to IIA guidance, the internal audit activity must be free from interference in which of the following areas in order to maintain organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Monitoring resources.

B.

Compensating the chief audit executive.

C.

Determining scope.

D.

Allocating internal costs.

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Questions 194

After the draft engagement report is issued, the manager of the area that was reviewed is informally interviewed by the engagement supervisor regarding the audit experience. Which of the following is most likely the purpose for this interview?

Options:

A.

Such an interview is performed when there is a need to dismiss an internal auditor

B.

Feedback from the manager will contribute to the audit team's professional development

C.

The manager's opinion will be used to form the final audit assessment and report rating.

D.

The manager will provide insights into the audited industry's trends

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Questions 195

To comply with the proficiency standard which of the following would the chief audit executive likely consider as the primary hiring criterion when choosing a new internal auditor?

Options:

A.

The length and consistency of the auditor's work experience

B.

The auditor's demonstrated problem-solving skills

C.

The auditor's skills compared to those already possessed by other audit staff

D.

The auditor's ability to be self motivated and a good team player

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Questions 196

The internal audit activity is responsible for conducting fraud investigations. A potential fraud instance was identified during an audit engagement. The chief audit executive appoints a lead investigator. Which of the following would most likely be the next step?

Options:

A.

Ask internal auditors to gather all relevant information and evidence.

B.

Identify and interview witnesses first and potential suspects later.

C.

Conduct a fraud risk assessment to identify the most vulnerable areas.

D.

Determine the competencies needed and assess whether team members have a conflict of Interest.

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Questions 197

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is accurate regarding the chief audit executive's (CAE's) requirement to report the results of quality assessments?

1. The CAE must report the results of external assessments at least annually.

2. The CAE must report the results of ongoing monitoring at least annually.

3. The CAE must report the results of quality assessments to senior management.

4. The CAE must report the results of quality assessments to the board.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1,2. and 3.

D.

2,3, and 4.

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Questions 198

Which of the following Code of Ethics principles specifically requires internal auditors to disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of activities under review?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Transparency.

C.

Integrity.

D.

Objectivity.

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Questions 199

Due to unfavorable economic conditions management decided to postpone new investments for the next year. Which of the following best describes the risk management strategy used to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk reduction

D.

Risk transfer

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Questions 200

A chief audit executive added more money to the IT training budget to ensure the organization's internal auditors were able to perform data analytics while performing an audit. Which core competency is being addressed?

Options:

A.

Data analytics

B.

IT fraud detection.

C.

Continuing professional development

D.

Due professional care.

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Questions 201

Which of the following actions by the internal audit activity requires disclosure to the board of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity did not complete an external assessment within the last seven years

B.

The internal audit activity performed an engagement with limited scope due to lack of knowledge

C.

The internal audit activity failed to consider risk when conducting a review of a department

D.

An internal auditor was assigned to an engagement m an area where she previously worked more than 10 years ago

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Questions 202

The chief audit executive (CAE) annually develops a budget and resource plan and submits it to the board for approval. This action best fulfills which of the following responsibilities of the CAE?

Options:

A.

The responsibility to maintain organizational independence.

B.

The responsibility to perform engagements with due professional care.

C.

The responsibility to communicate corrective action plans to the board.

D.

The responsibility to define the purpose of the internal audit activity.

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Questions 203

Internal audit is performing an engagement to determine whether there were indications of questionable bidding on a city s infrastructure project. As part of the engagement the internal audit activity became aware that certain firms tend to receive the contracts for large city projects. How should the internal audit activity proceed with the engagement and identify questionable bidding practices?

Options:

A.

Obtain the city s vendor listing to determine whether there was an adequate number of firms available to solicit bids for protects

B.

Obtain at of the city s financial records to identify any firms that received payments for contracted goods and services.

C.

Obtain the city's contracting files to determine whether the city demonstrated efforts to solicit bids from various interested firms.

D.

Obtain the city’s official public meeting minutes to determine whether there were concerns about the contracting practices

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Questions 204

Which of the following are some of the requirements of the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

The OAIP should be conducted at least once every three years, and must be performed by an external assessor.

B.

The OAIP should be conducted on an ongoing basis, and can be completed as a self-assessment,

C.

he QAIP should include both internal assessments performed by staff and external assessments performed by independent, objective individuals

D.

The OAIP should be performed with scoping limitations established by the board.

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Questions 205

The board requested the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide consulting services for a new systems implementation project Which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The CAE should avoid making decisions on risk responses within risk management processes.

B.

The CAE may only provide consulting and not assurance services in risk management processes

C.

The CAE may manage the project risks on behalf of management in this particular situation

D.

The CAE should avoid giving assurance on risk management processes in this particular situation

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Questions 206

Due to toe increased operational responsibility of the CEO. The chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization currently reports to the chief financial officer (CFO). What is the likely imped of such a situation?

Options:

A.

There may be limitation m the scope of engagements that can be undertaken

B.

The CPO could provide expert advice when auditing areas under his purview

C.

The internal audit activity is adequately positioned when the CAE reports to a member of executive management

D.

The expense of finance staff can be catted upon during an audit of finance-related areas

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Questions 207

In the context of an internal control framework, organizational structure and assignment of authority and responsibility is related to which of the following?

Options:

A.

Control activities.

B.

Information and communication.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Control environment.

