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CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

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Questions 5

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

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Questions 6

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 7

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

Options:

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 8

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 9

What is the key benefit of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Ensures that the informational needs of the project and its stakeholders are met through implementation and the development of artifacts

B.

Ensures that the project includes all the work required and only the work required—to complete the project successfully

C.

Increases the probability and/or impact of positive risks, and decreases the probability and/or Impact of negative risks or issues

D.

Maintains or increases the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves

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Questions 10

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

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Questions 11

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

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Questions 12

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Questions 13

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

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Questions 14

A project lifecycle is defined as:

Options:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

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Questions 15

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Questions 16

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

Options:

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

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Questions 17

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

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Questions 18

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Questions 19

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

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Questions 20

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Options:

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Questions 21

The diagram below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Questions 22

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Questions 23

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Questions 24

What three strategies are used to respond to threats?

Options:

A.

Escalate, accept, and mitigate

B.

Accept share, and avoid

C.

Escalate, transfer, and exploit

D.

Mitigate, accept, and prioritize

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Questions 25

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager 's sphere of influence on a project?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Sponsors

C.

Directors

D.

Resource managers

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Questions 26

Select three elements that apply to agile/ adaptive environments

Options:

A.

Frequent team checkpoints

B.

Colocation

C.

Access to information

D.

Virtual team members

E.

Geographically dispersed team

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Questions 27

Due to new market conditions a five-year project......need to be updated

Due to new market conditions a five-year project requires a full revision of project objectives. Which components to the stakeholder engagement plan need to be updated?

Options:

A.

Scope and impact of change to stakeholders

B.

Project scope and stakeholders goals

C.

Engagement level of key stakeholders

D.

Stakeholders expectations for the project

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Questions 28

How does planning for prevention costs assist in meeting stakeholder needs and expectations, while still providing required performance and reliability?

Options:

A.

It details product or service failures experienced by the customer

B.

It clarifies the costs associated with assessing the quality of the product or service

C.

It accounts for costs used to avoid poor quality in the product or service

D.

It communicates product or service failures discovered by the project team

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Questions 29

What is the goal of the control quality process in project management?

Options:

A.

To monitor the activities of the project and ensure Iho work is being executed as it was planned

B.

To obtain a quality cerlific ation for the product of the project service or result

C.

To assess performance and ensure the project product, service, or result meets the customer's expectations

D.

To test the product service, or result to determine if the errors observed are within the defined quality margins

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Questions 30

Why is required in a project?

Options:

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so failoring is not requires.

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Questions 31

What is the process of ensuring that project resources are assigned and available?

Options:

A.

Control Procurements

B.

Acquire Resources

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Procurement Management

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Questions 32

Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?

Options:

A.

Verify Deliverables

B.

Validate Deliverables

C.

Review Deliverables

D.

Analyze Deliverables

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Questions 33

What characteristic of servant leadership supports resource management in an agile environment?

Options:

A.

Lecturing

B.

Construing

C.

Measuring

D.

Coaching

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Questions 34

For a 10-day project, activity B ' s duration is three days, and activity C’s duration is two days What is the duration of activity A if activities B and C are performed in parallel?

Options:

A.

3 days

B.

5 days

C.

7 days

D .10 days

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Questions 35

What earned value (EV) measure indicates the cost efficiency of the work completed?

Options:

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

To-complete performance index (TCPI)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

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Questions 36

During a project's execution phase, the project manager reviews the communications management plan for communication technology factors. What can affect the choice of communications?

Options:

A.

Legal requirements

B.

Politics and power structures

C.

Internal information needs

D.

Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information

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Questions 37

A newly developed project team is working together, building trust and adjusting its work habits to support the team What stage of the Tuckman ladder does this describe?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Performing

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Questions 38

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram.... the duration of this task?

