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IIA-CIA-Part1 Internal Audit Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following procedures will best help an internal auditor assess operating effectiveness of fraud prevention and detection controls?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking best practices

B.

Testing,

C.

Mapping,

D.

Interviewing

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Questions 5

According to The IIA’s Code of Ethics, which of the following best describes the principle of integrity?

Options:

A.

Auditors shall observe the law and make disclosures expected by the law and the profession

B.

Auditors shall disclose all material facts known to them that if not disclosed may distort the reporting of activities under review

C.

Auditors shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge skills and experience

D.

Auditors shall be prudent in the use and protection of information acquired in the course of their duties

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Questions 6

An existing Internal audit charter is currently under review for revision. Who is responsible for assuring that all required components are included?

Options:

A.

The audit committee.

B.

The head of legal and compliance.

C.

The chief audit executive.

D.

Senior management.

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Questions 7

Which of the following options describes the reason that conformance with The IIA ' s Code of Ethics is mandatory for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder confidence in the competence of the internal audit activity and of professional internal auditors.

B.

Ethical compliance is necessary for internal auditors and the internal audit activity to accept responsibility for providing g absolute assurance about the organization ' s risk management.

C.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder trust and confidence in the validity of the profession of internal auditing and the internal audit activity ' s findings.

D.

The internal audit activity ' s ethical compliance sets the tone for the ethical compliance by the organization ' s board, management, and employees.

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Questions 8

An internal auditor in a busy internal audit activity reviews her continuing professional development records toward the end of the year and is concerned to find she has undertaken limited training and formal professional development. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for her to take?

Options:

A.

Remind the chief audit executive (CAE) that he is responsible for her continuing professional development and needs to address the issue

B.

Contact her professional organization and explain that she does not need formal professional development, as she is being developed sufficiently through undertaking audit engagements.

C.

Accept that she is unlikely to meet continuing professional development requirements but look to attend training courses at the next available time.

D.

Accept that she is responsible for her own continuing professional development, develop a professional plan, and discuss it with the CAE.

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Questions 9

Internal controls belong to which risk response category?

Options:

A.

Reduction.

B.

Avoidance.

C.

Sharing.

D.

Acceptance.

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Questions 10

The principle that " no action should be taken that may harm in some way the least fortunate people " is an expression of which of the following more general ethical principles?

Options:

A.

Utilitarian benefits.

B.

Personal virtues.

C.

Religious injunctions.

D.

Distributive justice.

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Questions 11

If the skills and competencies are not present within the internal audit activity to complete an ad-hoc assurance engagement, which of the following is an acceptable

resolution?

Options:

A.

Politely decline the engagement due to a lack of qualified staff available at the time.

B.

Complete the engagement as requested, with the best of the current staffs abilities.

C.

Consider using employees from other departments in the organization on the audit team.

D.

Change the scope of the testing to ensure that only available staff proficiencies are used

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Questions 12

The collaborating style for conflict resolution, where the parties promote assertiveness and work together to develop a mutually beneficial solution, is best used in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Parties are confident of the solution and are ready to defend it.

B.

There is a high level of trust among the parties.

C.

Resolution is time sensitive and a quick decision is necessary.

D.

The issue is more important to one patty than the others.

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate example of the internal audit activity exercising due professional care during an audit of the payroll department?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors ensure that the work program is appropriately designed in order to identify all of the risks surrounding the payroll process.

B.

Internal auditors determine whether the policies, procedures, and practices of the payroll department are operating in accordance with relevant laws.

C.

Internal auditors verify whether the board of directors has implemented effective internal controls over the processes used by the payroll department.

D.

Internal auditors ask the organization ' s risk manager to determine whether the degree of work planned is sufficient to determine whether payroll payments were complete and accurate.

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Questions 14

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding proficiency?

Options:

A.

The globally accepted Certified Internal Auditor designation is mandatory at chief audit executive levels.

B.

Internal auditors are encouraged to obtain appropriate professional designations.

C.

Specialty designations are required for those who perform specialized audit and consulting work.

D.

Studies for professional designations are the preferred source of continuing professional education

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Questions 15

Operational management in the IT department has developed key performance indicator reports, which are reviewed in detail during monthly staff meetings. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge/skills gap,

B.

Monitoring gap.

C.

Accountability/reward failure,

D.

Communication failure.

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Questions 16

Senior management requests that the internal audit function be involved in the system development lifecycle (SDLC) for an IT solution.

Which role should the internal audit function perform as early as possible in the SDLC?

Options:

A.

Defining the architecture and components of the system.

B.

Reviewing the code logic for accuracy.

C.

Suggesting control objectives for the system.

D.

Testing the system before implementation.

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Questions 17

A new board member, who is unfamiliar with internal auditing, asks the chief audit executive about the purpose of the internal audit function.

Which explanation is accurate?

Options:

A.

To identify problems faced by the organization.

B.

To strengthen the organization through independent and objective engagements.

C.

To ensure that the organization meets its goals and objectives.

D.

To enhance the identification, detection, and elimination of fraud.

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Questions 18

Which of the following is most likely to result in the impairment of independence for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) has a dual reporting relationship within the organization.

B.

The CAE performs an audit of a functional area that is also under the CAE ' s oversight.

C.

The CAE has unrestricted access to information throughout the organization and to the board.

D.

The board is involved in decisions to hire or remove the CAE and in drafting and approving an internal audit charter.

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Questions 19

Which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot provide consulting services related to operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

B.

The nature of consulting services to be performed by internal auditors must be defined in the internal audit charter

C.

If internal auditors have potential impairments to objectivity related to the proposed consulting engagement, the engagement must be declined.

D.

If internal auditors lack the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform the consulting engagement, the engagement can proceed with proper disclosures.

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Questions 20

When beginning an engagement to assess the effectiveness of the organization ' s newly revamped risk management processes, which of the following should internal auditors review first?

Options:

A.

Key risk disclosures in the annual report.

B.

Existing risk assessment and identification processes.

C.

Organizational strategy and business plans.

D.

Risk mitigation plans and risk responses.

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Questions 21

Which of the following is a preventive control the organization could implement to mitigate fraudulent activity in the accounts payable department?

Options:

A.

Delivering fraud awareness training to employees in the department.

B.

Segregating duties between employees in the department.

C.

Requesting the internal audit activity perform an independent evaluation of fraud risk in the department.

D.

Requiring accounts payable employees to sign a code of conduct awareness confirmation.

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Questions 22

An internal audit activity uses a rotational program to recruit high-performing staff members from other parts of the organization One of these individuals is nearing the end of her four-year internal audit rotation The chief audit executive assigned her to an assurance engagement in the business area she will be going into when she leaves the internal audit activity Which of the following statements is

true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

Accepting the assignment is a violation of internal audit independence

B.

Accepting the assignment will improve competencies and develop relationships that will be needed in her next assignment

C.

Accepting the assignment creates the appearance of an impairment to her professional judgment and detectivity

D.

Accepting the assignment on the assurance engagement would be a breach of due professional care

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Questions 23

Which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the organization ' s key risks are managed through appropriate controls.

B.

Assisting the organization in maintaining effective controls.

C.

Implementing new controls to promote continuous improvement.

D.

Validating control assessments performed by the external auditor.

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Questions 24

An organization allows the same individuals to physical access inventory and purchase new assets when supplies are depleted. Which of the following would best help the organization manage the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Accounting personnel should regularly perform reconciliation between invoices and purchase orders

B.

Accounting personnel should conduct a periodic inventory count and reconcile inventory movements

C.

internal auditors should review Vie frequency and volume of purchased assets to detect trends in the inventory levels

D.

Management should established a policy requiring new inventory asset purchases to be made on serialized order forms with copies retained

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Questions 25

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding mentoring programs designed to assist internal auditors with their professional development?

Options:

A.

The mentor must have a higher position in the organization than the mentee

B.

An auditor s supervisor is best positioned to serve as the auditor ' s mentor

C.

Meetings between a mentor and a mentee should be formal and well documented

D.

Auditors at the same level may be assigned different mentors and some auditors may have no mentor

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Questions 26

Which of the following statements relating to risk management is true?

Options:

A.

The high-level risk assessment performed during engagement planning is a detailed step-by-step analytical process

B.

External auditors must be engaged to evaluate the potential for fraud and how the organization manages fraud risk

C.

A lack of controls is acceptable if the risk is reduced to an acceptable level in some other way

D.

Internal auditors are responsible for managing the risks of the organization

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Questions 27

Which of the following controls would most likely prevent fraud related to the overpayment of vendors?

Options:

A.

Require supervisory review of all invoices and cash disbursements exceeding a stated threshold.

B.

Require the matching of a purchase order, receiving report, and invoice before payment.

C.

Require all checks to be signed by more than one person.

D.

Require all invoices to be paid within 30 days by check only.

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Questions 28

The organization discusses the need to change its accounting software.

In which of the following stages would an internal auditor’s advisory review most benefit the organization?

Options:

A.

Pre-release stage.

B.

Implementation stage.

C.

Post-release stage.

D.

Conceptual stage.

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Questions 29

Which of the following best demonstrates the application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

An engagement supervisor requests that the employment of a process owner be terminated due to a significant control failure.

B.

An audit lead establishes internal audit manuals to guide the internal audit activity on now to undertake audit engagements.

C.

An audit manager provides a guarantee to senior management that internal controls relating to an audited process operate effectively.

D.

An organization ' s internal audit activity operates under a direct reporting structure to tie audit committee of the board

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Questions 30

An organization ' s board has approved an expansion plan into a new market. The board acknowledged that if the expansion is not successful, the organization would encounter large monetary losses consisting of legal fees, research and development costs, rent expenses, and labor fees. Which of the following has the board approved?

Options:

A.

The risk response.

B.

The risk tolerance.

C.

The residual risk.

D.

The inherent risk.

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Questions 31

Which competency is required of all staff internal auditors prior to the commencement of an IT audit?

Options:

A.

The ability to assess IT governance.

B.

The ability to provide an explanation on the risk profile of the organization to the board and senior management.

C.

The ability to ensure that proposals for improvements to internal controls are balanced with organizational objectives and capabilities.

D.

The ability to assess the potential for fraud risk and identifying common types of fraud associated with the engagement.

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Questions 32

According to ISO 31000, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

The board is responsible for setting the organizational attitude through tone at the top,

B.

The internal audit activity will provide assurance over operating effectiveness but not over the design of risk management activities,

C.

The internal audit activity can give objective assurance on any part of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

D.

The framework is designed to be effective for organizations no matter how small.

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Questions 33

Tr» chiet audit executive (CAE) of large organization is preparing job descriptions to hire five new general internal audit staff, two new IT auditors and a senior auditer how is the CAE likely to describe IT requirements for me general internal audit statt positions?

Options:

A.

The candidate must be able to apply data analytics tolls methodologies

B.

The candidate must be able to evaluate IT governance and cybersecurity frameworks.

C.

The candidate must be able to understand IT-elated risk and general controls

D.

The candidate must be able to execute web servers, applications, and databases testing procedures.

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Questions 34

Which of the following is a legitimate role for the internal audit activity in the organization ' s risk management process ' ?

Options:

A.

Championing the establishment of a risk management framework

B.

Creating and implementing new risk management processes

C.

Maintaining sole responsibility for risk management within the organization

D.

Setting the risk appetite of the organization

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Questions 35

Which of the following are considered root causes of fraud?

Options:

A.

Rationalization and corruption

B.

Corruption and opportunity

C.

Opportunity and perceived need

D.

Perceived need and weak internal controls

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Questions 36

The internal audit activity was asked to conduct an investigation for potential fraud in the treasury department and subsequently contracted with a forensic accountant to join the team for the engagement. Which of the following parties has the primary responsibility for resolving any fraud incidents found as a result of this investigation?

Options:

A.

Chief audit executive.

B.

Senior management.

C.

The forensic accountant.

D.

The legal department.