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Questions 208

During an audit of an organization's accounts payable area, an internal auditor identified anomalies in the information examined that may indicate potential fraud. Which test should the auditor perform first to verify this?

Options:

A.

Verify the completeness and integrity of the data being analyzed.

B.

Identify duplicated organizational transactions.

C.

Analyze all transactions within the targeted area.

D.

Check control totals that have may have been falsified.

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Questions 209

When performing an audit of the risk management process an auditor makes the observations listed below. Which poses the greatest risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

The identified risks have not undergone a detailed review to ensure completeness in the past two years.

B.

The controls in place to mitigate the risks are not tested on an annual basis to confirm operating effectiveness.

C.

The process in place to identify and evaluate new risks to the organization is informal and poorly documented.

D.

The identified risks have not been ranked to establish their importance and risk management priority.

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Questions 210

An internal auditor has completed an assurance engagement. Which of the following is most likely true regarding the engagement?

Options:

A.

During audit planning the auditor provided the client with the scope of the engagement for their agreement

B.

The results of tie engagement were included m a written report mat was issued to the cleint who requested me engagement

C.

During audit planning the auditor determined that the engagement scope would include a review of the security and privacy of payroll records

D.

The client requested the review of a new payroll system in order to improve the security of fie system

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Questions 211

Which of the following situations is most likely to prompt the internal audit activity to disclose its nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

One of the organization's senior internal auditors owns a side business, though to date, no sales have been made to this business.

B.

The annual internal audit plan includes performance audits of main business processes, but reviews of high-risk development projects were not considered.

C.

The internal audit activity committed to carrying out an audit of documentation on investment hedging, and a hedging expert was contracted to assist with the engagement.

D.

A periodic quality self-assessment of the internal audit activity identified a number of improvement areas with regard to key performance indicators.

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Questions 212

Which of the following would be a preventive control for helping to manage fraud in an organization?

Options:

A.

Reviews of reports to determine which issued payments lack evidence of supervisory review.

B.

A monthly review of new vendors performed by management for reasonableness.

C.

Bank reconciliations performed on a monthly basis by the accounting department.

D.

A code of conduct and whistleblower policy that must be signed by all employees annually.

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Questions 213

During a quality assessment of the internal audit activity an auditor is assessing whether the independence of the internal audit activity is at risk of being compromised. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would provide the best source of evidence for such an assessment?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart showing the reporting line of the chief audit executive to the CEO

B.

The internal audit charter as endorsed by the organization’s governing body

C.

A review of the audit opinions issued from a sample of recent audit engagements

D.

An assessment of the scope of the audit work performed by the internal au

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Questions 214

Which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity's quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

The QAIP scope includes assurance work performed by the internal audit activity but not consulting work.

B.

The QAIP verifies conformance with the Definition of Internal Auditing, Code of Ethics, and Standards.

C.

QAIP reports are for internal use primarily and typically are not shared with members outside of the internal audit activity.

D.

QAIPs make a distinction between fully outsourced internal audit activities and in-house internal audit teams, as a different set of criteria is applied for each.

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Questions 215

A new chief audit executive realized that the internal audit charter has not been updated in five years and only includes the Core Principles for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing, the Code of Ethics, and the Standards. What mandatory component is missing?

Options:

A.

Statement of Independence.

B.

Operating Procedures of Internal Auditing.

C.

Definition of Internal Auditing.

D.

Attestation of Quality Assurance.

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Questions 216

Which of the following principles of The IIA's Code of Ethics implies that internal auditors should refrain from performing assurance services when there is an impairment to audit independence that has not been declared?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Objectivity.

C.

Integrity.

D.

Competency.

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Questions 217

What is the primary purpose of The IIA's Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

Communicate specific activities appropriate to the performance of internal auditing.

B.

Promote ethical culture within corporations and other business organizations.

C.

Establish mandatory standards of competence for the practice of internal auditing.

D.

Establish principles and expectations governing behavior of individuals and organizations in the conduct of internal auditing.

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Questions 218

Which of the following statements demonstrates that internal auditors are in conformance with the standard of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors have shown they have the freedom to carry out their responsibilities.

B.

Internal auditors have demonstrated the skills needed to carry out the audit engagement.

C.

Internal auditors have strictly followed a formal audit process in conducting their work.

D.

Internal auditors have demonstrated an unbiased mental attitude.

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Questions 219

An internal auditor at a multinational organization is reviewing the effectiveness of the organization's risk management framework. In this scenario, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor should consider local cultures and customs in various regions when assessing control effectiveness.

B.

Regardless of their location, employees at all levels share responsibility for designing effective controls to mitigate risks.

C.

To achieve an effective internal control environment, the organization's risk management plan must be documented and communicated to all levels throughout each region.

D.

Setting clear objectives is a precondition to effectively identifying, assessing, and responding to the organization's risks.

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Questions 220

Which of the following should the internal audit activity establish to ensure auditors develop the appropriate skills for conducting audits?

Options:

A.

An audit charter that includes the internal audit activity mission and vision

B.

A policy encouraging audit staff to earn certifications

C.

A quality assurance and improvement program to address audit risk areas

D.

An internal audit plan that links engagements to strategic objectives

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part1
Exam Name: Essentials of Internal Auditing
Last Update: Jun 1, 2025
Questions: 735

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