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram and needs to report back about the project status The total duration of the task is ten days, and both Activity A and B need be completed. Activity A has a duration of six days, and activity B has a duration of four days Activity B has a finish-to-start relationship with activity A Under current circumstances, activity A will take about seven days to complete.

What is the outcome of the duration of this task'?

Options:

A.

The task will be completed on time.

B.

The task will not be completed on time.

C.

Activity A is not a critical path task

D.

The precedence diagram cannot be used to provide answers for duration calculations

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Questions 39

When developing a schedule which tools and techniques should a project manager use?

Options:

A.

Schedule Networfc Analysis and Critical Path Method

B.

Activity I ist and Fxpert Judgement

C.

Milestone Iist and Risk Register

D.

Basis ot estimates and Rolling Wave Planning

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Questions 40

Which additional considerations should the project manager make when managing risks in an agile/adaptive project?

Options:

A.

Add more risk categories

B.

Identify, analyze, and manage risk during each iteration of the project

C.

Add new values to the probability and impact matrix

D.

Increase the reserves because of the high variability environment

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Questions 41

Which can be used to convert a verified deliverable to an accepted deliverable?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Reporting

C.

Voting

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 42

Match the process with its corresponding Process Group:

Options:

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Questions 43

What tern describes an intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component?

Options:

A.

Preventive action

B.

Corrective action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Updates

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Questions 44

If a project manager effectively manages project knowledge, a key benefits is that:

Options:

A.

all stakeholders have access to the same information.

B.

the project team is able to understand the project status.

C.

project stakeholders have a clear picture of the project.

D.

new knowledge is added to organizational process assets.

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Questions 45

In an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager ensure that the team is comfortable with changes?

Options:

A.

Having control over the planning and delivery of the products without delegating decisions

B.

Giving access to information to the team and frequent team checkpoints

C.

Selecting different team members to take the project manager role during reviews with stakeholders

D.

Asking the control change board to approve changes before notifying the team

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Questions 46

A project team identifies defects that will require a modification to a tool's functionality. What process should the project manager follow to obtain stakeholder buy-in?

Options:

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 47

A project manager needs to request outside support......manager need to create

A project manager needs to request outside support for a statement ot work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?

Options:

A.

Time and material (T&M)

B.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

C.

Fixed price

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

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Questions 48

Which are required to create the schedule management plan?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline, work breakdown structure (WBS), estimated costs, and milestone list

B.

Resource management plan, organizational process assets, activity list, and business case

C.

Enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project charter, and project management plan

D.

Activity list, project statement of work, project charter, and communications management plan

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Questions 49

The table represents the possible durations of a specific project task.

Using the three-point estimating technique what is the expected number of days it should take to complete the task?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

6

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Questions 50

Which of the following factors within a company cloud trigger the creation of a project?

Options:

A.

Need to lower production costs to remain competitive

B.

Need to submit a warranty claim for a faulty product

C.

Need to submit the monthly production report

D.

Need to define next month's production goals

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Questions 51

In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements

Options:

A.

Metrics

B.

Sprint

C.

Charter

D.

Backlog i

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Questions 52

Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control process?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and provedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

B.

Control Quality is all about following planned process and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

C.

Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same

D.

Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group

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Questions 53

Which of the following are outputs of define scope process in project scope management

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project Scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

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Questions 54

When can we say that a project is completed?

Options:

A.

When the planned time duration is completed

B.

When the project objectives have been reached

C.

When the project manager has left the team

D.

When the project team decides to stop the work on the project

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Questions 55

Two members of the team are having a conflict..............or partially resolve the problem

Two members of the team are having a conflict. The project manager decides that, in this case, the best solution is to bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties, in order to temporarily or partially resolve the problem.

Which technique should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/Avoid

B.

Smooth/Accommodate

C.

Compromise/Reconcile

D.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

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Questions 56

What can the project manager find among the factors that could lead a project to be tailored

Options:

A.

Company Culture

B.

Return on investment

C.

Earned Value

D.