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Questions 37

Which of the following is a responsibility of the internal audit activity as it relates to risk and risk management?

Options:

A.

Evaluating and suggesting improvements to the risk management process.

B.

Establishing the organization ' s risk appetite.

C.

Determining whether the risk attitude is aligned with shareholder interests.

D.

Ensuring an adequate risk management system is in place.

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Questions 38

Which of the following types of engagements is most appropriate for a less mature organization’s risk management assessment?

Options:

A.

Assurance.

B.

Model-based.

C.

Advisory.

D.

Informal.

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Questions 39

Which of the following best describes the type of organizational culture known as adaptability culture ' ?

Options:

A.

A results-oriented culture that values competitiveness and personal initiative

B.

A culture that emerges in quick-response and high-risk decision-making environments

C.

A culture that is characterized by low involvement with environmental and health issues

D.

A culture that places high value on participation and meeting the needs of employees.

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Questions 40

Which of the following is a detective control?

Options:

A.

An organization requires certain employees who occupy sensitive positions to sign attestation to the code of conduct on an annual basis.

B.

A compliance specialist carries out quarterly reviews of an organization ' s compliance with regulatory requirements.

C.

A front desk officer in an organization requires that visitors are identified by the host before access is granted.

D.

An internal audit activity deploys audit management policies and procedures for team members.

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Questions 41

Which of the following scenarios represents an impairment to the independence of the internal audit function?

Options:

A.

The audit manager is a close relative of the organization’s chief operating officer.

B.

The internal audit function’s budget is reviewed and approved by management.

C.

The internal auditor performing an engagement in accounts payable advises on the implementation of accounts payable software and its controls design.

D.

Staff internal auditors are offered stock options, rather than cash, as bonuses.

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Questions 42

An internal auditor of a small manufacturing organization helps with a fraud investigation of accounts payable. The auditor notes that the accounts payable manager is very friendly and trusting with accounts payable staff, so the manager rarely checks the staff’s work.

Which component of the fraud triangle is most relevant in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Pressure.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Objectives.

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Questions 43

Which of the following statements regarding corporate governance is true?

Options:

A.

The governance process centers on management’s role in risk management.

B.

Senior management is primarily responsible for understanding and focusing on the needs of key stakeholders.

C.

Internal and external assurance providers are an integral part of the governance process.

D.

The governance process begins after setting the organization’s strategic objectives.

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Questions 44

Which of the following approaches will internal audit utilize when developing a set of performance standards to measure an organization’s risk management process against?

Options:

A.

Key principles approach

B.

Process elements approach

C.

Holistic approach

D.

Maturity model approach

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Questions 45

An engagement supervisor noted that an internal auditor ' s personal relationship with a process owner resulted in the auditor providing a favorable and partial assessment during an audit within that process owner ' s area. According to MA guidance, which of the following should be used to manage this impairment?

Options:

A.

An internal audit charter.

B.

An employee disciplinary policy.

C.

A functional audit committee.

D.

A functional reporting placement.

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Questions 46

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors ' knowledge, skills and other competencies?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) must obtain competent advice and assistance if the internal audit activity lacks the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to complete the audit engagement

B.

Internal auditors must have sufficient knowledge to evaluate the risk of fraud and the manner in which it is managed by the organization and should have the expertise of a fraud investigator

C.

Internal auditors need to have basic knowledge of key IT risks and controls and available technology-based audit techniques in order to perform their assigned work

D.

The CAE must refuse a consulting engagement if the internal audit activity lacks the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform all or part of the engagement

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Questions 47

What is the ultimate goal of establishing a robust risk management framework in an organization?

Options:

A.

To support the organization ' s risk culture, involving employees at all levels.

B.

To ensure that the organization attains a better financial position.

C.

To assist the organization in identifying and mitigating key risks.

D.

To facilitate the organization ' s achievement of business goals and objectives.

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Questions 48

Which of the following written documents typically offers the best evidence that internal auditors exercise due professional care in conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Internal audit charter.

B.

Workpaper.

C.

Audit report.

D.

Code of ethics.

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Questions 49

Who is held responsible for oversight of the organization ' s risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Operational management.

B.

Board of directors.

C.

Internal auditors.

D.

Head of risk management.

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Questions 50

Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing a governance, risk management, and compliance framework within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fewer internal audits.

B.

More effective interviews.

C.

Automated risk management strategy tools.

D.

Reduced assurance costs.

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Questions 51

Which of the following circumstances would most likely be considered a potential red flag for fraud by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The monthly payroll reports are not vetted to ensure terminated employees have been removed from the payroll system.

B.

The volume of nonroutine journal entries has steadily increased over time.

C.

The database of approved suppliers has not been reviewed in the last year.

D.

The recent employee survey indicates that some employees remain unaware of the organization’s whistleblower hotline.

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Questions 52

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding ethics is true?

Options:

A.

Business ethics may vary within an organization with both domestic and foreign operations.

B.

Business ethics are universal in nature and organizations across the world are expected to comply with similar standards.

C.

A business ethics policy for an organization is established solely to direct the behavior and expectations of employees.

D.

Business ethics of an organization must remain independent from those of suppliers, customers, and business partners.

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Questions 53

An organization established 20 years ago has had its internal audit activity in place for the last three years. Which of the following would allow the internal audit activity to accurately state that it is in conformance with the Standards ' ?

Options:

A.

Documented assessment was performed by the audit committee and confirmed conformance.

B.

Internal and external assessments are performed annually, and nonconformance results are reported to the board.

C.

The independent and objective judgement of the chief audit executive confirmed conformance with the Standards.

D.

Documented internal assessments are performed periodically and confirm conformance.

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Questions 54

At a conference, an interna! auditor presented a new computer-assisted audit technique developed by his organization. The presentation included sample data derived from performing audit engagements for the organization. Travel costs were paid by the conference organizers, and the trip was approved by the chief audit executive (CAE).

However, neither management nor the CAE was aware that the internal auditor would be making a presentation based on work completed for the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is most relevant regarding the actions of the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor did not violate the standard of objectivity because the presentation had no impact on the organization.

B.

The auditor violated the principle of confidentiality by disclosing information about the organization without approval.

C.

The auditor should have obtained permission before using the material, but did not violate the IIA Code of Ethics or Standards,

D.

The auditor breached the conflict of interest standard by accepting payment for travel costs

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Questions 55

While conducting an engagement in the procurement department, the internal auditor noticed that the department head’s travel reports showed minor travel expenses, and there were no charges for hotels, meals, or transportation. However, the auditor knew that the department head frequently traveled worldwide to meet with suppliers and visit their production sites. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should make a note of the issue for follow-up when employee travel expenses are audited.

B.

The auditor should analyze trends and changes among the organization’s suppliers over the past few years.

C.

The auditor should investigate whether there are any special arrangements regarding senior management travel.

D.

The auditor should analyze the list of destinations the department head visited to estimate typical costs.

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Questions 56

During the planning stage of an assurance engagement, a payroll clerk informed the internal auditor that he is often asked to add new employees to the payroll without any formal new-hire documentation from human resources. The auditor is concerned that this increases the risk for fraud. To complete engagement planning, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Increase the sample size to be tested, ensuring a thorough review of the payroll records.

B.

Advise the chief audit executive of the clerk ' s assertion, despite the lack of supporting evidence.

C.

Ask the clerk to provide a list of any suspicious new employee names on the payroll.

D.

Investigate the matter further to understand precisely how many payroll records were affected.

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Questions 57

Who is primarily responsible for an organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

All employees.

B.

The internal audit function.

C.

Senior management.

D.

The board.

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Questions 58

In the COSO internal control framework, which of the following components serves as the foundation for the other components?

Options:

A.

Control activities.

B.

Control environment.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Monitoring

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Questions 59

Which of the following documents most directly describes the guidelines for and importance of the objectivity of internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Internal audit quality assessments.

B.

Internal audit charter.

C.

Internal audit plan.

D.

Internal audit reporting.

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Questions 60

An internal auditor is trying to evaluate what could go wrong after determining that a risk management technique is operating effectively. What type of risk is the auditor assessing?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk.

B.

Residual risk.

C.

Impact risk.

D.

Detection risk.

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Questions 61

Which of the following statements is true regarding intangible assets?

Options:

A.

The amortization period of an intangible asset cannot exceed 20 years.

B.

The cost intangible assets with indefinite lives should be amortized.

C.

Intangible assets are categorized as having either a limited life or an indefinite life.

D.

Companies should record intangible assets at fair market value

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Questions 62

Which of the following statements best demonstrates application of due professional care during an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The engagement detected irregularities and noncompliance instances.

B.

The engagement supervisor had no significant comments in the supervisory review.

C.

The audit procedures were systematically planned, executed, and documented.

D.

The engagement objectives were designed to assist the engagement client.

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Questions 63

According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles for the internal audit function regarding risk management are acceptable with appropriate safeguards in place?

Options:

A.

Setting the organization’s risk appetite.

B.

Determining appropriate risk responses.

C.

Implementing necessary risk responses.

D.

Maintaining and developing the risk management framework.

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Questions 64

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

Options:

A.

The nature of consulting services typically is not included in the charter.

B.

The chief audit executive must formally review the charter at least once a year

C.

The nature of assurances provided to parties outside of the organization typically is not included in the charter.

D.

The charter typically defines the internal audit activity ' s position within the organization.

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Questions 65

Which of the following statements is true regarding organizational culture and an audit of the control environment?

Options:

A.

For multinational organizations it is important to ensure that the organizational culture is consistent at all locations

B.

Because the chief audit executive (CAE) is part of the organizational culture, external auditors should be engaged to evaluate the control environment

C.

If there are unresolved scope restrictions, the CAE should consider whether to pursue the audit and note the scope restrictions in the audit report

D.

Because it will create a conflict of interest relating to the control environment, senior management should not be consulted during the audit

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Questions 66

An accounts payable clerk who has access to the vendor master file replaced the payment details of a legitimate vendor with those of a friend before processing the payment through the organization ' s cashier. Immediately afterward, he restored the original vendor information. Which of the following controls could have prevented this fraud?

Options:

A.

Approval of master file change requests by the accounts payable supervisor

B.

Comparison of the check register to original invoices.

C.

Segregation of duties between accounts payable and the cashier.

D.

Frequent issuance of account statements sent to the vendors.

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Questions 67

Which of the following most accurately describes the role of the board when it comes to organizational governance?

Options:

A.

Responsibility for outcome of the process.

B.

Responsibility to be involved in management of the organization.

C.

Responsibility to determine who is accountable for outcomes.

D.

Responsibility to identify risks in the organization’s business environment

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Questions 68

An external assessment of an organization ' s internal audit activity was last completed four years ago Which of the following options would be acceptable this year if the internal audit activity is to fulfill the requirements of the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity conducts a self-assessment that is validated by a qualified and experienced internal auditor and then schedules a qualified, independent external assessor

B.

The board nominates an independent individual from senior management in the organization to conduct an assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

An external auditor conducts an audit of the organization which includes information about the internal audit activity

D.

The chief audit executive schedules a self-assessment and the board approves the results

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Questions 69

During the closing meeting of a procurement audit, the business manager disagrees with the observation presented by the engagement supervisor and accuses the team of not understanding the procurement objectives The engagement supervisor blames the manager for impeding the audit What skillset should the chief audit executive utilize to manage this situation?

Options:

A.

The ability to negotiate

B.

The ability to use analytical tools

C.

The ability to foresee issues

D.

The ability to manage conflict

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Questions 70

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates an impairment to internal audit independence?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor s denied access to partner information from management of me area under review

B.

The internal auditor tarts to disclose a potential conflict of interest relationship with management of the area under review

C.

The internal auditor concludes that controls operate effectively, although he did not gather supporting evidence

D.

The internal auditor was assigned to an assurance review of an area for which he previously had responsibilities

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Questions 71

An internal audit activity is performing a governance engagement. Which of the following would provide the best evidence for an internal auditor when evaluating the organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Personnel and customer surveys, actual reports, and due diligence results regarding third-party governance practices.

