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CFE-Law Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) - Law Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations suggest that countries should do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Use a risk-based approach when creating and establishing their anti-money laundering policies.

B.

Require financial institutions to monitor their customers' social media activity for signs of money laundering.

C.

Only conduct business with other countries that comply with the anti-money laundering recommendations.

D.

Impose a sentence of five years of imprisonment for all money laundering and terrorist financing convictions.

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Questions 5

Which of the following would be direct evidence that an employee committed a cash larceny scheme that resulted in the theft of $800 from their employer's safe?

Options:

A.

A coworker states that the employee appeared to be nervous on the day of the theft.

B.

A diagram is used to display the location of the employer's safe.

C.

A witness testifies that they saw the employee take the money.

D.

A witness testifies that the employee was usually the last person to leave the office.

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Questions 6

Acme Inc. is the debtor in a bankruptcy case that will enable the organization to continue conducting business after the proceeding. Which of the following is one of the preferred approaches to governance and management of the proceeding under the World Bank Principles for Effective Insolvency and Creditor/Debtor Regimes (World Bank Principles)?

Options:

A.

The creditor with the largest claim against Acme is entrusted as the insolvency supervisor.

B.

Exclusive control of the proceeding is entrusted to an independent insolvency representative.

C.

Acme's management and its creditors oversee governance responsibilities.

D.

Supervision of Acme's management is undertaken by the company's internal audit function.

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Questions 7

Which of the following is generally NOT one of the goals of deferred prosecution agreements?

Options:

A.

To postpone prosecution until a company conducts an extensive internal investigation

B.

To get an organization to reform its policies

C.

To allow prosecutors to resolve a case while still punishing malfeasance

D.

To reduce the risk of illegal practices at an organization

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Questions 8

Which of the following describes the purpose of an expert witness testimony at trial?

Options:

A.

To offer an opinion as to a party's guilt or innocence

B.

To give a firsthand account of the fads of the case on the record

C.

To give an opinion when the fact finder needs specialized knowledge

D.

None of the above

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Questions 9

Which of the following statements concerning civil trials in civil law jurisdictions is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

The standard of proof in civil trials is often described as the inner conviction of the judge.

B.

The standard of proof in civil trials is lower than it is in criminal trials.

C.

Civil trials are typically a single event rather than a continual series of meetings and correspondences.

D.

Neither side may appeal an adverse judgment in a civil case.

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Questions 10

Raj is an employee who works in a jurisdiction that prohibits unreasonable workplace searches and surveillance in areas or items where employees have a reasonable expectation of privacy. In which of the following is Raj MOST LIKELY to have a reasonable expectation of privacy?

Options:

A.

A backpack brought from home

B.

A filing cabinet in the office lobby

C.

A waste bin m the employee's office

D.

A company-issued tablet computer

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Questions 11

Which of the following is TRUE in regard to authenticating evidence in most common law systems?

Options:

A.

Digital records cannot be authenticated by testimony from a witness with personal knowledge

B.

For evidence to be authenticated it must be reviewed and voted on by a jury

C.

Exhibits that cannot be authenticated will not be admitted regardless of relevance

D.

The purpose of authentication is to ensure that hearsay is not admitted into evidence

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Questions 12

Which of the following statements concerning the selection of expert witnesses during trial is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

Generally, the court selects the primary expert witnesses in adversarial jurisdictions and the parties do not participate in the selection.

B.

Generally, the parties select the expert witnesses in both inquisitorial and adversarial jurisdictions.

C.

Generally, the court selects the primary expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions and the parties do not hire them directly.

D.

Generally, the parties select expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions but not in adversarial jurisdictions.

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements concerning the appointment of expert witnesses at that is accurate?

Options:

A.

Generally, the court appoints the primary expert witnesses in inquisitorial jurisdictions.

B.

Generally, only the parties may select expert witnesses in inquisitional jurisdictions.

C.

Generally the court selects the primary expert witnesses in adversarial jurisdictions.