Schedule Performance Index

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Questions 57

A Project manager received a change request from a key stakeholder, documented it reviewed it with the team, and then presented if for decision. What was project manager trying to do?

Options:

A.

Develop consensus among stakeholders

B.

Get the budget approved for change

C.

Make sure management is aware of the change

D.

Get approval from the change control board

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Questions 58

What are the two most common contract types used in a project?

Options:

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract and fixed price contract

B.

Fixed price contract and cost-reimbursable contract

C.

Cost-reimbursable contract and time and material (T&M) contract

D.

Time and material (T&M) contract and cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract

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Questions 59

Which of the following tasks is related to the perform qualitative risk analysis process?

Options:

A.

Identify the project risks and assign a probability of occurrence

B.

Perform a sensitivity analysis to determine which risk has the most potential for impacting the project

C.

Analyze the effect of identified project risks as numerical data

D.

Prioritize each project risk and assign the probability of occurrence and impact for each one

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Questions 60

What is a key benefit of using virtual project teams?

Options:

A.

Ensures appropriate behavior, security, and the protection of proprietary information

B.

Reduces the risk of conflict due to interpersonal communications and other interactions

C.

Assures that all team members have a clear and common understanding of the project

D.

Reduces project cost by use of modern technologies allowing seamless team collaboration

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Questions 61

What is main purpose of Project Quantity Management?

Options:

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

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Questions 62

What estimating technique is used when there is limited information?

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Three-point estimating

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Questions 63

What is the purpose of the protect management process groups?

Options:

A.

To define a new project

B.

To track and monitor processes easily

C.

To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives

D.

To link specific process inputs and outputs

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Questions 64

What are the project management processes associated with project quantity management?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Control Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Cost of Quality

C.

Manage Quality, Customer Satisfaction, and Control Quality

D.

Customer Satisfaction, Control Quality, and Continuous Improvement

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Questions 65

Match the process with its corresponding process group.

Options:

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Questions 66

What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?

Options:

A.

Cultural influences

B.

Physical environmental elements

C.

Commercial databases

D.

Infrastructure

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Questions 67

One of the outputs of the project schedule is a detailed plan. What is the main purpose of that detailed plan?

Options:

A.

It represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope

B.

It creates a formal record of the project and shows the organizational commitment to the project

C.

It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled and validated

D.

It provides the needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group

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Questions 68

The project manager released a report A few stakeholders express the view that report should

have been directed to them

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

Options:

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

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Questions 69

What is the recommended approach for handling risk in a high-variability environment?

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Iterative

D.

Incremental

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Questions 70

Which is the main benefit of managing and tailoring strategies in the Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Increased support and minimized resistance from stakeholders

B.

Increased performance of the project team

C.

Maintenance of stakeholder satisfaction because costs and scope are under control

D.

Updated project documents, as requested by stakeholders

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Questions 71

What should a project manager consider to address the full delivery life cycle for large projects?

Options:

A.

A range of techniques utilizing a plan driven approach, adaptive approach or a hybrid ot both

B.

Only techniques of an agile/adaptive approach in large organizations

C.

Change the role of the project manager to managing pro|ci I in adaptive nuviionin-

D.

Splitting larger projects into two or more smaller project is which can be addressed in an adaptive method

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Questions 72

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

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Questions 73

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

Options:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

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Questions 74

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

Options:

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 75

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

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Questions 76

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

Options:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

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Questions 77

Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Update

B.

Preventive action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective action

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Questions 78

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

Options:

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

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Questions 79

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

Options:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

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Questions 80

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 81

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

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Questions 82

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

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Questions 83

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Informal r

C.

Horizontal

D.

Unofficial

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Questions 84

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

Options:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

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Questions 85

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

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Questions 86

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

Options:

A.

tangible

B.

targeted

C.

organized

D.

variable

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Questions 87

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

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Questions 88

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

Options:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

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Questions 89

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

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Questions 90

Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:

Options:

A.