B.

Details on mandatory reporting to third parties, disclosure committee charter and responsibilities, and the internal communication system.

C.

Succession plans, development programs, and job descriptions with responsibilities and authorities.

D.

Ethics and integrity policy; structured interviews with employees; and established and communicated values, mission, and vision.

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Questions 72

Which of the following is the first step in the process of identifying relevant fraud risk factors?

Options:

A.

Identifying preventive and detective controls

B.

Gathering information about the organization’s business activities to gain an understanding of fraud risks

C.

Engaging in strategic reasoning to anticipate the fraud scheme

D.

The use of brainstorming, management interviews, analytical procedures and review of prior frauds.

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Questions 73

Which of the following statements is true regarding the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Reporting on the QAIP to the board should occur at least once every five years

B.

The responsibility for the selection of an external assessor rests with the board

C.

The qualifications of the assessors must be communicated to the board

D.

The reporting of outcomes of the QAIP can be delegated to senior audit staff

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Questions 74

Which of the following is an area that an organization would most likely include as part of its corporate social responsibility reporting?

Options:

A.

The profitability impact of its products in developing markets.

B.

The amount of political donations to local government races.

C.

The number of complaints related to traffic from its new factory.

D.

The compensation packages awarded to senior management.

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Questions 75

An internal auditor is assigned to perform an audit of personal data protection practices in the organization.

The auditor learned about personal data protection laws in a course 15 years ago and is the only person in the internal audit function with this knowledge.

How should the auditor proceed?

Options:

A.

Accept the audit and begin right away.

B.

Seek relevant guidance from the audit client, who is the in-house expert in the area.

C.

Seek relevant guidance from more senior auditors in the internal audit function.

D.

Seek relevant guidance from IIA publications.

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Questions 76

Which of the followIng would permit an internal audit activity to use the statement " conducted m conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing m audit reports?

Options:

A.

The result of a quality assurance and improvement program confirm there are no material issues.

B.

Engagement workpapers are retained by the internet audit activity according to the retention and deletion policy.

C.

The internal audit activity receives positive feedback from the managers of the areas that were under review.

D.

internal auditors demonstrate proficiency by maintaining professional internal audit certifications

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Questions 77

Which of the following skills is critical for assessing corporate social responsibility through a self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Assessment skills

B.

Assurance skills

C.

Interviewing skills

D.

Facilitation skills

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Questions 78

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor uses benchmarking research to support preparation of a report to stakeholders that contains significant findings about control deficiencies. Which of the following skills did the auditor demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Internal audit management.

B.

Conflict negotiation.

C.

Critical thinking.

D.

Persuasion and collaboration.

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Questions 79

Which of the following organizations is adopting an acceptance technique in terms of its risk response?

Options:

A.

An organization that takes no action in managing the possible exposure to an earthquake.

B.

An organization that opts out of investing in a new region due to volatility in foreign exchange rates.

C.

An organization that takes out insurance policies to protect its property and equipment.

D.

An organization that deploys policies and procedures to guide business activities and practices

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Questions 80

During an alleged fraud investigation, an internal auditor arrived at the organization’s warehouse to inspect spare parts that were selected in advance from stock records. However, some spare parts were missing despite stock records indicating otherwise. The employee responsible for the warehouse could not offer any reasonable explanations. The auditor needs to investigate the discovery of the missing spare parts.

Which of the following next steps would demonstrate the internal auditor’s application of relevant research competencies?

Options:

A.

Obtain quality certificates that accompanied the spare parts to determine whether the spare parts corresponded to the requirements.

B.

Obtain the contract for delivery of the spare parts to determine the value and quantities of missing spare parts.

C.

Obtain signed inventory count sheets to determine last confirmed date of the spare parts’ presence in the warehouse.

D.

Obtain written testimony from the procurement specialist who conducted the tender related to the missing spare parts.

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Questions 81

Which of the following actions does a competency assessment tool help the chief audit executive perform?

Options:

A.

Record that the internal audit activity’s completion of audit assignments has been met.

B.

Hire qualified and skilled internal auditors for the organization ' s internal audit activity.

C.

Postpone audits where the internal team does not have the necessary skills or knowledge.

D.

Assess the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity to identify any gaps.

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Questions 82

When dealing with various stakeholders which of the following is true regarding an internal auditor ' s responsibility to remain objective and independent?

Options:

A.

When deciding between conflicting reports of a control ' s performance from a control operator and the operator ' s manager the internal auditor should generally believe the manager

B.

Some audit issues may remain unremediated and unreported if management will accept recommendations that the internal auditor deems more important

C.

The internal auditor may initially disagree with management s acceptance of a risk, but reevaluate and agree with management’s judgment after further discussion

D.

When working on business unit audits it is sometimes sufficient for the internal auditor to report deficiencies only to the unit manager when remediation is not complex

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Questions 83

Which of the following activities aligns with The IIA ' s Core Principles for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports to senior management for compensation decisions and communications of audit results to the board

B.

Final reports from consulting engagements show the summary of findings, and the internal auditor’s advice is clearly distinct and separate from management ' s decisions

C.

Internal auditors rotate through operations and management positions then perform audit engagements on these areas to ensure timely application of their knowledge

D.

Due to limited resources, internal auditors prioritize assurance on internal controls and risk management and exclude evaluating governance processes, which are deemed outside of their core responsibilities

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Questions 84

Recently an organization’s internal audit activity discovered ghost employees who receive payments Senior management decides to strengthen the internal control measures to address this Which of the following is considered an effective control to mitigate payments to ghost employees?

Options:

A.

Staff transfers are reviewed by the recruiting manager and approved by the head of human resources

B.

New staff requisition forms are authorized by operational management and acknowledged by the head of human resources

C.

Staff salary payments and accounting records are approved by the head of accounting and acknowledged by the head of human resources

D.

The staff salary payment list is reviewed by the head of payroll and endorsed by the head of human resources

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Questions 85

Which of the following activities is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud.

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud

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Questions 86

Which of the following is the best way for internal auditors to demonstrate their proficiency to effectively carry out their professional responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Volunteer for audit engagements in areas or industries in which the auditor is unfamiliar

B.

Sign an annual attestation indicating that the auditor has all required competencies to perform her job effectively.

C.

Obtain appropriate professional certifications or other designations.

D.

Disclose potential impairments to independence or objectivity prior to performing an audit engagement.

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Questions 87

Which of the following best describes the role of internal control frameworks?

Options:

A.

They outline specific internal controls for an organization to implement to ensure business objectives will be achieved.

B.

They provide guidance related to internal control design and implementation to assist with the evaluation and benchmarking of business practices.

C.

They serve as a list of appropriate internal controls for auditors to ensure an organization is using best practices.

D.

They serve as a template for identifying standardized best practices in effective risk management across industries and countries.

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Questions 88

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

Strategic objectives are prerequisites to establishing internal controls.

B.

Internal controls eliminate process breakdowns caused by human errors.

C.

Well-established internal controls cannot be overridden.

D.

Robust internal controls ensure business success.

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Questions 89

Upon completion of an external quality assessment, which of the following would the chief audit executive be required to report to the board?

Options:

A.

The total time spent to accomplish the external assessment

B.

The detailed evaluation results of the external assessment

C.

The competency and independence of the external assessment team

D.

The timetable and schedule of the next external assessment

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Questions 90

Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for a chief audit executive to conduct an external assessment more frequently than five years?

Options:

A.

Significant changes in the organization ' s accounting policies or procedures would warrant timely analysis and feedback.

B.

More frequent external assessments can serve as an equivalent substitute for internal assessments.

C.

The parent organization ' s internal audit activity agreed to perform biennial reciprocal external assessments to provide greater assurance at a reduced cost.

D.

A change in senior management or internal audit leadership may change expectations and commitment to conformance.

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Questions 91

During a payroll audit, a staff internal auditor suspects that signatures on some of the documents being sampled for examination are not authentic. Which of the following actions should the auditor take before proceeding with the examination?

Options:

A.

Suggest to the payroll manager that the suspicious documents should be sent to the organization ' s security department for forensic review.

B.

Keep the suspicious documents in the workpaper file until the end of the engagement, and then discuss the suspicions with the payroll manager.

C.

Discuss the suspicious documents with payroll staff to seek their views on the authenticity of the signatures.

D.

Review the suspicious documents with the chief audit executive and seek advice concerning further examination.

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Questions 92

Which of the following is the best example of an ongoing independent monitoring activity?

Options:

A.

Management quality assurance activities

B.

Internal audit fraud prevention and detection activities

C.

Management and supervisory activities

D.

External audit quality assurance activities

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Questions 93

An auditor became aware that senior management’s risk assessment had recently changed after the organization introduced new products.

According to the Global Internal Audit Standards, how should the chief audit executive proceed next?

Options:

A.

Request to meet with the board and senior management to discuss the impact of the new products on the organization’s risk management.

B.

Allocate internal audit resources to assurance and advisory engagements to help the organization achieve its goals and objectives.

C.

Explain to the board and senior management how the new products will impact the audit engagement.

D.

Request that the internal audit function’s most experienced auditors help to determine how to test the changes in the control environment.

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Questions 94

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership.

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting.

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Questions 95

An internal auditor performed a consulting engagement last year which included assisting with management ' s design of controls over the procurement function. How should the chief audit executive plan an assurance engagement on the adequacy of the internal control system in the procurement function in the current year?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to another internal auditor on staff

B.

Outsource the engagement to ensure independence

C.

Harness the auditor ' s knowledge of the procurement function by assigning the engagement to the same internal auditor

D.

Postpone the engagement to the following year to ensure enough time has passed since the controls were designed

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Questions 96

An internal auditor identified an inefficiency in a control and made recommendations to strengthen the control environment, but senior management was reluctant to adopt the recommendations because there were concerns regarding staff acceptance of the change of processes. Consequently, the auditor agreed to remove the observation from the audit report.

Which of the following competencies does the auditor lack?

Options:

A.

Connectivity.

B.

Strategic thinking.

C.

Influence.

D.

Collaboration.

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Questions 97

Which of the following actions would best help the internal audit activity promote continuous improvement in control effectiveness within the organization?

Options:

A.

Determining whether management measures and monitors the costs and benefits of controls.

B.

Providing training on controls and ongoing self-monitoring processes.

C.

Developing flowcharts to obtain information about control design adequacy.

D.

Identifying objectives and the risks involved in achieving them.

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Questions 98

A newly hired internal auditor is performing an engagement that requires significant IT expertise that he does not possess. If the auditor does not alert the chief audit executive about his lack of expertise and decides to perform the engagement anyhow, which principle of the IIA ' s Code of Ethics would he violate?

Options:

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Competency.

C.

Effective communication

D.

Professionalism

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Questions 99

Which of the following frauds is most likely to occur in the accounts payable function?

Options:

A.

Factitious vendors are entered into the system, possibly resulting in improper disbursements.

B.

Bad debt expense is intentionally omitted from the financial statements.

C.

Certain costs are capitalized, rather than expensed.

D.

A related party receives benefits not appropriate in an arm ' s-length transaction.

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Questions 100

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates due professional care?

Options:

A.

Staffing audit engagements with internal auditors who possess professional designations.

B.

Relying on prior audit work to save planning time and costs.

C.

Performing assurance procedures to guarantee all significant risks are identified.

D.

Assessing the cost of assurance in relation to the potential benefits.

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Questions 101

The board scheduled a meeting with the chief audit executive (CAE) to determine why the internal audit function’s training budget is significantly higher compared to other departments within the organization. The CAE is expected to provide evidence to support that the internal audit function conforms with continuing professional development requirements.

Which of the following supporting documents should the CAE provide?

Options:

A.

A documented plan for attending professional conferences.

B.

Workpapers highlighting the work the internal auditor completed during each engagement.

C.

