Big Black Friday Sale 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: best70

CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

Options:

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

Buy Now
Questions 5

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

Options:

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

Buy Now
Questions 6

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

Buy Now
Questions 7

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

Options:

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

Buy Now
Questions 8

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors updates.

C.

Project staff assignments.

D.

Organizational charts and position descriptions.

Buy Now
Questions 9

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

Buy Now
Questions 10

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Buy Now
Questions 11

Which additional considerations should the project manager make when managing risks in an agile/adaptive project?

Options:

A.

Add more risk categories

B.

Identify, analyze, and manage risk during each iteration of the project

C.

Add new values to the probability and impact matrix

D.

Increase the reserves because of the high variability environment

Buy Now
Questions 12

A project lifecycle is defined as:

Options:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

Buy Now
Questions 13

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Buy Now
Questions 14

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

Buy Now
Questions 15

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

Buy Now
Questions 16

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

Buy Now
Questions 17

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

Options:

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

Buy Now
Questions 18

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

Buy Now
Questions 19

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

Buy Now
Questions 20

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Buy Now
Questions 21

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

Buy Now
Questions 22

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Buy Now
Questions 23

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Buy Now
Questions 24

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Buy Now
Questions 25

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

Options:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

Buy Now
Questions 26

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Buy Now
Questions 27

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

Buy Now
Questions 28

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Product analysis

B.

Project charter

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Project scope statement

Buy Now
Questions 29

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Buy Now
Questions 30

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Options:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

Buy Now
Questions 31

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

Buy Now
Questions 32

A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex.

Which strategies should the project manager take to account for risk management n this environment’

Options:

A.

Occasionally identify evaluate, and classify risks

B.

Review requirements and cross-functional project teams.

C.

Include contingency reserves and update the project management plan frequently.

D.

Frequently review incremental work products and update the requirements for proper prioritization.

Buy Now
Questions 33

A business analyst sent multiple meeting requests via instant message to a subject matter expert (SME) working in another country but did not receive a response. What should the business analyst do to reduce the likelihood of this occurring in the future with other stakeholders distributed across multiple locations?

Options:

A.

Ask each stakeholder for their preferred communication method.

B.

Confirm the time zone and work days in each location.

C.

Check with the IT department to see if there is a technical issue.

D.

Assume the meeting request is accepted unless declined.

Buy Now
Questions 34

A project manager is creating a project charter to provide a direct link between the project and the organization's strategic objectives. What must be considered when creating this document?

Options:

A.

High-level requirements and the project team

B.

Key stakeholder list and contingency reserve

C.

Detailed milestone schedule and project objectives

D.

Project purpose and high-level project description

Buy Now
Questions 35

Due to new market conditions a five-year project......need to be updated

Due to new market conditions a five-year project requires a full revision of project objectives. Which components to the stakeholder engagement plan need to be updated?

Options:

A.

Scope and impact of change to stakeholders

B.

Project scope and stakeholders goals

C.

Engagement level of key stakeholders

D.

Stakeholders expectations for the project

Buy Now
Questions 36

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

Buy Now
Questions 37

Which of the following projects is a quality candidate for adaptive approaches?

Options:

A.

Installing new computers across offices

B.

Retrofitting an old building

C.

Upgrading an information system

D.

Designing a new suspension bridge

Buy Now
Questions 38

In an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager ensure that the team is comfortable with changes?

Options:

A.

Having control over the planning and delivery of the products without delegating decisions

B.

Giving access to information to the team and frequent team checkpoints

C.

Selecting different team members to take the project manager role during reviews with stakeholders

D.

Asking the control change board to approve changes before notifying the team

Buy Now
Questions 39

Which of the following is example of communication tools and techniques?

Options:

A.

Conflict management

B.

Stakeholder mapping

C.

Advertising plan

D.

Developing team

Buy Now
Questions 40

The project manager released a report. A few stakeholders express the view that the report should not have been directed to them.

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

Options:

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

Buy Now
Questions 41

Which tool uses an algorithm based on historical data to calculate cost?

Options:

A.

Three-point estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Relative estimating

Buy Now
Questions 42

While executing a building construction project, the supplier may delay the delivery and increase the cost of materials due to new safety regulations. The team has identified an option to absorb the cost by reducing the lag for some of the tasks.

What should the team do to ensure that this situation is managed?

Options:

A.

Implement Appropriate Response

B.

Plan Project Risk Management

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Buy Now
Questions 43

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager 's sphere of influence on a project?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Sponsors

C.

Directors

D.

Resource managers

Buy Now
Questions 44

Which kind of communication should the project manager use when creating reports for government bodies?

Options:

A.

Hierarchical

B.

External

C.

Formal

D.

Official

Buy Now
Questions 45

What describes the relationship between projects, programs, and portfolios?