Level of control.

B.

Communication channels.

C.

Scope.

D.

Strategic alignment.

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Questions 91

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

Options:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Questions 92

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

Options:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Questions 93

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

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Questions 94

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 95

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Budget estimates

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Procurement documents

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Questions 96

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

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Questions 97

While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

Options:

A.

ends.

B.

begins.

C.

delays.

D.

deviates.

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Questions 98

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

Options:

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

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Questions 99

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

Options:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

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Questions 100

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

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Questions 101

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

Options:

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

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Questions 102

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

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Questions 103

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 104

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Questions 105

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

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Questions 106

An input to the Control Quality process is:

Options:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

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Questions 107

When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

Options:

A.

realigned.

B.

performed.

C.

improved.

D.

controlled.

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Questions 108

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 109

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

Options:

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

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Questions 110

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

Options:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

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Questions 111

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Options:

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

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Questions 112

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

expert judgment

B.

seller proposals

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Questions 113

Project management processes ensure the:

Options:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

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Questions 114

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

B.

tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.

C.

guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.

D.

creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.

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Questions 115

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

Options:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

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Questions 116

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

Options:

A.

Schedule network analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Alternative analysis

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 117

Which items are components of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

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Questions 118

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

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Questions 119

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

Options:

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

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Questions 120

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.

5

B.

9

C.

12

D.

14

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Questions 121

During project selection, which factor is most important?

Options:

A.

Types of constraints

B.

Internal business needs

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

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Questions 122

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

Options:

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

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Questions 123

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Questions 124

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

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Questions 125

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Questions 126

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

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Questions 127

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

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Questions 128

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Questions 129

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

Options:

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

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Questions 130

Resource calendars are included in the:

Options:

A.

staffing management plan.

B.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.

project communications plan.

D.

project charter.

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Questions 131

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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Questions 132

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

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Questions 133

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Questions 134

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Questions 135

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

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Questions 136

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

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Questions 137

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

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Questions 138

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Questions 139

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

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Questions 140

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

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Questions 141

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

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Questions 142

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

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Questions 143

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Questions 144

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

Options:

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

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Questions 145

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

Options:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

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Questions 146

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Questions 147

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Questions 148

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

Options:

A.

Benefit

B.

Initiative

C.

Objective

D.

Process

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Questions 149

A reward can only be effective if it is:

Options:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

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Questions 150

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 151

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

Options:

A.

Cost estimates.

B.

Resource calendars,

C.

The project charter,

D.

The risk register.

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Questions 152

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

Options:

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$175

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Questions 153

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

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Questions 154

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

Options:

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

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Questions 155

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

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Questions 156

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Questions 157

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

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Questions 158

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 159

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

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Questions 160

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

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Questions 161

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

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Questions 162

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Options:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

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Questions 163

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

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Questions 164

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

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Questions 165

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 166

In a project, total float measures the:

Options:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

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Questions 167

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

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Questions 168

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

Options:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

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Questions 169

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

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Questions 170

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Options:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

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Questions 171

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

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Questions 172

Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Work

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Plan Quality Management

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Questions 173

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

Options:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

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Questions 174

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

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Questions 175

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

Options:

A.

The project management plan.

B.

The stakeholder register.

C.

Procurement documents.

D.

Stakeholder analysis.

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Questions 176

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 177

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

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Questions 178

An element of the project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

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Questions 179

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Collect Requirements

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Questions 180

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

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Questions 181

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

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Questions 182

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

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Questions 183

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

Options:

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

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Questions 184

When should quality planning be performed?

Options:

A.

While developing the project charter

B.

In parallel with the other planning processes

C.

As part of a detailed risk analysis

D.