D.

Generally, only the parties may select experts to introduce testimony in adversarial jurisdictions

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Questions 14

Which of the following is NOT a legal element that must be shown to prove a claim for fraudulent misrepresentation of material facts?

Options:

A.

The victim relied on the misrepresentation

B.

The defendant acted negligently

C.

The defendant made a false statement (i, e., a misrepresentation of fact)

D.

The victim suffered damages as a result of the misrepresentation

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Questions 15

Which of the following is NOT required for a contract transaction or scheme to be classified as an investment contract?

Options:

A.

The expectation of making a profit

B.

Profits derived solely from the investor's management activity

C.

investment m a common enterprise

D.

An investment of money or other asset

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Questions 16

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about rules prohibiting securities broker-dealers from making unsuitable recommendations on investments or investment strategies?

Options:

A.

A suitability violation occurs when a broker does not carry out a trade requested by or promised to a customer

B.

A suitability violation occurs when a broker recommends an investment or investment strategy that is inconsistent with the client's objectives

C.

A suitability violation occurs when a broker trades in a client's account without obtaining prior approval for making the transaction(s).

D.

A suitability violation occurs when a broker enters into transactions and manages a client's account for the purpose of generating excessive commissions

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Questions 17

According to the best practices regarding large cash transactions with customers as provided by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations, which of the following transactions would require a report to be filed with the government?

Options:

A.

A domestic cash deposit into a bank of a sum that is below the jurisdiction's designated threshold.

B.

A single cash purchase of restaurant supplies for a sum that is above the jurisdiction's designated threshold.

C.

A single cash purchase of casino credits for a sum that is above the jurisdiction's designated threshold.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 18

Which of the following situations would constitute a violation of the US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA)

Options:

A.

A private U.S company pays a S2.000 foreign corporation fee that is required in order to do business within the country

B.

A private UK company transfers $25,000 to a Chilean public official to influence the award of lucrative overseas contracts.

C.

A private U S company transfers $45,000 to a foreign official to influence the award of a public construction contract.

D.

A private U.S company transfers $100,000 to the sole proprietor of a Brazilian company to influence the award of a commercial imports contract.

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Questions 19

Even if a government agent obtains consent to search by force duress or bribery, the consent will still constitute a valid waiver of the consenting party's right to be free from searches.

Options:

A.

true

B.

False

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Questions 20

During an internal investigation Todd a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) interviewed Janessa a fraud suspect Although Janessa wanted to leave in the middle of the interview, Todd blocked the exit and prevented her from leaving Janessa subsequently confessed to committing fraud If under these facts Janessa files a lawsuit (or false imprisonment against Todd, Todd will likely

Options:

A.

Win the case because he is protected under the qualified business privilege

B.

Lose the case if a trier of fact concludes that he restrained Janessa without consent or legal justification

C.

Lose the case because janessa did not leave the interview

D.

Win the case if he did not know the conduct was illegal

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Questions 21

Which of the following, if available, would help an organization recover losses from an instance of internal fraud?

Options:

A.

Privilege insurance

B.

Customer liability policy

C.

Fidelity insurance

D.

Deposition

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Questions 22

Which of the following is NOT one of the elements that the government must prove to establish a violation of a law criminalizing false statements to government agencies?

Options:

A.

The government relied on the false statement

B.

The defendant knew the statement was false

C.

The defendant made a false statement

D.

The false statement was material

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Questions 23

At the end of a civil proceeding, the court finds the defendant, a company, liable and orders it to pay a large sum of money to compensate for the plaintiffs losses. Which of the following BEST describes this type of remedy?

Options:

A.

Declaratory relief

B.

Carnages

C.

Equitable relief

D.

Injunction

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Questions 24

Company A used Company B to recover damages for the breach of a contract. In the same proceeding. Company B sought damages for an allegation that Company A fraudulently induced Company B into entering the contract. In this case, what would Company B's claim against Company A be called?