Options:

A.

Portfolio management focuses on doing the "right" programs and projects.

B.

Project management focuses on doing the "right" programs and portfolios.

C.

Program management focuses on doing the "specific" portfolios and projects.

D.

Portfolio management focuses on doing the ''specific’’ programs and projects.

Buy Now
Questions 46

Which of the following techniques should a project manager of a large project with virtual teams use to enhance collaboration?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Physical resources assignment

C.

Team building activities

D.

Integrated Change Control

Buy Now
Questions 47

A project manager is seeking assistance from the business analyst for an IT project. What assistance can the business analyst provide?

Options:

A.

Elicit product requirements.

B.

Verify product functionality.

C.

Manage the project schedule.

D.

Allocate project resources.

Buy Now
Questions 48

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

Buy Now
Questions 49

A key project team member complains about being left out of the communication loop. In order to ensure that each key member is involved, who should review the business analysis communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Business analyst, project manager, and sponsor

B.

Business analyst, project manager, and stakeholders

C.

Business analyst and project manager

D.

Only the business analyst

Buy Now
Questions 50

A project manager is performing the procurement management process with three vendors The project team is reviewing the requests for proposal (RFPs).

What type of procurement document is the RFP?

Options:

A.

Bid document

B.

Statement of work (SOW)

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Independent cost estimate

Buy Now
Questions 51

Which organizational process asset can make an impact on the outcome of a project?

Options:

A.

Political climate

B.

Leadership style

C.

Financial data repository

D.

Organizational structure types

Buy Now
Questions 52

Which of the following tasks is related to the perform qualitative risk analysis process?

Options:

A.

Identify the project risks and assign a probability of occurrence

B.

Perform a sensitivity analysis to determine which risk has the most potential for impacting the project

C.

Analyze the effect of identified project risks as numerical data

D.

Prioritize each project risk and assign the probability of occurrence and impact for each one

Buy Now
Questions 53

When paying a consultation fee to a technical expert, what type of contract is often used'?

Options:

A.

Time and materials (T&M)

B.

Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)

C.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Buy Now
Questions 54

What process group includes processes performed to complete work to satisfy the project requirements defined in the project management plan?

Options:

A.

InitiatingB Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

Buy Now
Questions 55

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Buy Now
Questions 56

Match each Project Cost Management process with its appropriate keyword

CAPM Question 56

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 57

What key component of the project charter defines the conditions for dosing a project phase?

Options:

A.

Purpose

B.

Approval requirements

C.

Exit criteria

D.

High-level requirements

Buy Now
Questions 58

A project manager needs to request outside support......manager need to create

A project manager needs to request outside support for a statement ot work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?

Options:

A.

Time and material (T&M)

B.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

C.

Fixed price

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Buy Now
Questions 59

A project team for a marketing company is acquiring leaflets and materials from competitors. The team is working on a project to release new products, and they are trying to get ideas on how to most efficiently market these new products.

Which activity is the project team conducting?

Options:

A.

Project execution

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Project initiation

Buy Now
Questions 60

A project is composed of three phases that are implemented in parallel without affecting one another. The baselines for each individual phase have been approved by the major stakeholders, and there is a minimal ability to vary the baselines during the execution of the project.

Which methodology did the project manager adopt?

Options:

A.

Incremental approach

B.

Predictive approach

C.

Hybrid approach

D.

Iterative approach

Buy Now
Questions 61

A new project was approved by the project management office (PMO), and the scope of the project is to build a new detachable classroom. What delivery method and artifacts should the project manager use to deliver this project?

Options:

A.

Linear project management; project schedule and project backlog

B.

Adaptive project management; project schedule and work breakdown structure

C.

Linear project management; project schedule and work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Adaptive project management; project schedule and project backlog

Buy Now
Questions 62

A new project manager is assigned to a high-visibility project. The project manager starts with the requirements analysis process. Who should the project manager onboard to assist with the requirements traceability matrix or analysis?

Options:

A.

Systems analyst

B.

Business analyst

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Technical consultant

Buy Now
Questions 63

Select two key benefits of the Control Procurements process

Options:

A.

Enables the development of make-or-buy decisions

B.

Ensures that contract performance meets the terms of the legal agreement

C.

Guarantees that legal agreements influence vendor selection

D.

Assures that legal agreements guide contract closings

E.

Helps determine whether a certain type of contract should be used

Buy Now
Questions 64

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is

curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

Options:

A.

An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.

B.

An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria that is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.

C.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor, a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process

D.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

Buy Now
Questions 65

How is program success measured?

Options:

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-effectiveness, and customer satisfaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

Buy Now
Questions 66

When presenting a product roadmap to an adaptive team, which form of communication is the most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Requirements matrix

B.

Presentation slides

C.

