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CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

Options:

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

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Questions 5

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

Options:

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

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Questions 6

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 7

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

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Questions 8

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

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Questions 9

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

Options:

A.

The project management plan.

B.

The stakeholder register.

C.

Procurement documents.

D.

Stakeholder analysis.

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Questions 10

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Forecasting methods

C.

Earned value management

D.

Analytical techniques

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Questions 11

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Risk register

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Questions 12

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

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Questions 13

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 14

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Questions 15

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 16

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

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Questions 17

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Questions 18

Which format can a network diagram take?

Options:

A.

Flow chart

B.

Control chart

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Cause-and-effect diagram

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Questions 19

Which of the following is an example of an organizational system that is arranged based on the job being performed?

Options:

A.

Simple

B.

Multi-divisional

C.

Functional

D.

Project-oriented

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Questions 20

A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase. What is the project manager's key responsibility during this phase?

Options:

A.

Defining the scope of the project

B.

Building a collaborative environment

C.

Creating a detailed project management plan

D.

Directing the delivery of the project

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Questions 21

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

Options:

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

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Questions 22

Which are inputs for the Plan Quality Management process?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics, project documents, and financial performance

B.

Quality management plan, project documents, and quality metrics

C.

Project management plan, project documents, and organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan, quality metrics. and project documents

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Questions 23

In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

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Questions 24

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

Options:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

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Questions 25

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 26

An output of the Validate Scope process is:

Options:

A.

A requirements traceability matrix.

B.

The scope management plan.

C.

Work performance reports.

D.

Change requests.

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Questions 27

The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Planning

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Questions 28

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

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Questions 29

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

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Questions 30

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

Options:

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 31

An organizational structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques is referred to as:

Options:

A.

Project Management Information System

B.

Project Management System

C.

Project Management Office

D.

Project Management Knowledge Area

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Questions 32

A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?

Options:

A.

The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.

B.

Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.

C.

The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.

D.

Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.

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Questions 33

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

Options:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

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Questions 34

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

Options:

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 35

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

CAPM Question 35

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

Options:

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

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Questions 36

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

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Questions 37

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Options:

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

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Questions 38

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

Options:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

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Questions 39

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Options:

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

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Questions 40

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

Options:

A.

appetite

B.

tolerance

C.

threshold

D.

management

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Questions 41

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

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Questions 42

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 43

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM Question 43

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.

5

B.

9

C.

12

D.

14

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Questions 44

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

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Questions 45

Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks

B.

Avoid all kind of risks

C.

Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks

D.

Identify positive and negative risks

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Questions 46

Match the influence with its corresponding category of influence.

Options:

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Questions 47

Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.

CAPM Question 47

Options:

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Questions 48

What are the inputs of the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

B.

Project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C.

Cost baseline, enterprise environmental factors, benefits management plan, and organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, basis of estimates, and organizational process assets

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Questions 49

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 50

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 51

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

Options:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

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Questions 52

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

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Questions 53

Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Resource leveling

D.

Schedule network analysis

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Questions 54

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

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Questions 55

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

Options:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

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Questions 56

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

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Questions 57

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

Options:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

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Questions 58

Project management processes ensure the:

Options:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

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Questions 59

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 60

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

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Questions 61

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Control Risks

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 62

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

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Questions 63

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Inspection

C.

Project analysis

D.

Document analysis

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Questions 64

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

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Questions 65

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

Options:

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

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Questions 66

What is the difference between verified and accepted deliverables?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness; verified deliverables have been formally approved by the customer or authorized stakeholder.

B.

Accepted deliverables have been inspected by the quality team; verified deliverables are outputs from the Validate Scope process.

C.

Accepted deliverables have been formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder; verified deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness.

D.

Accepted deliverables have been formally accepted by the project manager; verified deliverables are the outputs from the Control Quality process.

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Questions 67

What is one of the main purposes of the project chatter?

Options:

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definition of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

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Questions 68

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

CAPM Question 68

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

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Questions 69

Which item is a cost of conformance?

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

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Questions 70

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

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Questions 71

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

Options:

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

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Questions 72

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

Options:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

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Questions 73

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

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Questions 74

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 75

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

Options:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

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Questions 76

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

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Questions 77

Which of these is true of project integration management?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

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Questions 78

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

Options:

A.

Involvement is needed only during project initiation.

B.

Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.

C.

They should be continuously engaged.

D.

They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.

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Questions 79

A project manager is working on an estimate. The project team is estimating each work package and then finding the total of all the work packages.