Lists of recommendations with senior management’s agreement.

D.

Project plan worksheets with high-risk areas for future engagements.

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Questions 102

In a small organization, management is unable to achieve adequate segregation of duties for its cash-handling procedures Therefore hidden surveillance cameras were installed to monitor cash-handling activities Which of the following best describes this type of control?

Options:

A.

Corrective control

B.

Process-level control

C.

Compensating control

D.

Preventive control

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Questions 103

To encourage internal audit objectivity, which of the following is an appropriate policy the chief audit executive should establish?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should report their audit findings directly to the audit committee.

B.

To receive an outstanding performance rating, internal auditors are required to generate audit findings.

C.

Prior to hiring a new internal auditor, the chief audit executive must determine whether the auditor owns stock in the organization.

D.

Internal auditors are permitted to audit an entity managed by a close friend or relative, as long as they notify the chief audit executive.

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Questions 104

Which of the following is an indicator that an organization ' s risk management processes are effective?

Options:

A.

Departmental objectives are managed by department heads and are independent of the organization ' s mission.

B.

Organization wide mechanisms exist to enable the identification and assessment of all significant risks.

C.

Department heads have the autonomy to determine risk responses that fall outside of the organizations risk appetite

D.

Relevant risk information is captured and communicated primarily between management and the board

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Questions 105

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors must exercise due professional care to Insure that all significant risks will be identified,

B.

Internal auditors must apply the care and skill expected of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor

C.

Due professional care requires the internal auditor to conduct extensive examinations and verifications to ensure fraud does not exist,

D.

Due professional care is displayed during a consulting engagement when the internal auditor focuses on potential benefits of the engagement rather than the cost.

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Questions 106

Which requirement should the chief audit executive consider when communicating results of the quality assurance and improvement program to the board of a large

organization?

Options:

A.

The internal assessment results should be discussed once every five years,

B.

The rating conclusions and the impact from results of the external assessment should be explained,

C.

The results of the external assessment should be discussed every seven years,

D.

The qualifications and independence of the internal assessment team should be discussed

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Questions 107

Which of the following drivers of fraud is directly controllable by an organization?

Options:

A.

Pressure

B.

Rationalization

C.

Opportunity

D.

Incentive

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Questions 108

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with IIA standards related to continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Retaining evidence of training in the form of continuing education credits

B.

Seeking guidance regarding internal audit best practices from The IIA

C.

Retaining supervisory reviews conducted on the basis of the development plan

D.

Giving consideration to certain areas of specialization as part of development planning

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Questions 109

Once an organization ' s risks are identified, what would be the next step to ensure resources are properly allocated to manage those risks?

Options:

A.

Risk responses must be selected.

B.

Risks must be assessed.

C.

The risk universe must be established.

D.

Risk responses must be aligned.

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Questions 110

With regard to governance, which of the following is a board-level responsibility rather than a management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Obtaining assurance on external financial, regulatory, and internal audits.

B.

Complying with laws, regulations, and codes.

C.

Assigning authority and responsibilities organization wide.

D.

Monitoring and measuring performance.

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Questions 111

An internal auditor was offered expensive tickets to a sporting event by the manager of an area that she was currently auditing. The auditor politely declined. Which of the following fundamental principles of the MA Code of Ethics did she display?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Independence.

C.

Competency.

D.

Objectivity

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Questions 112

Which of the following is the primary benefit of establishing a formal training program for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

It is useful to reinforce the independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

It is useful to guide internal auditors as they perform specific engagements.

C.

It is useful to maintain the skills and competencies of internal audit staff.

D.

It is useful to measure the effectiveness and maturity of the internal audit activity.

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Questions 113

What is the primary reason for establishing a continuing professional development program within an organization ' s internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To ensure all internal audit responsibilities can be met

B.

To ensure all audit staff members are capable of performing a quality self-assessment.

C.

To ensure that each auditor maintains responsibility for his own professional development.

D.

To attract the best and most talented candidates in the profession

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Questions 114

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) started analyzing the organization ' s policies in an attempt to customize them to address internal audit specifics. Which of the following organizationwide practices is most likely to be acceptable to the CAE?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors1performance evaluation is primarily based on both client satisfaction surveys and cost savings identified from the audits.

B.

Standard training for each employee, including internal auditors, is 10 hours per year.

C.

To enhance efficiency, internal auditors should not be rotated regularly among engagements.

D.

Hiring practices include requiring potential auditors to disclose any significant stock ownership in the organization.

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Questions 115

An internal auditor creates a professional development plan to obtain more experience in the organization ' s environmental, social, and corporate governance initiatives. Which of the following would the auditor include in the plan to support these objectives?

Options:

A.

A plan to study for and obtain a certification in nonprofit management.

B.

A deadline within the individual development plan to meet the overall engagement objectives.

C.

A plan to perform a variety of engagements to develop general skills that could be used to assess environmental, social, and governance initiatives.

D.

A request to attend the organization ' s committee meeting that is focused on strategic community awareness.

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Questions 116

According to IIA guidance, an internal audit charter should detail which of the following?

Options:

A.

The objectives and goals of management

B.

The process used by the CAE to manage the organization ' s internal controls

C.

The nature of services that the internal audit activity will provide to external third parties

D.

The responsibilities of the audit committee

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Questions 117

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by the chief audit executive (CAE) best demonstrates the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE seeks senior management approval of the internal audit charter

B.

The CAE obtains senior management ' s approval to hire staff

C.

The CAE reports significant issues to the organization ' s CEO

D.

The CAE provides the board with an annual budget for approval

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Questions 118

Which of the following principles of The IIA ' s Code of Ethics implies that internal auditors should refrain from performing assurance services when there is an impairment to audit independence that has not been declared?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Objectivity.

C.

Integrity.

D.

Competency.

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Questions 119

A newly hired chief audit executive is reviewing available documentation to provide evidence of conformance with the standard for continuing professional development. Which of the following documents is the most reliable source for this purpose?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s training policy.

B.

A list of auditors who requested to attend the next audit conference.

C.

Self-assessments against an internally developed audit benchmark

D.

In house training manual

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Questions 120

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department. Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

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Questions 121

Which of the following organizations has reached the most mature level of corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

An organization that is able to provide goods and services society needs and thus maximizes profit to its owners.

B.

An organization that ensures compliance to legal frameworks of the countries in which it operates and sells its products.

C.

An organization that is willing to make contributions not mandated by law or economics and expects no payback.

D.

An organization that requires its decision makers to act with equity, fairness, and respect for the rights of individuals.

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Questions 122

An internal auditor has received negative feedback regarding the auditor’s lack of general knowledge about the organization’s business during an annual performance review.

What would be the auditor’s best course of action to address the feedback?

Options:

A.

Agree on a development plan with the chief audit executive.

B.

Complete all engagements according to the Global Internal Audit Standards.

C.

Attend external business development courses.

D.

Request a temporary assignment into a specific business area.

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Questions 123

During an audit engagement, a junior staff internal auditor begins to suspect a fraud may have occurred involving a friend of the engagement supervisor. He reports his concerns to the engagement supervisor, who disagrees with his suspicions and directs him to continue with the engagement as planned. Given the circumstance, what is the most appropriate action for the junior auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Document in the workpapers and expand testing.

B.

Continue with the engagement as planned, per the more senior auditor.

C.

Report the suspected fraud to law enforcement officials and seek financial restitution.

D.

Escalate the concern to the chief audit executive.

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Questions 124

Which of the following actions by the internal audit activity requires disclosure to the board of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity did not complete an external assessment within the last seven years

B.

The internal audit activity performed an engagement with limited scope due to lack of knowledge

C.

The internal audit activity failed to consider risk when conducting a review of a department

D.

An internal auditor was assigned to an engagement m an area where she previously worked more than 10 years ago

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Questions 125

Which of the following practices is generally most effective to protect internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

Ensuring regular documentation of auditor skills and experience in the workpapers.

B.

Basing performance evaluations heavily on customer satisfaction surveys.

C.

Prohibiting auditors from accepting gifts from audit clients or potential clients.

D.

Ensuring that auditors have a balance of both operational and internal audit responsibilities.

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Questions 126

A chief audit executive has decided to use the process element approach to evaluate the organization’s risk management process.

According to IIA guidance, which of the following provides evidence that the risk evaluation element is in place?

Options:

A.

The organization has made a decision with regard to risk avoidance, risk sharing, and application of controls to manage risk.

B.

The organization has developed a mechanism to rank the relative importance of each risk in order to establish a risk treatment priority.

C.

The organization has developed a formal technique that considers the consequences and likelihood of each risk.

D.

The organization has established a formal process that considers the source of risk, areas of impact, and potential events.

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Questions 127

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit charier?

Options:

A.

The charier should be revised and re-approved whenever a new chief audit executive (CAE) is appointed or at the request of the board

B.

The charier should be re-approved every five years, in conjunction with the external quality assessment

C.

The charier can be revised at the discretion of the CAE whenever 4 is determined that its content no longer supports the achievement of objectives

D.

The charier should be reviewed and resubmitted for board approval annually together with the audit plan

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Questions 128

Which should the internal auditor first consider when assessing fraud risks during an engagement?

Options:

A.

Compare the organizations fraud strategies with the industry ' s strategies.

B.

Review any related prior fraud investigations.

C.

Investigate any related fraud allegations.

D.

Communicate any suspicious fraud activities to management.

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Questions 129

An organization is considering purchasing a new banking software system and has asked the internal audit activity to evaluate the system. An internal auditor assigned to perform the engagement worked at the software company two years ago and is familiar with the system ' s design strengths and weaknesses. Which of the following is true regarding impairment to the auditor ' s objectivity?

Options:

A.

This situation does not necessitate any action related to the auditor ' s objectivity.

B.

The auditor should decline to perform the audit because personal conflicts of interest are likely.

C.

The auditor must disclose to the chief audit executive that this situation may impair her objectivity.

D.

The auditor can provide only consulting services, not assurance.

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Questions 130

Which of the following is most likely to be considered a control weakness?

Options:

A.

Vendor invoice payment requests are accompanied by a purchase order and receiving report.

B.

Purchase orders are typed by the purchasing department using prenumbered forms.

C.

Buyers promptly update the official vendor listing as new supplier sources become known.

D.

Department managers initiate purchase requests that must be approved by the plant superintendent.

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Questions 131

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to ensure that a newly formed internal audit activity remains free from undue influence by management?

Options:

A.

Appoint the chief audit executive as a member of the board.

B.

Adopt written policies and procedures for the internal audit activity, approved by the board.

C.

Ensure the chief audit executive reports administratively to the audit committee.

D.

Establish the internal audit activity’s position within the organization in an audit charter.

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Questions 132

An internal auditor is assessing the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk management practices She checks to see whether risk management is an intégrai part of decision making and whether risk management is transparent, responsive to change and addresses uncertainty. According to HA guidance on risk management frameworks, which of the following approaches is the auditor most likely using?

Options:

A.

Maturity model approach

B.

Process element approach

C.

Key principles approach

D.

Key performance indicators approach.

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Questions 133

Which of the following is part of a fraud detection program?

Options:

A.

Whistleblower hotline.

B.

Authority limits.

C.

Background investigations

D.

Evaluation of compensation programs.

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Questions 134

Which of the following actions by the chief audit executive (CAE) best describes a potential impairment to the internal audit function’s independence?

Options:

A.

Providing comparative remuneration data to the board during the CAE’s salary negotiations.

B.

Accepting management’s request to reschedule an audit engagement due to key staff absences.

C.

Reducing the scope of several engagements in response to a 15 percent budget cut imposed by senior management.

D.

Deferring consultation engagements to ensure key assurance audits are delivered on time.

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Questions 135

At what point in time can an organization conclude that the established organizational governance framework was correctly implemented?

Options:

A.

When the internal auditor conducts observations and fieldwork.

B.

When management completes the risk assessment.

C.