Story map

D.

Project management plan

Buy Now
Questions 67

Which project documents can determine the budget?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents, contracts, requirements documentation, and basis of estimates

B.

Basis of estimates, cost estimates, project schedule, and risk register

C.

Business case, project charter, statement of work, and cost estimates

D.

Scope baseline, resource management plan, activity list, and assumption log

Buy Now
Questions 68

For a 10-day project, activity B ' s duration is three days, and activity C’s duration is two days What is the duration of activity A if activities B and C are performed in parallel?

Options:

A.

3 days

B.

5 days

C.

7 daysD .10 days

Buy Now
Questions 69

Company A’s accountant sends notification about a change in the company’s tax classification.

What would a project have to be initiated?

Options:

A.

To change business and technological strategies

B.

To improve processes and services

C.

To meet regulatory and legal requirements

D.

To satisfy stakeholder requests

Buy Now
Questions 70

Why is required in a project?

Options:

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so failoring is not requires.

Buy Now
Questions 71

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

Buy Now
Questions 72

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Buy Now
Questions 73

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

Buy Now
Questions 74

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Buy Now
Questions 75

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

Buy Now
Questions 76

What is the main purpose of Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

Buy Now
Questions 77

What communications management process enables an effective information flow among project stakeholders'?

Options:

A.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Buy Now
Questions 78

What important qualities should project managers possess for strategic and business management?

Options:

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Knowledge and competencies needed to guide and motivate a team

C.

Skills and behaviors needed to help an organization achieve its goals

D.

Expertise in the industry and organization that deliver better outcomes

Buy Now
Questions 79

What is the goal of the control quality process in project management?

Options:

A.

To monitor the activities of the project and ensure Iho work is being executed as it was planned

B.

To obtain a quality cerlific ation for the product of the project service or result

C.

To assess performance and ensure the project product, service, or result meets the customer's expectations

D.

To test the product service, or result to determine if the errors observed are within the defined quality margins

Buy Now
Questions 80

Which is an example of an internal enterprise environmental factor?

Options:

A.

Market Share brand recognition

B.

Factory location

C.

Local government regulation

D.

Industry research

Buy Now
Questions 81

An executive sponsor wants to be briefed on how the product will change over time. Which document should the business analyst use to prepare their presentation?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product requirements

Buy Now
Questions 82

Which of these is a hybrid contract?

Options:

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

D.

Time and material (T&M)

Buy Now
Questions 83

A project manager is updating their CV or resume and realizes that they need to improve skills related to expertise in the industry and organizational knowledge. Which dimension of PMI’s Talent Triangle best relates to this need to improve?

Options:

A.

Strategic and business management skills

B.

Leadership skills

C.

Technical project management

D.

Organizational management

Buy Now
Questions 84

A project manager is reviewing a past project with similar.... team choosing for tailoring?

A project manager is reviewing a past project with similar requirements to the project that is currently chartered. The project team decided to adopt quality tools, techniques and templates recommended at the organizational level after reviewing the lessons learned of the previous project What specific area of quality, is the project team choosing for tailoring?

Options:

A.

Policy compliance and auditing

B.

Standards and compliance

C.

Review of lessons learned

D.

Test and inspection planning

Buy Now
Questions 85

Which three processes are generally included in risk management? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Monitor Risk Costs

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

E.

Estimate Risk Activity Resources

Buy Now
Questions 86

A Project manager received a change request from a key stakeholder, documented it reviewed it with the team, and then presented if for decision. What was project manager trying to do?

Options:

A.

Develop consensus among stakeholders

B.

Get the budget approved for change

C.

Make sure management is aware of the change

D.

Get approval from the change control board

Buy Now
Questions 87

In the Control Quality process, which tools and techniques techniques can be applied to verify deliverable?

Options:

A.

Statistical sampling, inspection, and meetings

B.

Lessons learned register, control charts, and product evaluation

C.

Checklists, retrospective documents, and approved change requests

D.

Black box tests, questionnaires and surveys, and lessons learned register

Buy Now
Questions 88

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

Options:

A.

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

Buy Now
Questions 89

A project's business analyst has to understand the newly acquired technology and the impact it will have on the organization. Which tool should be used to understand the new technology?

Options:

A.

Must have, should have, could have, won't have (MoSCoW)

B.

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (SWOT)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed (RACI)

Buy Now
Questions 90

A project sponsor has asked the project manager to determine how soon the project can be completed. Which of the following methods can a project manager use to find this information?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Decomposition

C.

Critical path method (CPM)

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Buy Now
Questions 91

What earned value (EV) measure indicates the cost efficiency of the work completed?

Options:

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

To-complete performance index (TCPI)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

Buy Now
Questions 92

A project team member identifies a possibility......the team member's idea?