As a separate step from the other planning processes

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Questions 185

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

Options:

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

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Questions 186

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

Options:

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

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Questions 187

A regression line is used to estimate:

Options:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

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Questions 188

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

Options:

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

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Questions 189

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

Options:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

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Questions 190

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

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Questions 191

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

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Questions 192

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

Options:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

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Questions 193

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 194

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

Options:

A.

10.

B.

12.

C.

20.

D.

24.

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Questions 195

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

Options:

A.

A process improvement plan,

B.

Quality control measurements.

C.

Work performance information,

D.

The project management plan.

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Questions 196

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

Options:

A.

Organizational process updates

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Change requests

D.

Quality control measurements

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Questions 197

A project team submits a weekly progress report to the project manager. The project manager consolidates the same report and sends a complete progress report to the stakeholders. What is this an example of?

Options:

A.

Informal communication

B.

Internal communication

C.

Formal communication

D.

Horizontal communication

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Questions 198

To which knowledge area does the Collect Requirements process belong?

Options:

A.

Quality Management

B.

Scope Management

C.

Cost Management

D.

Integration Management

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Questions 199

A project manager is launching an information system to provide a lessons learned database. This action is necessary for recipients to access content at their own discretion. Which communication method is described?

Options:

A.

Push communication

B.

Pull communication

C.

Interactive communication

D.

Stakeholder communication

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Questions 200

Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.

Options:

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Questions 201

A new project has been set. Four main stakeholders besides the project manager and four other team members have been identified. How many communication channels are available?

Options:

A.

8

B.

18

C.

36

D.

40

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Questions 202

Which set of competencies should a project manager have?

Options:

A.

Leadership, strategic and business management, and technical project management

B.

Expertise in the Industry, leadership and business management, and bilingual skills

C.

Technical project management, expertise in every role, and PMP certification

D.

Expertise in every detail on project activities. PMP certification, and leadership

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Questions 203

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Questions 204

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 205

Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.

Options:

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Questions 206

Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?

Options:

A.

Develop Team

B.

Manage Team

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Resource Management

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Questions 207

The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?

Options:

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Control Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Develop Team

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Questions 208

An organizational structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques is referred to as:

Options:

A.

Project Management Information System

B.

Project Management System

C.

Project Management Office

D.

Project Management Knowledge Area

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Questions 209

Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

Options:

A.

Requirements keep changing.

B.

An artifact must be produced.

C.

A tool or technique is required.

D.

Each project is unique.

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Questions 210

Match the project manager's sphere of influence with the associated primary role.

Options:

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Questions 211

Which of the following sets are inputs to the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Project charter and requirements documentation

B.

Project charter and business documents

C.

Project charter and stakeholder requirements

D.

Business documents and requirements traceability matrix

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Questions 212

In order to detect quality Issues earlier in the project life cycle, the project manager is using an agile/adaptive environment. What is the main difference between waterfall and agile/adaptive development approaches tor Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

The frequency of the quality and review steps

B.

The number of deliverables

C.

The duration of each of the quality and review steps

D.

The tools used in the quality and review steps

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Questions 213

Which conflict resolution technique produces the most lasting results?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth/accommodate

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

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Questions 214

The project manager is creating the communications management plan Which group of inputs Is required to begin?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register

B.

Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan

C.

Project charter, project management plan, and project documents

D.

Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan

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Questions 215

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

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Questions 216

A firm contracted an event management company to conduct the annual sales day event. The agreement states that the event management company will charge the firm for the actuals and receive 8% of the total cost. What type of contract Is this?

Options:

A.

Time and material (T8M)

B.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

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Questions 217

The Agile principle "welcome changing requirement, even late in development" relates to which agile manifesto?

Options:

A.

Working software over comprehensive documentation

B.

Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

C.

Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

D.

Responding to change over following a plan

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Questions 218

Which format can a network diagram take?

Options:

A.

Flow chart

B.

Control chart

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Cause-and-effect diagram

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Questions 219

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?

Options:

A.

Legal restrictions

B.

Financial considerations

C.

Commercial database

D.