When the internal auditor evaluation shows its soundness.

D.

When the organization ' s goals and objectives are met.

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Questions 136

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the quality assurance and improvement program (GAIP)?

Options:

A.

As the head of the organization, the CEO selects and appoints the external quality assessment team to perform the OAIP reviews.

B.

The chief audit executive determines the scope and frequency of both internal and external quality assessments based on the availability and capacity of resources in accordance with the annual internal audit plan.

C.

Minutes of meetings held with senior management and the board to discuss the scope and frequency of internal and external assessments support the OAIP reporting requirement.

D.

The internal audit activity needs to assess whether each engagement on the annual internal audit plan is conducted in conformance with the Standards.

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Questions 137

Guidelines need to be set for various levels of suspected fraud within an organization and when it would be reported to the audit committee. Which of the following would be

reported at the next meeting?

Options:

A.

Minor theft of less than $10,000, not involving senior management.

B.

Theft using collusion for more than $10,000. but not involving senior management.

C.

Denial of access to requested employees during an audit.

D.

Discussion of replacement of the chief audit executive.

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Questions 138

Senior management and the board have expressed concerns about the length of engagements and whether their outcome aligns with the organization ' s strategies and objectives. Which of the following actions, if taken by the chief audit executive, could address these concerns?

Options:

A.

Communicating to internal audit staff instructions for completing engagements within shorter time periods.

B.

Requesting additional funding from the board to train internal audit staff on time and resource management.

C.

Implementing the use of agile auditing during engagements to meet expectations.

D.

Encouraging internal audit staff to participate in workshops to further develop their understanding of the organization ' s strategies.

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Questions 139

Which of the following is the best example of a risk appetite statement concerning an investment portfolio?

Options:

A.

We will request CEO approval for investments greater than S20 million and board approval for investments greater than $50 million.

B.

We will hedge 95 percent of our U S. currency exposure and 100 percent of our European currency exposure.

C.

We have a moderate tolerance for investment earnings volatility with a target value at risk of S50 million.

D.

We will report to the risk committee all credit losses greater than S10 million and all market value losses greater than S20 million.

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Questions 140

The board of a newly established organization was discussing the contents of the draft internal audit charter One board member suggested adding to the charter an obligation for the internal audit activity to develop controls in business procedures. The board member explained that the new organization needs professional-level developers, internal auditors have the necessary skills and competencies, and the internal audit activity is well positioned to assume this responsibility. Which of the following would be a potential concern if the board member’s suggestion is adopted?

Options:

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Internal audit objectivity.

C.

Risk management assurance.

D.

Professional development.

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Questions 141

Which of the following audit types will be most applicable if senior management believes that the ongoing enterprise wide resource planning system development project is not progressing well and actual costs exceed budgeted ones?

Options:

A.

Readiness assessment.

B.

Project management methodology assessment.

C.

Risk assessment

D.

A post-implementation review.

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Questions 142

According to NA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

Options:

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment.

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

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Questions 143

Which of the following is an example of a risk avoidance strategy?

Options:

A.

Hedging against exchange rate variations.

B.

Limiting access to an organization’s data center.

C.

Selling a nonstrategic business unit.

D.

Outsourcing a high-risk activity

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Questions 144

An internal auditor discovers that a production manager has been understating stock items produced in the factory and concealing it by accounting for it as abnormal waste.

Which of the following types of fraud does this exemplify?

Options:

A.

Skimming.

B.

Assets misappropriation.

C.

Financial statement fraud.

D.

Diversion.

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Questions 145

A company selling electronic devices has a satisfaction guaranteed policy allowing customers to return devices within 30 calendar days, no questions asked.

Which of the following would be most concerning for an internal auditor regarding the possibility of fraud?

Options:

A.

Company policy does not involve any bonuses for shop managers who surpass sales quotas.

B.

Shop managers are paid a bonus for sales over a monthly quota at the end of each month.

C.

Sales are evenly distributed throughout the year except for high sales and returns during holiday periods.

D.

Shop managers are paid a bonus for net sales over a yearly quota on the first day of March each year.

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Questions 146

Which of the following statements is true regarding organizational independence of the internal audit activity (IAA)?

Options:

A.

Reporting to a higher level within the organization reduces the potential scope of engagements that can be undertaken by the IAA.

B.

The benefit of the IAA ' s organizational independence is realized primarily via reduced costs for the external auditor.

C.

Independence is impaired when the scope of the IAA is subject to changes required by senior management.

D.

Inadequate organizational independence can result in the chief audit executive being able to fire staff without consulting the audit committee.

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Questions 147

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities would typically be examined when using the maturity model approach for assessing an organization ' s risk management program?

Options:

A.

Monitor and review

B.

Performance measurement.

C.

Setting the context.

D.

Communication.

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Questions 148

Anew internal auditor suspects fraud is taking place. Which action should the new auditor take?

Options:

A.

Collect relevant audit evidence and begin working with management of the area to investigate the fraud.

B.

Inform the chief audit executive and meet with the suspect to determine whether the person committed fraud.

C.

Document supporting information and recommend an investigation to the appropriate audit management.

D.

Evaluate existing controls and implement new procedures to mitigate the opportunity for fraud.

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Questions 149

After the draft engagement report is issued, the manager of the area that was reviewed is informally interviewed by the engagement supervisor regarding the audit experience. Which of the following is most likely the purpose for this interview?

Options:

A.

Such an interview is performed when there is a need to dismiss an internal auditor

B.

Feedback from the manager will contribute to the audit team ' s professional development

C.

The manager ' s opinion will be used to form the final audit assessment and report rating.

D.

The manager will provide insights into the audited industry ' s trends

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Questions 150

Which of the following statements is true regarding how the scope of a consulting engagement should be established?

Options:

A.

The engagement client should be able to determine the scope to be applied to the engagement

B.

The internal auditor should establish a scope that does not impair her objectivity

C.

Any attempts by the engagement client to limit the scope should be considered a scope limitation

D.

The scope should include reviewing the effectiveness of the internal control environment

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Questions 151

How can internal auditors best enhance the credibility and value of their work?

Options:

A.

By prioritizing management’s advisory requests over assurance engagements.

B.

By documenting workpapers after engagements are completed.

C.

By following audit programs from previous assurance engagements.

D.

By providing risk-based advice.

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Questions 152

Which of the following would best assist the internal audit activity in assessing whether an organization ' s responses to risk are aligned with its risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the results of successful testing of controls and monitoring procedures implemented by management

B.

Determining that there are no gaps between the internal auditors ' risk assessment and the risk assessment performed by the organization

C.

Obtaining evidence that employees throughout the organization are aware of the organization s risk appetite

D.

Verifying that previously identified organizational risks were documented in board meeting minutes

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Questions 153

Which of the following statements related to organization wide risk management and control is true?

Options:

A.

Organizationwide risk management is a function or department.

B.

Organizationwide risk management addresses more than internal control.

C.

Organizationwide risk management sets adequate controls to ensure all risks are avoided.

D.

Organizationwide risk management is the checklist used during the risk and control self-assessment exercise.

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Questions 154

An internal auditor has completed an assurance engagement Which of the following is most likely true regarding the engagement?

Options:

A.

During audit planning, the auditor provided the client with the scope of the engagement for their agreement

B.

The results of the engagement were included in a written report that was issued to the client who requested the engagement

C.

During audit planning, the auditor determined that the engagement scope would include a review of the security and privacy of payroll records

D.

The client requested the review of a new payroll system in order to improve the security of the system

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Questions 155

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility (CSR) evaluation activities may be performed by the internal audit activity?

1. Consult on CSR program design and implementation.

2. Serve as an advisor on CSR governance and risk management.

3. Review third parties for contractual compliance with CSR terms.

4. Identify and mitigate risks to help meet the CSR program objectives.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3,

B.

1 2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Questions 156

Which of the following tools would be most useful to an internal auditor performing an assessment of the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk responses?

Options:

A.

Heat map.

B.

Risk and control matrix.

C.

Risk register.

D.

Process map.

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Questions 157

Which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

The QAIP scope includes assurance work performed by the internal audit activity but not consulting work.

B.

The QAIP verifies conformance with the Definition of Internal Auditing, Code of Ethics, and Standards.

C.

QAIP reports are for internal use primarily and typically are not shared with members outside of the internal audit activity.

D.

QAIPs make a distinction between fully outsourced internal audit activities and in-house internal audit teams, as a different set of criteria is applied for each.

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Questions 158

During an audit of an organization ' s accounts payable area, an internal auditor identified anomalies in the information examined that may indicate potential fraud. Which test should the auditor perform first to verify this?

Options:

A.

Verify the completeness and integrity of the data being analyzed.

B.

Identify duplicated organizational transactions.

C.

Analyze all transactions within the targeted area.

D.

Check control totals that have may have been falsified.

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Questions 159

During the audit of taxation processes in the organization internal auditors have verified that all employees of the finance department received training on taxation guidelines. The training is mandatory and is automatically assigned via email invitation to all new employees in the department. Which type of controls have the auditors tested?

Options:

A.

Directive

B.

Preventive

C.

Detective

D.

Automatic

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Questions 160

Which of the following would be the best choice for a continuing professional development requirement for a newly created internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Require all internal auditors to create a training plan based on a competency self-assessment.

B.

Require internal auditors to complete all of their training through webinars, to increase efficiency and avoid traveling

C.

Require all internal auditors to become a member of The Institute of Internal Auditors.

D.

Require internal auditors to create a training plan based on their areas of interest

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Questions 161

Which of the following statements about internal audit consulting engagements is true?

Options:

A.

The primary purpose of a consulting engagement is to assess evidence and provide conclusions.

B.

The internal audit activity determines the nature and scope of work for the specific consulting engagement

C.

Internal auditors may provide consulting services relating to operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

D.

It is not appropriate to communicate control issues identified during consulting engagements to the board

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Questions 162

Which of the following can be used to integrate cultural risk factors into testing for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Results of employee surveys.

B.

Process maps.

C.

The organizational chart.

D.

The documented governance structure.

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Questions 163

When a plant manager from within the organization is hired as a rotational internal auditor within the internal audit activity which area should he most likely be trained for immediately?

Options:

A.

Industry knowledge

B.

Project management

C.

Leadership skills

D.

Risk assessments

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Questions 164

During an assurance engagement the internal audit team discovers that employees performing a control do not understand the principles behind it. Before the engagement concludes, at management ' s request the audit team facilitates several formal training sessions to help explain those principles to the employees. Which of the following best describes the engagement provided by the internal audit activity in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assurance services

B.

Blended services

C.

Consulting services

D.

Prohibited services

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Questions 165

Which of the following processes does the board manage to ensure adequate governance?

Options:

A.

Establish and measure performance objectives for the internal audit activity.

B.

Select board members with necessary knowledge and skills.

C.

Develop, approve, and execute the strategic plan of the organization.

D.

Develop strategies to mitigate the risks to achieving the organization’s objectives

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Questions 166

Which of the following is most accurate concerning corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

A moral agent in an organization makes decisions that are based on the rules and regulations of the organization as they apply to human resources decisions

B.

The utilitarian approaching deciding on ethical dilemmas is concerned with choosing the simplest solution that will apply to the most people

C.

Ethics are not defined by laws but they are not a matter of free choice ethics are based on standards of conduct derived from shared principles and values

D.

The individualism approach to ethical decision making is focused on implementing a customized long-term outcome that is most beneficial for the entire organization

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Questions 167

A snow removal company is conducting a scenario planning exercise where participating employees consider the potential impacts of a significant reduction in annual snowfall for the coming winter. Which of the following best describes this type of risk?

Options:

A.

Residual.

B.

Net.

C.

Inherent.

D.

Accepted.

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Questions 168

The internal audit activity is undergoing a self-assessment as part of its quality assurance and improvement program Which of the following observations must be addressed in order for the internal audit activity to achieve conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter does not identify which audit services are outsourced

B.