A project team member identifies a possibility of increasing project performance by adopting an innovative approach to a proposed solution. This also will save resources for the company and increase stakeholder satisfaction.

How should the project manager evaluate the team member's idea?

Options:

A.

Treat the idea using risk management processes, to handle it in a controlled and managed way.

B.

Perform an experiment simulation to confirm idea results, to make sure the cost to implement is worthwhile.

C.

Do a feasibility analysis study to confirm if an investment to explore a solution will add value.

D.

Submit the idea as a change request to the change control board to ensure that all interests are met.

Buy Now
Questions 93

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

Buy Now
Questions 94

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

Options:

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Buy Now
Questions 95

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

Options:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

Buy Now
Questions 96

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

Buy Now
Questions 97

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Project management processes

D.

Project scope management plan

Buy Now
Questions 98

What is the total float of the critical path?

Options:

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

Buy Now
Questions 99

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

Buy Now
Questions 100

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

Buy Now
Questions 101

What is project management?

Options:

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Buy Now
Questions 102

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Buy Now
Questions 103

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Buy Now
Questions 104

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

Options:

A.

divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B.

repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.

C.

linked to specific phases or subprojects.

D.

integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

Buy Now
Questions 105

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

Buy Now
Questions 106

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Options:

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

Buy Now
Questions 107

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

Buy Now
Questions 108

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

Buy Now
Questions 109

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

Options:

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

Buy Now
Questions 110

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

Buy Now
Questions 111

Types of internal failure costs include:

Options:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Buy Now
Questions 112

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

Buy Now
Questions 113

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables.

B.

Validated deliverables.

C.

Acceptance criteria.

D.

Activity resource requirements.

Buy Now
Questions 114

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Buy Now
Questions 115

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

Options:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

Buy Now
Questions 116

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

Buy Now
Questions 117

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

Buy Now
Questions 118

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

Buy Now
Questions 119

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Buy Now
Questions 120

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

Buy Now
Questions 121

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

Options:

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

Buy Now
Questions 122

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

Buy Now
Questions 123

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

Buy Now
Questions 124

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

Buy Now
Questions 125

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

Buy Now
Questions 126

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

Buy Now
Questions 127

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

Buy Now
Questions 128

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 129

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

Buy Now
Questions 130

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

Buy Now
Questions 131

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

Options:

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

Buy Now
Questions 132

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Buy Now
Questions 133

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

Buy Now
Questions 134

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

Options:

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

Buy Now
Questions 135

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

Options:

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

Buy Now
Questions 136

Most experienced project managers know that:

Options:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

Buy Now
Questions 137

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.

Project selection methods

Buy Now
Questions 138

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

Buy Now
Questions 139

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

Options:

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Specification

D.

Grade

Buy Now
Questions 140

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

Buy Now
Questions 141

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

Buy Now
Questions 142

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Buy Now
Questions 143

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Buy Now
Questions 144

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Options:

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

Buy Now
Questions 145

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

Buy Now
Questions 146

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Buy Now
Questions 147

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

Buy Now
Questions 148

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

Buy Now
Questions 149

A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

Options:

A.

There is a cost underrun.

B.

There is a cost overrun.

C.

The project may not meet the deadline.

D.

The project is 20 days behind schedule.

Buy Now
Questions 150

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Options:

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

Buy Now
Questions 151

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.

Historical information,

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Corporate knowledge base.

Buy Now
Questions 152

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Buy Now
Questions 153

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

Options:

A.

1

B.

0.4

C.

0.5

D.

0.8

Buy Now
Questions 154

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

Buy Now
Questions 155

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

Options:

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

Buy Now
Questions 156

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

Buy Now
Questions 157

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

Buy Now
Questions 158

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

Buy Now
Questions 159

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

Buy Now
Questions 160

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

Options:

A.

Feedback analysis

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Stakeholder management plan

Buy Now
Questions 161

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Buy Now
Questions 162

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

Buy Now
Questions 163

Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?

Options:

A.

Project team

B.

Focus group

C.

Change control board

D.

Project stakeholders

Buy Now
Questions 164

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

Buy Now
Questions 165

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Buy Now
Questions 166

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

Buy Now
Questions 167

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Buy Now
Questions 168

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

Buy Now
Questions 169

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Buy Now
Questions 170

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Buy Now
Questions 171

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Buy Now
Questions 172

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

Buy Now
Questions 173

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Buy Now
Questions 174

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

Buy Now
Questions 175

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Buy Now
Questions 176

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Buy Now
Questions 177

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Buy Now
Questions 178

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Buy Now
Questions 179

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Options:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

Buy Now
Questions 180

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

Options:

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

Buy Now
Questions 181

Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Buy Now
Questions 182

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

Options:

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Buy Now
Questions 183

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Buy Now
Questions 184

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Buy Now
Questions 185

An output of Control Schedule is:

Options:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

Buy Now
Questions 186

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Buy Now
Questions 187

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

Options:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

Buy Now
Questions 188

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Buy Now
Questions 189

A regression line is used to estimate:

Options:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

Buy Now
Questions 190

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

Buy Now
Questions 191

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

Buy Now
Questions 192

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

Options:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

Buy Now
Questions 193

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

Buy Now
Questions 194

An adaptive project team is meeting for the first time and deciding on the project management approach. After defining the project artifacts, one team member argues that the events are missing. The scrum master coaches the team to complete the planning.