Geographic distribution of facilities

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Questions 220

Given the following information.

Activity A takes one week.

Activity B takes three weeks.

Activity C takes two weeks.

Activity D takes five weeks.

Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B.

Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A.

Activity D follows Activity C.

How long will it take to complete the project?

Options:

A.

Eleven weeks

B.

Nine weeks

C.

Eight weeks

D.

Ten weeks

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Questions 221

Which of the following is an example of an organizational system that is arranged based on the job being performed?

Options:

A.

Simple

B.

Multi-divisional

C.

Functional

D.

Project-oriented

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Questions 222

Which tool should a project manager consider to deal with multiple sources of risk?

Options:

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Issue log

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 223

What is one of the main purposes of the project charter?

Options:

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definilion of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

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Questions 224

During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 225

A project has an estimated duration of 10 months with a total budget of US$220,000. At the end of the fifth month, it is estimated that at completion, the project will incur US$250,000. If the actual cost (AC) calculated is US$150,000, what is the earned value (EV) of the project?

Options:

A.

USS-30,000

B.

US$120,000

C.

US$370,000

D.

US$400,000

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Questions 226

Match the influence with its corresponding category of influence.

Options:

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Questions 227

The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?

Options:

A.

Monitor Communications

B.

Plan Communications Management

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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Questions 228

Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?

Options:

A.

Government standards

B.

Organizational culture

C.

Employee capabilities

D.

Organizational knowledge bases

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Questions 229

Which is the tool or technique that is used to obtain the list of activities from the work packages?

Options:

A.

Data analysis

B.

Leads and lags

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Decomposition

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Questions 230

A project manager Is in the process of working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, and identifying and fostering communication and involvement. Which process does this typically represent?

Options:

A.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Monitor Communications

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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Questions 231

Due to today's competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?

Options:

A.

Planning and risk management skills

B.

Communication and time management skills

C.

Business intelligence and leadership skills

D.

Strategic and business management skills

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Questions 232

A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase. What is the project manager's key responsibility during this phase?

Options:

A.

Defining the scope of the project

B.

Building a collaborative environment

C.

Creating a detailed project management plan

D.

Directing the delivery of the project

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Questions 233

Which role does the project manager resemble best?

Options:

A.

Orchestra conductor

B.

Facilities supervisor

C.

Functional manager

D.

School principal

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Questions 234

The project manager is working in the processes of Project Resource Management. Which process is the project manager developing if they are using parametric estimation?

Options:

A.

Plan Resource Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Acquire Resources

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Questions 235

When should Project Risk Management be conducted?

Options:

A.

Project Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Quality Planning

D.

Throughout the project lifecycle

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Questions 236

Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?

Options:

A.

Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF>

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF>

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Questions 237

What does an S-curve from a Monte Carlo analysis show?

Options:

A.

Cumulative probability distribution representing probability of achieving a particular outcome

B.

Individual project risks or uncertainties that have the most potential impact on outcome

C.

Best alternative out of the possible solutions, incorporating associated risks and opportunities

D.

Diagram for all project uncertainties and their influence over a period of time

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Questions 238

What organizational asset can influence the Plan Risk Management process?

Options:

A.

Corporate policies and procedures for social media, ethics, and security

B.

Organizational risk policy

C.

Stakeholder register templates and instructions

D.

Organizational communication requirements

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Questions 239

Which tasks should a project manager perform in order to manage the project schedule effectively?

Options:

A.

Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Define Quality of Activities. Develop Schedule

B.

Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule. Control Schedule

C.

Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Estimate Cost of Activities. Develop Schedule

D.

Define Activities. Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations. Define Quality of Activities. Estimate Cost of Activities, Develop Schedule

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Questions 240

Which statement is related to the project manager's sphere of influence at the organizational level?

Options:

A.

A project manager interacts with other project managers to detect common interests and impacts between their projects.

B.