Options:

A.

Counterclaim

B.

Collateral attack

C.

Reversal

D.

Cross-claim

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Questions 25

Which of the following can affect the rights that employees may have during an internal investigation?

Options:

A.

Existence of fraud risk factors

B.

Existence of violation red flags

C.

Existence of interstate compacts

D.

Existence of an employment contract

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Questions 26

In systems using adversarial processes, an attorney may impeach an opposing party's witness by showing that the witness:

Options:

A.

Has a keen ability to observe

B.

Made poor consistent statements

C.

Testified from personal knowledge

D.

Is influenced by bias or self-interest

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Questions 27

Which of the following typically does NOT have to be present for communications between an attorney and the attorney's client to be protected by a legal professional privilege?

Options:

A.

Purpose of the communications was to seek or provide legal advice

B.

A lawsuit has been filed

C.

Intent to keep the communications confidential

D.

Communication between a legal advisor and a client

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Questions 28

In most civil law jurisdictions which of the following BEST describes when a party is required to begin taking steps to preserve and produce relevant evidence?

Options:

A.

When the court orders such steps to be taken

B.

When litigation has started

C.

When the party receives a service of process

D.

When the charging documents are filed

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Questions 29

Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about serf-regulatory organizations (SROs) in the securities industry?

Options:

A.

An SRO generally has sole regulatory authority over the securities industry in the jurisdiction in which it operates

B.

In most jurisdictions. SROs are prohibited from participating in the resolution of disputes related to securities transactions

C.

An SRO is a governmental entity that exercises regulatory authority over the securities industry in its jurisdiction

D.

In some jurisdictions SROs establish the standards and rules under which members of the securities industry operate

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Questions 30

Slater has been appointed as a bankruptcy administrator. According to the recommendations of the World Bank Principles for Effective Insolvency and Creditor/Debtor Regimes (World Bank Principles), which of the following statements concerning Slater's role as bankruptcy administrator is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

Slater may investigate all contracts the debtor entered into, but he does not have the power to cancel them without the debtor's permission.

B.

Slater may request relevant information from the debtor's agents or others with knowledge of the debtor's affairs, but he cannot force them to provide it.

C.

Slater may collect, preserve, and dispose of the debtor's property.

D.

Slater may not interfere with contracts signed by the debtor.

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Questions 31

Which of the following statements about the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO) s TRUE?

Options:

A.

IOSCO is a self-regulatory organization for companies that have securities traded on international securities markets

B.

IOSCO provides a forum for regular cooperation on banking supervisory matters affecting developing nations

C.

IOSCO is an oversight body responsible for issuing and enforcing regulations that govern all international securities markets

D.

IOSCO is recognized as the international standard-setter for securities markets

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Questions 32

Which of the following is NOT an element that is generally required to establish a claim alleging the common law civil wrong for intentional infliction of emotional distress?

Options:

A.

The defendant acted intentionally or recklessly.

B.

The victim's distress occurred for at least two years.

C.

The defendant engaged in extreme and outrageous conduct.

D.

The victim suffered distress due to the defendant's conduct.

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Questions 33

The MAIN PURPOSE for maintaining the chain of custody on an item of evidence is to

Options:

A.

Establish that the evidence has not been altered or changed from the time it was collected through its production in court

B.

Verify that the item of evidence has only been handled by court officials prior to its production m court.

C.

event opposing parties from accessing evidence without a court order

D.

Eliminate re need to authenticate the item of evidence in court

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Questions 34

One of the purposes of securities regulation is to maintain market confidence.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements concerning civil trials in common law jurisdictions is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

Civil jury trials must have the same number of jurors as in criminal jury trials.

B.

Neither side may appeal an adverse judgment in a civil case

C.

Jury verdicts m civil trials must always be unanimous

D.

in most civil cases, the standard of proof is the preponderance of the evidence

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Questions 36

Bob receives a memorandum from his attorney that is protected by a legal professional privilege Bob emails the memorandum to a third party who has no need to know the information in the memorandum Which of the following statements is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

Bob did not walve the privilege because the legal professional privilege belongs to the attorney, not the client

B.