Which two of the following elements should be included? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Daily scrum

B.

Increments

C.

Sprint retrospective

D.

Sprint backlog

E.

Product backlog

Buy Now
Questions 195

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

Options:

A.

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.

Contain the standard activity list.

C.

Document and support the project change requests.

D.

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

Buy Now
Questions 196

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

Options:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

Buy Now
Questions 197

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

Buy Now
Questions 198

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

Buy Now
Questions 199

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

Buy Now
Questions 200

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

Buy Now
Questions 201

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

Buy Now
Questions 202

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

Buy Now
Questions 203

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Buy Now
Questions 204

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

Options:

A.

Business case.

B.

Activity list.

C.

Project management plan.

D.

Cost forecast.

Buy Now
Questions 205

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

Options:

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

Buy Now
Questions 206

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

Options:

A.

Before the Define Activities process

B.

During the Define Activities process

C.

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.

During the Sequence Activities process

Buy Now
Questions 207

An element of the project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

Buy Now
Questions 208

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

Options:

A.

Product analysis.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

Document analysis,

D.

Decomposition.

Buy Now
Questions 209

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Buy Now
Questions 210

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Plan

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Buy Now
Questions 211

In a project, total float measures the:

Options:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

Buy Now
Questions 212

Typical outcomes of a project include:

Options:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

Buy Now
Questions 213

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

Options:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

Buy Now
Questions 214

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:

Options:

A.

Benchmarking.

B.

Context diagrams.

C.

Brainstorming.

D.

Prototyping.

Buy Now
Questions 215

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

Buy Now
Questions 216

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

Buy Now
Questions 217

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

Buy Now
Questions 218

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

Buy Now
Questions 219

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

Options:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

Buy Now
Questions 220

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

Options:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

Buy Now
Questions 221

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Buy Now
Questions 222

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

Buy Now
Questions 223

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

Buy Now
Questions 224

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Modeling techniques

C.

Resource optimization

D.

Meetings

Buy Now
Questions 225

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

Options:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

Buy Now
Questions 226

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management.

B.

Plan Risk Responses.

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Buy Now
Questions 227

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Options:

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

Buy Now
Questions 228

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

Options:

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

Buy Now
Questions 229

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

Options:

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

Buy Now
Questions 230

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

Buy Now
Questions 231

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

Buy Now
Questions 232

When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process.

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Define Scope

D.

Collect Requirements

Buy Now
Questions 233

The project manager is explaining to others the essential business aspects of the project. To which skill category does this ability belong?

Options:

A.

Technical project management skills

B.

Time management skills

C.

Strategic and business management skills

D.

Leadership skills

Buy Now
Questions 234

Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?

Options:

A.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS

D.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep budget under control

Buy Now
Questions 235

What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

Options:

A.

Project complexity

B.

Procurement criteria

C.

Communication technology

D.

Knowledge management

Buy Now
Questions 236

Analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints for project execution and monitoring and controlling relates to which process?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Define Activities

Buy Now
Questions 237

What type of change requires the submission of a change request?

Options:

A.

Changes in assigned resources

B.

Changes in a technical solution

C.

Changes in status reporting

D.

Changes in the project's scope

Buy Now
Questions 238

In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

Options:

A.

Only during the initiation and Closing phases

B.

During the initiation and Planning phases

C.

During each iteration as the project progresses

D.

Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting

Buy Now
Questions 239

Which type of project life cycle uses an iteration plan?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

Predictive

C.

Waterfall

D.

Product

Buy Now
Questions 240

Given the following information.

Activity A takes one week.

Activity B takes three weeks.

Activity C takes two weeks.

Activity D takes five weeks.

Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B.

Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A.

Activity D follows Activity C.

How long will it take to complete the project?

Options:

A.

Eleven weeks

B.

Nine weeks

C.

Eight weeks

D.

Ten weeks

Buy Now
Questions 241

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

Buy Now
Questions 242

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Buy Now
Questions 243

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project management office?

Options:

A.

It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.

B.

It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.

C.

The project management office can execute administrative tasks.

D.

The project management office can coordinate projects.

Buy Now
Questions 244

Which is the tool or technique that is used to obtain the list of activities from the work packages?