The internal audit charter has not been reviewed by the legal department

C.

The internal audit charter has not been approved by the board within the past year

D.

The internal audit charter does not describe the authority of the internal audit activity

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Questions 169

According to IIA guidance which of the following correctly describes the standard risk treatments outlined in the process element approach of the framework for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance risk sharing application of controls, risk application.

B.

Risk avoidance risk identification application of controls risk acceptance.

C.

Risk identification risk assessment risk avoidance risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification risk assessment application of controls risk acceptance

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Questions 170

Which of the following situations is most likely to prompt the internal audit activity to disclose its nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

One of the organization ' s senior internal auditors owns a side business, though to date, no sales have been made to this business.

B.

The annual internal audit plan includes performance audits of main business processes, but reviews of high-risk development projects were not considered.

C.

The internal audit activity committed to carrying out an audit of documentation on investment hedging, and a hedging expert was contracted to assist with the engagement.

D.

A periodic quality self-assessment of the internal audit activity identified a number of improvement areas with regard to key performance indicators.

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Questions 171

Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing a governance risk management and compliance framework within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fewer internal audits

B.

More effective interviews

C.

Automated risk management strategy tools

D.

Reduced assurance costs

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Questions 172

According to MA guidance, which of the following is true with regard to the internal audit charter?

1. It specifies the minimum resources needed for assurance engagements.

2. It requires final approval from senior management.

3. It defines the internal audit activity ' s authority and responsibilities.

4. It describes the expectations for communicating the results of a quality assurance and Improvement program.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

3 and 4 only.

C.

1.2. and 4.

D.

2. 3. and 4.

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Questions 173

Which type(s) of assessments in an internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program requires ongoing monitoring to evaluate internal audit activity ' s efficiency and effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Neither internal nor external assessment

B.

internal assessment

C.

Both internal and external assessment

D.

External assessment

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Questions 174

Which of the following best describes why a chief audit executive might obtain the services of a fraud specialist to assist in a major fraud investigation ' ?

Options:

A.

Fraud specialists are better at using computer-assisted audit techniques

B.

Fraud specialists are better equipped to act as an expert witness in court

C.

Fraud specialists are better able to properly apply due professional care

D.

Fraud specialists are better at using crime scene investigation techniques

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Questions 175

Which of the following statements best illustrates why internal auditors assess soft controls?

Options:

A.

Assessing soft controls are an effective method of assessing risk related to personnel.

B.

Assessing soft controls, as opposed to hard controls, makes it easier to evaluate operating effectiveness.

C.

Assessing soft controls can help internal auditors in undertaking root-cause analysis.

D.

Assessing soft controls provides more objective information than assessing hard controls.

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Questions 176

Which of the following techniques should an internal auditor use in order to conduct an effective interview?

Options:

A.

Use technical language to establish credibility with the employee being interviewed

B.

Avoid straightforward questions to make the person being interviewed think before answering

C.

Prepare the next question while the interviewee is responding to demonstrate preparedness

D.

Appear confident but not arrogant during the interview to show professionalism

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Questions 177

After the final audit report was issued, the engagement supervisor received an expensive gift from management recognizing her assistance in improving the business, if the gift is accepted, which of the following would be true?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor violated The IIA ' s Code of Ethics principle of integrity.

B.

The engagement supervisor violated The IIA ' s Code of Ethics principle of objectivity.

C.

The engagement supervisor violated The IIA’s Code of Ethics principle of confidentiality.

D.

The engagement supervisor did not violate any principles of The IIA’s Code of Ethics.

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Questions 178

A new internal auditor was recently recruited to the internal audit activity from the organization ' s finance department. What is likely to be the chief audit executive’s greatest concern regarding assigning the new auditor to upcoming audits in the finance department?

Options:

A.

The time it may take the new auditor to complete the assignment and report the findings to management.

B.

The qualifications of the new auditor and whether the auditor ' s business knowledge is relevant to the assignment.

C.

The potential for a conflict of interest to exist or appear to exist if the new auditor undertakes these assignments.

D.

The knowledge the new auditor may have of control weaknesses in the finance department.

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Questions 179

The internal audit activity is undergoing a self-assessment as part of its quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following observations must be addressed in order for the internal audit activity to achieve conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter does not identify which audit services are outsourced.

B.

The internal audit charter has not been reviewed by the legal department.

C.

The internal audit charter has not been approved by the board within the past year.

D.

The internal audit charter does not describe the authority of the internal audit activity.

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Questions 180

Evidence discovered during the course of an engagement suggests that multiple incidents of fraud have occurred. There do not appear to be sufficient controls in place to prevent reoccurrence. Which of the following is the internal auditor ' s most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify management of the area under review and the other internal auditors involved in the engagement.

B.

Discuss the situation with the engagement supervisor to determine whether fraud investigation experts are required to investigate the matter properly.

C.

Fully document in the workpapers the evidence that has been discovered and recommend appropriate controls to address the fraud.

D.

Provide the evidence that was discovered to local law enforcement for possible prosecution of the suspected fraud.

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Questions 181

Which of the following statements is true regarding assurance and advisory services provided by an internal audit function?

Options:

A.

When internal auditors are performing an advisory engagement, they always focus on the organization as a whole.

B.

When internal auditors are performing advisory engagements, they focus only on areas not covered by assurance engagements.

C.

Advisory services are mainly applicable during the planning stages of projects to assess relevant risks.

D.

The type of information required depends on whether the engagement is assurance or advisory.

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Questions 182

Which statement accurately describes the authority of the internal audit activity as outlined in the audit charter?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) shall report directly to the board and administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE shall provide senior management and the board with performance updates quarterly.

C.

The internal audit team shall have full access to the organization ' s records, physical property, and personnel required to conduct audit engagements.

D.

The internal audit activity shall maintain a quality assurance and improvement program in conformance with the Standards.

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Questions 183

The management team of an agricultural organization has prioritized corporate social responsibility (CSR) initiatives. Which of the following would be considered a CSR activity?

Options:

A.

Offering a one-off donation to an environmental charity for its expansion efforts

B.

Organizing organization volunteers to provide periodic plantation skill sharing to farmers

C.

Providing special year-end monetary bonuses to the organization ' s employees at all levels

D.

Arranging a free-of-charge picnic for all of the organization ' s employees and their family members

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Questions 184

According to IIA guidance, who should chief audit executives report to regarding the internal audit function’s human resources daily matters, such as vacations?

Options:

A.

Chief risk officer.

B.

Chief finance officer.

C.

Chief executive officer.

D.

Chief operational officer.

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Questions 185

Which of the following needs to be established prior to undertaking an assessment of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Department performance standards.

B.

Remediation timeframes.

C.

Nonconformance disclosures.

D.

External assessment resources

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Questions 186

Who is responsible for setting the risk appetite?

Options:

A.

External auditors.

B.

Chief risk officer.

C.

Operations management.

D.

Board of directors.

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Questions 187

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility {CSR) evaluation activities may be performed by the internal audit activity?

1. Consult on CSR program design and implementation

2. Serve as an advisor on CSR governance and risk management.

3. Review third parties for contractual compliance with CSR terms.

4. Identify and mitigate risks to help meet the CSR program objectives.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3.

B.

1,2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 188

The head of human resources notified the internal audit activity that a key account manager was fired because he did not register a large number of contracts with clients As a result the organization was unaware of its duties and would suffer some financial loss Which of the following should be expected from a competent internal auditor who is analyzing this situation?

Options:

A.

The ability to apply forensic methods to obtain legally admissible evidence

B.

The ability to conduct admission-seeking interviews with potential suspects

C.

The ability to evaluate whether such attributes as intent and personal gain were present

D.

The ability to retrieve concealed or deleted information from the former employee ' s laptop

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Questions 189

How can the internal audit function demonstrate professional competency?

Options:

A.

Providing relevant recommendations in line with current activities, trends, or emerging issues to engagement clients.

B.

Ensuring that individual members of the internal audit function have the same technical skills.

C.

Conforming to the independence required by the Global Internal Audit Standards.

D.

Developing reputation and expertise among different functions within the organization in order to secure other responsibilities when they depart from internal auditing.

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Questions 190

According to NA guidance, which of the following conditions would enhance the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The organizational culture rewards critical and objective thinking.

B.

The quality of work performed by the internal audit activity is periodically reviewed,

C.

The organization establishes effective governing body oversight,

D.

Audit assignments are rotated among internal audit staff

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Questions 191

Which of the following are some of the requirements of the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

The OAIP should be conducted at least once every three years, and must be performed by an external assessor.

B.

The OAIP should be conducted on an ongoing basis, and can be completed as a self-assessment,

C.

he QAIP should include both internal assessments performed by staff and external assessments performed by independent, objective individuals

D.

The OAIP should be performed with scoping limitations established by the board.

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Questions 192

Which of the following best describes the differences between internal auditors and external auditors?

Options:

A.

External auditors are concerned about misstatements in the organization ' s financial statements, while internal auditors are concerned about fraudulent activities that could impact the organization’s financial statements

B.

External auditors are required to hold an accounting designation and are responsible for continuing their education, while internal auditors are required to hold an internal audit designation.

C.

External auditors focus on the accuracy and understandability of financial statements, while internal auditors help the organization accomplish its objectives by evaluating and improving the effectiveness of the control process.

D.

External auditors are not employees of the organization, while internal auditors are employees who have in-depth knowledge of the business, making their opinion more reliable to the board and senior management.

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Questions 193

Senior management relies on the professional judgment of an internal auditor and uses outcomes of her audit work to make business decisions Which of the following personal qualities displayed by the internal auditor is most likely the foundation for this relationship?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Negotiation skills.

C.

Business acumen

D.

Flexibility

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Questions 194

In which of the following ways could stakeholders be engaged in corporate social responsibility efforts?

Options:

A.

Investigation of health and safety incidents.

B.

Auditing of controls and management systems.

C.

Communication of disclosures and external reporting,

D.

Involvement in focus groups and complaint management

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Questions 195

A new company’s risk management function is developing its cybersecurity risk management program Which of the following actions should be the first priority when developing the program?

Options:

A.

Start building a cybersecurity culture and set the desired behavior using a bottom-up approach

B.

Determine the cybersecurity framework that will establish and report on the effectiveness of the program

C.

Define the cybersecurity risk appetite and perform a cost-benefit analysis of the program

D.

Raise cybersecurity awareness across various departments outside of the IT department

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Questions 196

Which of the following threatens internal audit objectivity ' ?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors are expected by senior management to identify a minimum of five major control weaknesses in each area audited

B.

Internal auditors are prevented from accessing information necessary to undertake their audit engagements

C.

The chief audit executive reports directly to the chief financial officer who previously led the internal audit activity

D.

The CEO requests the internal audit activity develop a charter that clearly delineates its purpose and responsibilities within the organization

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Questions 197

Which statement is accurate regarding reporting on the quality assurance and improvement program (OAIP) to conform with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) should report all stages of the OAlP ' s development and key milestones.

B.

The CAE should report only corrective action plans that meet external assessor or stakeholder requirements.

C.

The CAE should establish the form and content of program communication so that it is in alignment with the internal audit activity charter.

D.

The CAE should disclose program details only after both internal and external assessments have been completed.

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Questions 198

As part of a fraud investigation by regulators, a court order was issued to a bank. The court order requested the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide access to a number of audit reports and workpapers, some of which included customers ' confidential information such as transaction activity and other personal details. What is the appropriate response by the CAE?

Options:

A.

Reject the court order, citing a potential breach of customers ' confidentiality agreement

B.

Consult with legal counsel to determine what information to provide.

C.

Respond promptly and provide all that was requested by the court order.

D.

Seek permission from customers prior to sharing their information.

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Questions 199

Senior management is eager to assess the organization ' s risks with regard to electricity sales processes, but the senior management team does not know where to start. How can the internal audit activity assist?

Options:

A.

Outsource the identification of best practices for risk management to an external third party.