A project manager facilitates communication between the suppliers and contractors on the project.

C.

A project manager considers the current industry trends and evaluates how they can impact or be applied to the project.

D.

A project manager may inform other professionals about the value of project management.

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Questions 241

What are the inputs of the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

B.

Project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C.

Cost baseline, enterprise environmental factors, benefits management plan, and organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, basis of estimates, and organizational process assets

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Questions 242

The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Bidder conferences

C.

Complexity of procurement

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 243

A team receives four different requests from separate stakeholders related to one application Match each requirement with its corresponding type of change request.

Options:

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Questions 244

A project manager is identifying the risks of a project. Which technique should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Representations of uncertainty

B.

Prompt lists

C.

Audits

D.

Risk categorization

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Questions 245

Why is tailoring required in a project?

Options:

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required.

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Questions 246

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

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Questions 247

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 248

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

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Questions 249

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

Options:

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

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Questions 250

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

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Questions 251

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Options:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

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Questions 252

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Questions 253

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

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Questions 254

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

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Questions 255

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 256

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

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Questions 257

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

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Questions 258

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

Options:

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

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Questions 259

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

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Questions 260

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

Options:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

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Questions 261

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

Options:

A.

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

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Questions 262

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

Options:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

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Questions 263

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

Options:

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

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Questions 264

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 265

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 266

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

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Questions 267

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

Options:

A.

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.

Market demand and/or legal requirements

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Questions 268

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

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Questions 269

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Accept

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Questions 270

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

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Questions 271

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

Options:

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

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Questions 272

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control charts

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Histogram

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Questions 273

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

Options:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

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Questions 274

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

Options:

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

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Questions 275

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

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Questions 276

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

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Questions 277

Types of internal failure costs include:

Options:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

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Questions 278

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

Options:

A.

divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B.

repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.

C.

linked to specific phases or subprojects.

D.

integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

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Questions 279

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

Options:

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

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Questions 280

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

Options:

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

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Questions 281

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 282

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

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Questions 283

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

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Questions 284

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management software

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

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Questions 285

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

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Questions 286

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

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Questions 287

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

Options:

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

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Questions 288

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Questions 289

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

Options:

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

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Questions 290

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

Options:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

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Questions 291

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

Options:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

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Questions 292

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

Options:

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

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Questions 293

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

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Questions 294

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 295

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

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Questions 296

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

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Questions 297

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

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Questions 298

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

Options:

A.

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

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Questions 299

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Options:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Questions 300

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

Options:

A.

Market conditions and published commercial information

B.

Company structure and market conditions

C.

Commercial information and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market conditions

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Questions 301

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

Options:

A.

Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.

B.

Conduct risk management activities for a project.

C.

Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.

D.

Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.

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Questions 302

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Options:

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

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Questions 303

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 304

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.

Activity cost estimates.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Procurement documents.

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Questions 305

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

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Questions 306

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 307

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

Options:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Questions 308

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

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Questions 309

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 310

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Options:

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

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Questions 311

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

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Questions 312

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

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Questions 313

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

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Questions 314

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

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Questions 315

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

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Questions 316

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 317

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

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Questions 318

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

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Questions 319

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

Options:

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

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Questions 320

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

Options:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

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Questions 321

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Questions 322

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

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Questions 323

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

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Questions 324

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 325

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

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Questions 326

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

Options:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

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Questions 327

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

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Questions 328

The stakeholder register is an output of:

Options:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

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Questions 329

What is the total float of the critical path?

Options:

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

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Questions 330

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

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Questions 331

Most experienced project managers know that:

Options:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

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Questions 332

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

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Questions 333

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

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Questions 334

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

Options:

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

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Questions 335

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

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Questions 336

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

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Questions 337

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Questions 338

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

Options:

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

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Questions 339

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

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Questions 340

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

Options:

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

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Exam Code: CAPM
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)
Last Update: May 2, 2024
Questions: 1135

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