Options:

A.

Data analysis

B.

Leads and lags

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Decomposition

Buy Now
Questions 245

The project manager is creating the communications management plan Which group of inputs Is required to begin?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register

B.

Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan

C.

Project charter, project management plan, and project documents

D.

Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan

Buy Now
Questions 246

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

CAPM Question 246

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Buy Now
Questions 247

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Buy Now
Questions 248

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM Question 248

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

Options:

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

Buy Now
Questions 249

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

Options:

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

Buy Now
Questions 250

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Buy Now
Questions 251

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

CAPM Question 251

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

Buy Now
Questions 252

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM Question 252

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.

3

B.

5

C.

7

D.

9

Buy Now
Questions 253

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

Buy Now
Questions 254

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

Options:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

Buy Now
Questions 255

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

Buy Now
Questions 256

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Buy Now
Questions 257

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

Buy Now
Questions 258

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

Buy Now
Questions 259

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

Buy Now
Questions 260

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

Buy Now
Questions 261

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

Options:

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

Buy Now
Questions 262

What purpose does the hierarchical locus of stakeholder communications serve?

Options:

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the tocus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media, and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

Buy Now
Questions 263

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

Options:

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

Buy Now
Questions 264

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Buy Now
Questions 265

If you are using an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you engaged in?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality Management

B.

Control Quality

C.

Risk Management

D.

Plan Scope Management

Buy Now
Questions 266

Which components of the project management plan are inputs used when creating the stakeholder engagement plan?

Options:

A.

Risk, resource, and communications management plans

B.

Scope, quality, and resource management plans

C.

Procurement, integration, and risk management plans

D.

Communications, schedule, and cost management plans

Buy Now
Questions 267

How can a project manager maintain the engagement of stakeholders in a project with a high degree of change?

Options:

A.

Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plans

B.

Send all project documents to stakeholders each time they are modified

C.

Schedule monthly meetings with the stakeholders, including team members

D.

Engage only with the project sponsors

Buy Now
Questions 268

What charts and (igures should project managers use during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Tornado diagrams and influence diagrams

B.

Detectability bubble charts and probability and impact matrix

C.

Hierarchical charts and burndown charts

D.

Flow charts and responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) charts

Buy Now
Questions 269

In which organizational structure would the project manager have most authority?

Options:

A.

Matrix-weak

B.

Matrix-balanced

C.

Matrix-strong

D.

Organic or simple

Buy Now
Questions 270

A project manager called for a team meeting...................method did the team use

A project manager called for a team meeting to estimate the project effort. During the session, the team went on to identify all the deliverables and analyzed the related work. Each of the analyzed deliverables were estimated. Which estimation method did the team use?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Expert Judgement

C.

Decomposition

D.

Data analysis

Buy Now
Questions 271

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

Buy Now
Questions 272

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Options:

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

Buy Now
Questions 273

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

Buy Now
Questions 274

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

Options:

A.

a Knowledge Area

B.

a Process Group

C.

program management

D.

portfolio management

Buy Now
Questions 275

A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:

Options:

A.

Resource calendar.

B.

Project organization chart.

C.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).

Buy Now
Questions 276

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

Options:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Buy Now
Questions 277

Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Project reports

B.

Issue log

C.

Lessons learned documentation

D.

Work performance information

Buy Now
Questions 278

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

Options:

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

Buy Now
Questions 279

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

Options:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

Buy Now
Questions 280

The project manager is working in an agile/adaptive environment. The project manager is considering different approaches for applying Project Integration Management in this environment. How can the project manager ensure that this will work for the project?

Options:

A.

Take control of all decisions and product planning.

B.

Build a team that can respond to changes within a collaborative, decision-making environment.

C.

Promote a team with a narrow specialization within a hierarchical environment.

D.

Delegate project decisions to the product owner and sponsor.

Buy Now
Questions 281

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

Buy Now
Questions 282

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

Options:

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

Buy Now
Questions 283

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Buy Now
Questions 284

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Buy Now
Questions 285

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Buy Now
Questions 286

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

Options:

A.

performance measurement criteria

B.

source selection criteria

C.

product acceptance criteria

D.

phase exit criteria

Buy Now
Questions 287

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

Buy Now
Questions 288

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

Buy Now
Questions 289

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

Buy Now
Questions 290

Success is measured by benefits realization for a:

Options:

A.

strategic plan

B.

project

C.

portfolio

D.

program

Buy Now
Questions 291

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

Options:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

Buy Now
Questions 292

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

Buy Now
Questions 293

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Buy Now
Questions 294

A project team conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of them is working on. What type of communication is this?

Options:

A.

Informal

B.

Unofficial

C.

Formal

D.