B.

Perform an audit engagement to identify risk management practices deployed in electricity sales processes.

C.

Recommend reporting the lack of risk management to government authorities and request guidance.

D.

Facilitate a self-assessment workshop with the employees responsible for process execution.

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Questions 200

Which of the following is the primary benefit of an effective professional development program for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

An effective program may enhance internal auditors ' business acumen

B.

An effective program may ensure that HA Standards requirements are adhered to during audit engagements

C.

An effective program may ensure internal auditors ' effectiveness in setting the organization ' s nsk management process

D.

An effective program may clarify management ' s expectations of the auditors and their responsibilities to the organization

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Questions 201

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments rely solely on the review of completed audit engagements for demonstrated performance.

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for assessing the suitability and competence of an external assessor.

C.

QAIP results must first be discussed with the board and approval obtained for distribution to senior management.

D.

At the board ' s discretion, the frequency of external assessments can exceed the five-year guideline.

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Questions 202

Which of the following describes the most appropriate match between a potential temporary guest auditor candidate and an upcoming audit assignment?

Options:

A.

A purchasing manager with two years of prior audit experience in public practice to lead a contracts management audit

B.

A communications officer who worked in the marketing department during the last six months to conduct a customer loyalty program audit

C.

A manager of social responsibility who has a nursing background to participate m a health and safety audit for the corporate office and plant facilities

D.

An accounting manager who discovered and reported fraud committed by a payables clerk to conduct a performance audit of accounts payable

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Questions 203

Which of the following would best preserve the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter is approved by the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

The CAE reports functionally to the CEO.

C.

The CAE ' s internal audit plan is endorsed by the board.

D.

The chief financial officer determines the appointment of the CAE.

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Questions 204

In which of the following scenarios would it be appropriate for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards?

Options:

A.

It A new internal audit activity was formed four years ago. An external assessment was never performed, but successive internal assessments were performed and support the conclusion that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards

B.

An internal self-assessment completed yesterday found that the internal audit activity did not conform with the Standards when carrying out its work. However, the preceding independent external assessment supports the conclusion that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

C.

To reduce costs, the CAE excluded the use of external assessors from the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program for the past seven years.However, the CAE concluded that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards because all internal assessments over the period have supported this conclusion.

D.

The results of the last external assessment of the internal audit activity, performed a little over five years ago, indicated that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards. The most recent internal assessment performed within the past year also indicates conformance.

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Questions 205

What is the main difference between a consulting engagement versus an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The nature of services provided are defined in the internal audit charter.

B.

Internal auditors must maintain objectivity while performing their work.

C.

The objectives and scope of the engagement typically are directed by management.

D.

Internal auditors may assume management responsibilities.

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Questions 206

In its five years of existence, an internal audit activity conducted a single internal assessment of its quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP). The results of that assessment showed that the internal audit activity did not conform with the Standards. Prior to this, an external assessment of the internal audit activity ' s QAIP was conducted, which reported that the internal audit activity was in conformance with the Standards. Considering the two assessments, what would be the internal audit activity ' s current state of conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Conformance with the Standards.

B.

Nonconformance with the Standards

C.

Unable to determine conformance with the Standards.

D.

Partial conformance with the Standards

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Questions 207

Which of the following can be used to minimize employees’ resentment of controls?

Options:

A.

Making sure employees are exempt from participating in control creation

B.

Implementing controls without lengthy explanations of their purpose

C.

Developing general constricting controls rather than detailed ones

D.

Not using controls to achieve goals

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Questions 208

The internal audit activity audited an organization ' s risk management function multiple times, and the recommendations that were made remain unaddressed by the head of risk management. Which of the following would be the next step for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity should add value by implementing the recommendations on management ' s behalf.

B.

The chief audit executive (CAE) must discuss this matter with senior management and the board

C.

The CAE should determine which recommendations to implement based on the severity of the associated risks.

D.

The internal audit activity, led by the CAE. should assume responsibility for risk management function.

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Questions 209

Which of the following best describes a responsibility of the board of directors with regard to risk management throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

Monitor the organization ' s overall risk activities in relation to its risk appetite and other risk criteria.

B.

Guide the integration of risk management with other business planning and management activities.

C.

Review the portfolio of risk of the organization in relation to its risk appetite.

D.

Assume responsibility for the effectiveness and success of the risk management framework

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Questions 210

According to IIA guidance, during the development of an internal audit charter, which is true regarding acceptable organizational roles?

Options:

A.

Only the board and legal counsel should provide input.

B.

Both the board and senior management should provide input.

C.

The board may provide input but should do so only through the audit committee.

D.

Senior management should not provide input.

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Questions 211

Which of the following is the best reason why the engagement supervisor should take care in explaining to local management the criteria that will be used to measure the effectiveness of the control environment?

Options:

A.

The assessment will cover soft controls and company values.

B.

The assessment will focus on the policy for a particular process.

C.

The assessment will lack a defined scope

D.

The assessment will probably uncover fraud risks.

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Questions 212

When taken by a chief audit executive, which of the following actions would be most likely to prevent division management from exaggerating sales reports?

1. Announcing a series of internal audit engagements focusing on compliance with corporate sales-reporting policies.

2. Asking the president and the board to issue a statement of corporate policy stressing the importance of accurate management

reporting and the negative consequences of intentional misreporting.

3. Setting up a hotline for employees to report fraudulent behavior anonymously,

4. Assisting the controller in developing and monitoring a series of business process indicators, which are historically correlated with, but independent of sales.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 213

Which of the following is a primary responsibility of senior management with respect to ethical violations?

Options:

A.

Senior management provides oversight for the organization ' s ethical climate.

B.

Senior management promotes an ethical culture in the organization.

C.

Senior management assesses the effectiveness of the organization’s ethical programs.

D.

Senior management reviews major ethical policies in the organization for compliance

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Questions 214

What must a chief audit executive do if significant changes to regulations may affect the nature of internal audit services?

Options:

A.

Discuss the changes with the external auditors.

B.

Discuss the changes with the CEO, who is responsible for escalating to the board.

C.

Discuss the changes with the board and senior management.

D.

No action is needed because the changes are unlikely to affect the work of internal auditors.

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Questions 215

An internal auditor is reviewing employee travel expenses from the previous six months for fraud. Which of the following tests would best detect instances where personal travel has been claimed?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether claims have been properly authorized for payment.

B.

Verifying whether claims are properly supported by invoices or other documents.

C.

Confirming that all claims are within the limits of the organization ' s travel policy.

D.

Reconciling claims against business trip requests that were approved by supervisors.

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Questions 216

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor failed to expand the engagement and include managements preferences when determining the scope of an upcoming assurance engagement.

B.

An internal audit activity lacks the skills need to perform a high-risk security engagement included on the annual audit plan.

C.

A chief audit executive fated to perform a risk assessment prior to preparing the audit plan

D.

An internal audit activity has existed for two years and has not undergone external quality assessment

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Questions 217

Internal audit is performing an engagement to determine whether there were indications of questionable bidding on a city s infrastructure project. As part of the engagement the internal audit activity became aware that certain firms tend to receive the contracts for large city projects. How should the internal audit activity proceed with the engagement and identify questionable bidding practices?

Options:

A.

Obtain the city s vendor listing to determine whether there was an adequate number of firms available to solicit bids for protects

B.

Obtain at of the city s financial records to identify any firms that received payments for contracted goods and services.

C.

Obtain the city ' s contracting files to determine whether the city demonstrated efforts to solicit bids from various interested firms.

D.

Obtain the city’s official public meeting minutes to determine whether there were concerns about the contracting practices

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Questions 218

An internal audit team analyzed the organization ' s value-at-risk model during an assurance engagement and suggested several useful improvements. Management was impressed by the internal audit team’s work and requested additional actions. Which of the following requested actions would impact internal audit independence most severely if fulfilled?

Options:

A.

Assess the effectiveness of the model at least semi-annually.

B.

Modify model inputs and suggest courses of action based on outcomes.

C.

Employ acquired experience to test other models used by the company.

D.

Validate whether model outputs serve the purpose stated by the model.

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Questions 219

Which of the following describes the internal audit activity ' s most appropriate role in an organization ' s risk management process?

Options:

A.

Reporting to the board on management ' s assessment of current risks

B.

Establishing a risk management policy and framework for the organization

C.

Assigning responsibility for identifying and managing significant risks

D.

Developing key controls to mitigate risks across the organization

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Questions 220

An electric company hires several independent contractors to trim trees that are in close proximity to electricity lines. Which of the following would be the most effective control to mitigate the risk of contractors submitting fraudulent invoices regarding work completed?

Options:

A.

Require contractors to submit completed and signed work acceptance sheets

B.

Utilize unmanned drones to conduct regular flights and photo shoots over the areas where work is performed

C.

Reconcile invoices and work acceptance sheets submitted by contractors

D.

Compare actual payments to contractors with budgeted values and analyze discrepancies

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Questions 221

An internal auditor notes that inventory counts are conducted on Mondays only and that all documentation is on paper as there are no computers in the underground warehouses. Also she notices that the person responsible for receiving the goods is the same one who distributes materials and spare parts Finally, she sees that spare parts are written off and taken by the heads of mining units to different underground locations to wait for their turn to be installed. Which of the described findings requires more consideration from a fraud risk perspective?

Options:

A.

The job responsibilities of the warehouse employee compromise segregation of duties

B.

Spare parts are written off before their actual usage and installation

C.

Warehouse management is conducted on paper and requires further investigation

D.

The inventory counts take place on specific days of the week for no apparent reason

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Questions 222

Which of the following should be considered in developing a risk and control model for use in an engagement?

Options:

A.

The risk and control model should be globally accepted by the profession.

B.

The risk and control model should be strictly adhered to in performing the engagement.

C.

The risk and control model should be tailored to the organization that will be the subject of the engagement.

D.

The risk and control model should be developed individually by the auditor for use on individual audit projects within the planned engagement.

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Questions 223

Which of the following would be considered an impairment to an internal auditor ' s objectivity when performing a review of the organization ' s procurement function ' ?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor worked on the implementation of the accounting system within the organization before joining the internal audit activity last year

B.

The internal auditor is part of a multidisciplinary team tasked to assist with a new project implementation checklist within the organization

C.

The internal auditor worked as a sourcing specialist before joining the internal audit activity last year

D.

The internal auditor participates in a cross-departmental team for information and data security within the organization

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Questions 224

At the beginning of an IT development project, key risks were identified and assessed, and risk owners were appointed. Six months later, the IT development team reported that the project is significantly over budget, it will not be completed on time, and key personnel had left the organization. Which of the following risk management practices should be improved for future projects?

Options:

A.

Risk response

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk avoidance

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Questions 225

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Results of internal assessments need to be reported to the board at least once every five years.

B.

The external assessor must present the findings from the external assessment to senior management and the board upon completion.

C.

Deficiencies within the internal audit activity must be reported to the board as soon as they are noted.

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring of the internal audit activity ' s performance must be reported to senior management and the board at least annually

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Questions 226

Which of the following describes a responsibility of operating management in an organization ' s corporate social responsibility (CSR) efforts?

Options:

A.

Responsible for implementing CSR principles and overseeing of CSR performance.

B.

Responsible for performing periodic internal self-verifications of reported CSR results.

C.

Responsible for performing analysis and comparison of CSR reports and performance.

D.

Responsible for ongoing CSR reporting and accomplishing of performance targets.

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Questions 227

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Consulting engagements typically involve four or five parties: the internal audit activity, engagement client, senior management, board, and sometimes the external auditor.

B.

The scope of a consulting engagement is determined by either the engagement supervisor or chief audit executive, and it is finalized prior to beginning fieldwork.

C.

According to the Standards, internal auditors are permitted to carry out certain management functions during a consulting engagement.

D.

A preliminary risk assessment may not be needed for consulting engagements, because the expectations and objectives of the engagement are determined by the engagement client.