Bob might have waived the privilege because he transmitted the protected information to a third party who has no need to know the information

C.

Bob might have waived the privilege because he used email to transmit the protected information.

D.

Bob did not waive the privilege because the legal professional privilege cannot be waived by transmitting protected information to a third party

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Questions 37

Countries A and B both follow the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations concerning cross-border transfers of currency Trevor is traveling from Country A to Country B while carrying $16,000 in cash which exceeds Country B's reporting threshold Trevor is required to disclose the amount of currency he is carrying to authorities in Country B.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 38

Greg is serving as an expert witness and is being cross-examined at trial. The questioning party gets Greg to state that he spent considerable time working on a certain issue in the case. Then the questioning party asks many questions on a tangential issue in the case that Greg knows little about. Which of the following describes the questioning party's method?

Options:

A.

Myopic vision

B.

Personal attack

C.

Bias

D.

Sounding board

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Questions 39

Which of the following is generally one of the goals of deferred prosecution agreements?

Options:

A.

To help reduce the risk of future illegal practices by an organization accused of misconduct.

B.

To save trial resources by getting the defendant to plead guilty to a less serious offense.

C.

To postpone prosecution until a company conducts an adequate internal investigation.

D.

To increase the likelihood of conviction if a company is accused of subsequent misconduct.

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Questions 40

Under the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations, a financial institution's customer due diligence (CDD) procedures involve a single check on the customer's business relationships and transactions.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 41

Jackson believes he has a legal cause of action against Alice, who lives in a foreign country. The fact that Jackson is the plaintiff allows him to bring the lawsuit against Alice in any court in the country where he lives.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 42

Which of the following statements concerning fact finders in criminal trials in common law jurisdictions is MOST ACCURATE?

Options:

A.

The presence of a jury is always required to make factual findings in a common law criminal trial

B.

A panel of a professional judge and lay judges usually serves as the fact finder in serious cases

C.

A judge is typically responsible for factual findings

D.

Juries usually serve as the fact finder in serious cases

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Questions 43

Which of the following statements concerning examinations of expert witnesses in most inquisitorial jurisdictions is accurate?

Options:

A.

Both the parties and the judge may determine how much consideration should be given to an expert's testimony.

B.

Both the parties and the judge may question an expert's credibility.

C.

Only the parties are allowed to make objections regarding an expert's biases.

D.

Only the judge is allowed to question the expert's analysis and the methods that they used in their determinations.

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Questions 44

The government filed a avil action against a politician for accepting real estate as a bribe. There is a possibility that the politician could transfer the real estate to a third party before the court enters a final judgment Which type of order should the government seek from the court to prevent the politician from transferring the real estate?

Options:

A.

Preservation order

B.

Declaratory relief

C.

Prejudgment attachment

D.

Litigation hold

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Questions 45

John deliberately understated his income so that he could pay a lesser amount on his tax bill. This is an example of tax avoidance.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 46

Which of the following schemes involves disguising money from illegal nonbusiness sources by recording more income on a business's books than the business actually generates?

Options:

A.

Overstate revenues

B.

Structured deposits

C.

Trade-based laundering

D.

None of re above

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Questions 47

Clara is a fraud examiner investigating a potentially fraudulent misrepresentation made in the sale of a security. Which of the following questions should Clara ask to determine if the misrepresentation was material?

Options:

A.

"Would a reasonable investor want to know the information to make an informed decision?"

B.

"Is the person who made the misrepresentation registered as a broker-dealer?"

C.

"Were potential investors promised guaranteed returns in the misrepresentation?"

D.

"Did the person who made the representation have authorization to make the statements that are in dispute?"

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Exam Code: CFE-Law
Exam Name: Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) - Law
Last Update: Dec 5, 2025
Questions: 158

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