Hierarchical

Buy Now
Questions 295

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

Buy Now
Questions 296

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

CAPM Question 296

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Buy Now
Questions 297

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Buy Now
Questions 298

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

Buy Now
Questions 299

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

Options:

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 300

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

Buy Now
Questions 301

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

Options:

A.

appetite

B.

tolerance

C.

threshold

D.

management

Buy Now
Questions 302

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

Buy Now
Questions 303

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM Question 303

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

Buy Now
Questions 304

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

Options:

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

Buy Now
Questions 305

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

Options:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 306

Which element does a project charter contain?

Options:

A.

Management reserves

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Stakeholder list

D.

Stakeholder register

Buy Now
Questions 307

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Buy Now
Questions 308

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Initiating

Buy Now
Questions 309

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Buy Now
Questions 310

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Buy Now
Questions 311

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

Options:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Buy Now
Questions 312

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

Buy Now
Questions 313

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Buy Now
Questions 314

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

Buy Now
Questions 315

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

Buy Now
Questions 316

Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?

Options:

A.

When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization

B.

When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit

C.

When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule

D.

When they are from the same unit of the organization

Buy Now
Questions 317

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Buy Now
Questions 318

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

Options:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

Buy Now
Questions 319

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

Buy Now
Questions 320

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Buy Now
Questions 321

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

Buy Now
Questions 322

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

Buy Now
Questions 323

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Buy Now
Questions 324

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

Buy Now
Questions 325

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Buy Now
Questions 326

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

Buy Now
Questions 327

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Plan Quality

D.

Report Performance

Buy Now
Questions 328

Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?

Options:

A.

Develop Team

B.

Manage Team

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Resource Management

Buy Now
Questions 329

Due to today's competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?

Options:

A.

Planning and risk management skills

B.

Communication and time management skills

C.

Business intelligence and leadership skills

D.

Strategic and business management skills

Buy Now
Questions 330

A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:

Options:

A.

create the project management plan.

B.

identify the project objectives.

C.

review and update stakeholder engagement.

D.

create the schedule baseline.

Buy Now
Questions 331

Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?

Options:

A.

Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer's satisfaction.

B.

Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.

C.

Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.

D.

Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.

Buy Now
Questions 332

What is the role of project management in terms of organizational strategy?

Options:

A.

Project management aligns initiatives, prioritizes work, and provides resources.

B.

Project management provides the strategic vision (or an organization lo achieve its goals.

C.

Project management enables the achievement of organizational goals and objectives.

D.

Project management harmonizes components and controls interdependencies to realize specific benefits.

Buy Now
Questions 333

What communication methods would a project manager use for overall effective project communication?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication, push communication, interpersonal communication

B.

Interactive communication, push communication, pull communication

C.

Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication

D.

Pull communication, interactive communication, interpersonal communication

Buy Now
Questions 334

While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

Options:

A.

ends.

B.

begins.

C.

delays.

D.

deviates.

Buy Now
Questions 335

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

Options:

A.

Accuracy

B.

Precision

C.

Grade

D.

Quality

Buy Now
Questions 336

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

Options:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

Buy Now
Questions 337

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

Buy Now
Questions 338

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

Options:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

Buy Now
Questions 339

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Inspection

C.

Project analysis

D.

Document analysis

Buy Now
Questions 340

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

Options:

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Policies and procedures

C.

Project files from previous projects

D.

Lessons learned from previous projects

Buy Now
Questions 341

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

Buy Now
Questions 342

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Buy Now
Questions 343

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

Options:

A.

Schedule network analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Alternative analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Buy Now
Questions 344

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

Options:

A.

project staff assignments

B.

project tea m acquisition

C.

managing conflicting interests

D.

communication methods

Buy Now
Questions 345

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

CAPM Question 345

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

0

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Buy Now
Questions 346

The chart below is an example of a:

CAPM Question 346

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

RACI chart

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

Buy Now
Questions 347

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Buy Now
Questions 348

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Buy Now
Questions 349

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

Buy Now
Questions 350

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

Buy Now
Questions 351

Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

Options:

A.

Portfolio

B.

Process

C.

Project

D.

Program

Buy Now
Questions 352

With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?

Options:

A.

Suppliers

B.

Customers

C.

Governing bodies

D.

Project team

Buy Now
Questions 353

What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?

Options:

A.

Earned value management (EVM)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC)

C.

Earned value analysis (EVA)

D.

Budget at completion (BAG)

Buy Now
Questions 354

Why is tailoring required in a project?

Options:

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required.

Buy Now
Questions 355

Which tools and techniques will a project manager use to develop a project charter?

Options:

A.

Project manager experience, expert judgment, scope statement, and meetings

B.

Lessons learned database. Interpersonal and team skills, cost baseline, and meetings

C.

Expert judgment, data gathering. scope statement, schedule baseline, and meetings

D.