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Questions 228

A whistleblower reveals to the chief audit executive (CAE) detailed allegations of potential fraud at the senior management level. Although the CAE has some experience in the area, she chooses to retain an external fraud expert to conduct the investigation. When asked by the director of finance to defend the expenditure, which of the following statements represents the CAE ' s best response?

Options:

A.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that to protect her independence, she needs to remain isolated from the investigation.

B.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that the internal audit activity must obtain competent assistance if needed.

C.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that to protect her objectivity, she needs to remain isolated from the investigation.

D.

The CAE describes the specifics of the allegation to underscore the importance of the situation and the need for expert investigation

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Questions 229

The internal audit activity is responsible for which of the following actions related to an organization’s internal controls?

Options:

A.

Mitigating risks affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

B.

Enabling opportunities affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Analyzing and advising regarding costs versus benefits of control activities,

D.

Attesting to fairness of financial statements.

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Questions 230

An Internal auditor accepted a role as an engagement supervisor on a highly specialized and technical engagement for which she did not have the expertise. Which of the following fundamental principles of The IIA ' s Code of Ethics did she violate?

Options:

A.

Objectivity.

B.

Confidentiality.

C.

Competency.

D.

Due professional care.

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Questions 231

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a required aspect of an internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

Management approval

B.

Independent review

C.

Reporting relationships

D.

Quarterly assessment

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Questions 232

A sales manager was recently bypassed for a promotion. He feels entitled to a higher salary and is angry that management does not recognize his contributions. To make up for this perceived injustice, he begins to record false expenses on his travel expense reports. This scenario best illustrates which of the following fraud risk factors?

Options:

A.

Incentive.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Opportunity.

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Questions 233

A chief audit executive (CAE) recruited a few new internal auditors to reduce the resource gaps identified in this year ' s internal audit plan. One of the new recruits has several years of experience with the organization. Ten months ago. she served as a senior supervisor in the finance department. However, for the past 10 months, she has been helping the organization with implementing a new IT system. What approach should the CAE take for the upcoming financial statement controls audit?

Options:

A.

Assign the new auditor to assist with conducting the fieldwork. but ensure that her work is reviewed by the CAE.

B.

Assign the new auditor to assist with developing the audit program, but ensure that the audit program is executed by other audit staff.

C.

Ensure that the new auditor ' s previous manager, and other close former coworkers, are excused during the audit.

D.

Ensure that the new auditor is responsible only for the supervisory review, but not the execution of the audit field work.

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Questions 234

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions best demonstrates that due professional care has been considered by the internal audit activity when conducting a review of an organization ' s assets?

Options:

A.

Determining whether any opportunity exists for senior executives to misappropriate property or funds

B.

Planning and executing fieldwork In a complete and timely manner to identify all significant risks

C.

Verifying whether the board of directors has implemented effective internal controls

D.

Having senior management determine whether the degree of work planned is sufficient to meet engagement objectives

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Questions 235

Which of the following should be implemented to promote independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors do not review an area where they previously worked

B.

The internal audit charter is reviewed and updated annually

C.

The chief audit executive reports functionally to the board

D.

Management does not influence the consulting services provided by the internal audit activity

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Questions 236

What controls could be implemented as a preventive measure against malicious insider threats, such as an unauthorized employee obtaining electronic customer sales information and later selling them to a competitor?

Options:

A.

Role-based access controls.

B.

Visitor management system controls.

C.

Network firewall prevention controls.

D.

Information classification controls.

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Questions 237

A manufacturing organization ' s chief audit executive (CAE) was approached by the head of security from one of the manufacturer ' s third party suppliers The head of security requested internal audit records from a recent audit engagement involving the third-party supplier The head of security believed those records contained information that would enable to identify employees of the third-party supplier who may be involved m fraudulent activities What is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Obtain approval from the manufacturer ' s audit committee regarding the release of audit records

B.

Release the records but first remove all data regarding the manufacturing organization s internal actions and procedures

C.

Deny access to the records as the third party supplier s security learn should be able to investigate then own employees.

D.

Consult with the manufacturer ' s senior management to determine whether releasing tie records would be appropriate

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Questions 238

Which of the following actions by an internal auditor would be the most relevant to determine the effectiveness of controls?

Options:

A.

Participate in a fraud risk-assessment session as an in-house facilitator.

B.

Send regular written updates to senior management on new control-related regulations.

C.

Lead a seminar on internal controls and provide numerous examples to the audience.

D.

Conduct a surprise inventory count at the raw materials warehouse.

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Questions 239

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates due professional care?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor who previously worked in the payroll department within the last year was intentionally excluded by the chief audit executive from the audit team assigned to a payroll audit

B.

While performing a payroll audit an auditor became skeptical about significant payments made to a manager. The auditor sought to determine whether these payments were reasonable through discussion with a manager in a different department in the organization

C.

The head of the payroll department being audited is a business partner of the engagement supervisor During the audit the engagement supervisor sought to maintain his objectivity by not participating in fieldwork

D.

An auditor assigned to a payroll audit was unable to reperform some complex payroll computations for a small number of employees The sum of these payments was below the materiality thresholds provided so the auditor did not perform further tests

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Questions 240

An organization allows the same individual to physically access inventory and purchase new assets when supplies are depleted. Which of the following would best help the organization manage the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Accounting personnel should regularly perform a reconciliation between invoices and purchase orders.

B.

Accounting personnel should conduct a periodic inventory count and reconcile all inventory movements.

C.

Internal auditors should review the frequency and volume of purchased assets to detect trends in the inventory levels.

D.

Management should establish a policy requiring new inventory asset purchases to be made on serialized order forms with copies retained.

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Questions 241

An internal auditor is reviewing employee travel expenses from the previous six months for fraud. Which of the following tests would best detect instances where personal travel has been claimed?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether claims have been properly authorized for payment

B.

Verifying whether claims are properly supported by invoices or other documents.

C.

Confirming that all claims are within the limits of the organization ' s travel policy.

D.

Reconciling claims against business the requests that were approved by supervisors

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Questions 242

An internal auditor is reviewing the results of an employee survey at a mining company. Which of the following would alert the auditor to a potential ethics issue?

Options:

A.

Women account for 20% of the total number of employees in the company.

B.

Thirty percent of employees feel confident in raising concerns without a fear of retaliation.

C.

Most employees believe that transparent and fair decision-making forms the basis of business ethics.

D.

Employees with longer work experience believe that they deserve more privileges than new hires.

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Questions 243

An organization grants its internal auditors authority to access sensitive confidential information so the auditors may analyze data and conduct effective assurance engagements.

This effectively demonstrates support for which of the following fundamental principles of internal auditing?

Options:

A.

Independence.

B.

Integrity.

C.

Confidentiality.

D.

Proficiency and due professional care.

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Questions 244

Which of the following statements best represents the duo professional care that is required of internal auditor’s?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should perform assurance procedures to ensure that all significant risks are identified.

B.

Internal auditor should not perform consulting engagements for operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

C.

Internal auditors should consider the cost of assurance in relation to the potential benefits.

D.

Internal auditors should device internal audit programs to confirm that the results are accurate.

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Questions 245

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates how the chief audit executive may ensure that due professional care is applied?

Options:

A.

Establish policies and procedures concerning the engagement process

B.

Develop a strategy for recruiting assigning, and training staff

C.

Outsource complex engagements to an external service provider

D.

Base the auditor evaluation process on the number of observations

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Questions 246

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Coaching management in responding to risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on management’s behalf.

C.

Imposing risk management processes.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

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Questions 247

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor reviews a tender inviting vendors to submit bids to supply financial services software to the organization. She suspects that the tender was tailored for the bidder who eventually won the contract. What should the auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Review payments made for the financial services software.

B.

Confront a procurement specialist with the suspicion.

C.

Submit an anonymous tip to the whistleblower hotline.

D.

Analyze technical terms and conditions of the tender.

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Questions 248

Which of the following tests would most likely help discover a fictitious invoice?

Options:

A.

Compare vendor addresses to employee addresses.

B.

Match cancelled checks to invoices.

C.

Search for duplicate payment amounts.

D.

Check employee bank records against invoice amounts.

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Questions 249

An audit client who was unsatisfied with the audit report rating called the chief audit executive (CAE) and complained that the internal auditor who performed the audit was biased because his spouse, who worked in the area under review, was on a list of employees to be terminated. Which of the following measures would be most appropriate to prevent this situation from arising?

Options:

A.

Initiating an internal investigation to clarify whether a biased judgment took place.

B.

Requiring the internal auditors to disclose any potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Requiring that the audit client disclose any potential conflicts of interest with the auditor.

D.

Requiring human resources manager to submit all future job applicants ' data in order to identify relatives of auditors.

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Questions 250

Regarding the chief audit executive (CAE). which ot the following is considered an impairment to the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE reports administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE is asked to submit the liquidation of her travel allowances to human resources for approval.

C.

The CAE ' s supervisor is responsible for the risk management function.

D.

The CAE is asked to review new procedures before implementation.

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Questions 251

An organization’s board of directors has decided that the internal audit activity must have greater access to different pans of the organization in order to perform their assurance work effectively Which of !he following areas is the board seeking to improve by making this change?

Options:

A.

Internal audit authority.

B.

Internal audit reporting structure.

C.

Internal audit independence and objectivity.

D.

Internal audit interaction with the board

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Questions 252

Senior management requested that the internal audit function conduct an advisory engagement to evaluate the design and implementation of the project for setting up a new accounting system.

Which approach should the auditors perform that relates only to an advisory engagement?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with senior management to define the objective and scope of the engagement rather than completing a risk assessment.

B.

Identify the criteria to be used to evaluate the aspects of the activity under review defined in the engagement objectives.

C.

Include in the engagement conclusions the auditors’ judgment regarding the effectiveness of governance, risk management, and control processes.

D.

Identify the types and quantity of resources necessary to achieve the engagement objectives.

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Questions 253

The chief audit executive (CAE) is drafting the annual internal audit plan and seeks input from senior management and the external auditor prior to submitting it for approval to the board. According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The CAE ' s actions are likely to impair the Independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

The CAE acted appropriately, and the independence of the internal audit activity was not impaired.

C.

The CAE should have developed the audit plan without outside influence to maintain objectivity.

D.

The CAE acted appropriately, as he has authority to determine who reviews and approves the audit plan.

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Questions 254

Under which of the following circumstances should the final audit report include a disclosure of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

An external quality assessment of the internal audit activity is performed only once every five years.

B.

The internal auditor provided negative assurance, because he found no evidence of misconduct.

C.

The annual internal audit plan includes some consulting engagements that are based on opportunities rather than risks to the organization.

D.

A new internal auditor moved into the internal audit activity from the payroll department and was immediately assigned to the payroll audit.

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Questions 255

Which of the following situations would cause the greatest concern regarding impairment of internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

The eternal auditor reviewed the audit clients proposed procedures and standards of control and offered suggested improvements at the client’s request.

B.

The internal auditor performed nonaudit work for the audit client which was communicated to senior management and the board before the engagement was performed and restated in the audit report

C.

internal auditors accepted limited access to the audit client ' s systems and records m accordance with the scope of the engagement

D.

The internal auditor used his in-depth knowledge of systems development to assist the audit client m designing a new operational system with robust controls.

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Questions 256

Which of the following fraud prevention measures is most likely to trigger undesired adverse behavior if improperly designed?

Options:

A.

Disclosure of outside business activities

B.

Ethics training programs

C.

Compensation programs

D.

Exit interviews

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Questions 257

In an environment where employees are frequently penalized for mistakes and the organizational culture is one of fear and blame which of the following is an internal auditor most likely to find?

Options:

A.

Management regularly overrides key controls

B.

Employee turnover is tow

C.

Careless behavior becomes normal

D.

Employee morale is low

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part1
Exam Name: Internal Audit Fundamentals
Last Update: Oct 8, 2026
Questions: 858

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