Expert judgment, data gathering. interpersonal and team skills, and meetings

Buy Now
Questions 356

Match the project manager's sphere of influence with the associated primary role.

CAPM Question 356

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 357

Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?

Options:

A.

Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF>

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF>

Buy Now
Questions 358

Which of the following is an example of an organizational system that is arranged based on the job being performed?

Options:

A.

Simple

B.

Multi-divisional

C.

Functional

D.

Project-oriented

Buy Now
Questions 359

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

Buy Now
Questions 360

What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Interpersonal skills

C.

Team agreements

D.

Communication skills

Buy Now
Questions 361

In order to detect quality Issues earlier in the project life cycle, the project manager is using an agile/adaptive environment. What is the main difference between waterfall and agile/adaptive development approaches tor Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

The frequency of the quality and review steps

B.

The number of deliverables

C.

The duration of each of the quality and review steps

D.

The tools used in the quality and review steps

Buy Now
Questions 362

What conflict resolution technique involves delaying the issue or letting others resolve it?

Options:

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Collaborate/problem solve

C.

Withdraw/avoid

D.

Force/direct

Buy Now
Questions 363

The primary purpose of the stakeholder register is to:

Options:

A.

Record stakeholder issues on the project

B.

Maintain lessons learned earlier in the project

C.

Maintain a list of all project stakeholders

D.

Document change requests and their status

Buy Now
Questions 364

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?

Options:

A.

Legal restrictions

B.

Financial considerations

C.

Commercial database

D.

Geographic distribution of facilities

Buy Now
Questions 365

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Buy Now
Questions 366

Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources

B.

Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system

C.

Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements

D.

Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge

Buy Now
Questions 367

What is a tailoring consideration in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Validation and control

B.

Benefits

C.

Technology support

D.

Physical location

Buy Now
Questions 368

What is one of the main purposes of the project chatter?

Options:

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definition of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

Buy Now
Questions 369

What is the project manager's responsibility in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring that requirements-related work is clarified in the project management plan

B.

Investing sufficient effort in acquiring, managing, motivating, and empowering the project team

C.

Combining the results in all other knowledge areas, and overseeing the project as a whole

D.

Developing a strategy to ensure effective stakeholder communication

Buy Now
Questions 370

What important leadership quality/qualities should project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals

C.

Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes

D.

Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance

Buy Now
Questions 371

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

Buy Now
Questions 372

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

Options:

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

Buy Now
Questions 373

A project manager is identifying the risks of a project. Which technique should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Representations of uncertainty

B.

Prompt lists

C.

Audits

D.

Risk categorization

Buy Now
Questions 374

A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex.

Which strategies should the project manager take into account for risk management in this environment?

Options:

A.

Occasionally identify, evaluate, and classify risks.

B.

Review requirements and cross-functional project teams.

C.

Include contingency reserves and update the project management plan frequently.

D.

Frequently review incremental work products and update the requirements for proper prioritization.

Buy Now
Questions 375

Which of the following are processes associated with Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.

Develop Costs. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget. Control Costs

B.

Develop Budget, Determine Budget, Determine Risks, Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs. Determine Budget. Control Costs

D.

Plan Budget Management. Determine Budget, Create Cost Accounts. Control Costs

Buy Now
Questions 376

What is an output of the plan resource management process

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Risk register

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Stakeholder register

Buy Now
Questions 377

Which of the following sets are inputs to the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Project charter and requirements documentation

B.

Project charter and business documents

C.

Project charter and stakeholder requirements

D.

Business documents and requirements traceability matrix

Buy Now
Questions 378

The diagram below is an example of a:

CAPM Question 378

Options:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Buy Now
Questions 379

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

Buy Now
Questions 380

What tern describes an intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component?

Options:

A.

Preventive action

B.

Corrective action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Updates

Buy Now
Questions 381

What statement describes the function or responsibility of a project manager?

Options:

A.

Works with the sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues that may impact the team

B.

Seeks ways to develop relationships that assist the team in achieving organizational goals and objectives

C.

Ensures that the project's business operations are efficient

D.

Provides management oversight for a project’s functional or business units

Buy Now
Questions 382

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

Buy Now
Questions 383

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

Options:

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

Buy Now
Questions 384

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

Options:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

Buy Now
Questions 385

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

Buy Now
Questions 386

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

Options:

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

Buy Now
Questions 387

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

Options:

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

Buy Now
Questions 388

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Buy Now
Questions 389

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

Buy Now
Questions 390

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

Buy Now
Questions 391

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Options:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

Buy Now
Exam Code: CAPM
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)
Last Update: Nov 30, 2025
Questions: 1305

PDF + Testing Engine

$134.99

Testing Engine

$99.99

PDF (Q&A)

$84.99