Which technique is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

Three-point estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Data analysis

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Questions 80

Which type of project life cycle uses an iteration plan?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

Predictive

C.

Waterfall

D.

Product

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Questions 81

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

Options:

A.

Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.

B.

Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.

C.

Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.

D.

Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.

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Questions 82

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

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Questions 83

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

Options:

A.

Accuracy

B.

Precision

C.

Grade

D.

Quality

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Questions 84

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

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Questions 85

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

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Questions 86

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

Options:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Questions 87

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Questions 88

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

CAPM Question 88

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

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Questions 89

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Questions 90

During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 91

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 92

Which element does a project charter contain?

Options:

A.

Management reserves

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Stakeholder list

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 93

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

Options:

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

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Questions 94

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

Options:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

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Questions 95

Which conflict resolution technique produces the most lasting results?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth/accommodate

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

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Questions 96

Which statement is related to the project manager's sphere of influence at the organizational level?

Options:

A.

A project manager interacts with other project managers to detect common interests and impacts between their projects.

B.

A project manager facilitates communication between the suppliers and contractors on the project.

C.

A project manager considers the current industry trends and evaluates how they can impact or be applied to the project.

D.

A project manager may inform other professionals about the value of project management.

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Questions 97

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?

Options:

A.

Legal restrictions

B.

Financial considerations

C.

Commercial database

D.

Geographic distribution of facilities

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Questions 98

Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?

Options:

A.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS

D.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep budget under control

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Questions 99

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?

Options:

A.

The project and the organization

B.

The organization and the industry

C.

The subject matter experts and the project

D.

The change control board and the organization

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Questions 100

Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Communications process?

Options:

A.

Project communications, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates

B.

Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

C.

Communications management plan, project management plan updates, work performance report, and project documents update

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

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Questions 101

Given the following information.

Activity A takes one week.

Activity B takes three weeks.

Activity C takes two weeks.

Activity D takes five weeks.

Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B.

Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A.

Activity D follows Activity C.

How long will it take to complete the project?

Options:

A.

Eleven weeks

B.

Nine weeks

C.

Eight weeks

D.

Ten weeks

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Questions 102

It you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?

Options:

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

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Questions 103

Which role does the project manager resemble best?

Options:

A.

Orchestra conductor

B.

Facilities supervisor

C.

Functional manager

D.

School principal

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Questions 104

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 105

Deciding the phases of a project life cycle would be considered a part of which of these knowledge areas?

Options:

A.

Project Schedule Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Resource Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Questions 106

A functional manager is delegating a key project to a project team without a project manager. Which communication method will be most effective?

Options:

A.

Interactive

B.

Push

C.

Verbal

D.

Oral

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Questions 107

Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

Options:

A.

Requirements keep changing.

B.

An artifact must be produced.

C.

A tool or technique is required.

D.

Each project is unique.

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Questions 108

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM Question 108

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

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Questions 109

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

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Questions 110

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

Options:

A.

0.03

B.

0.06

C.

0.10

D.

0.50

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Questions 111

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

Options:

A.

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.

Contain the standard activity list.

C.

Document and support the project change requests.

D.

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

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Questions 112

When project requirements are documented in user stones then prioritized and refined just prior to construction, which approach is being used for scheduling?

Options:

A.

Iterative scheduling with backlog

B.

On-demand scheduling

C.

Life cycle scheduling with backlog

D.

Defining Iterative activities

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Questions 113

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM Question 113

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

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Questions 114

To which knowledge area does the Collect Requirements process belong?

Options:

A.

Quality Management

B.

Scope Management

C.

Cost Management

D.

Integration Management

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Questions 115

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

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Questions 116

What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?

Options:

A.

Earned value management (EVM)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC)

C.

Earned value analysis (EVA)

D.

Budget at completion (BAG)

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Questions 117

Which two processes should be used to influence costs in the early stages of a project?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs and Determine Budget

B.

Plan Cost Management and Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Control Quality and Control Costs

D.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Plan Communications Management

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Questions 118

Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information

B.

Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology

D.

Glossary of common terminology, constraints denved from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

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Questions 119

What type of meeting is held to discuss prioritized product backlog items?

Options:

A.

Status

B.

Daily standup

C.

Iteration planning

D.

Release planning

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Questions 120

A firm contracted an event management company to conduct the annual sales day event. The agreement states that the event management company will charge the firm for the actuals and receive 8% of the total cost. What type of contract Is this?

Options:

A.

Time and material (T8M)

B.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

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Questions 121

A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place. What technique was followed?

Options:

A.

Collective decision making

B.

Multicriteria decision analysis

C.

Mind mapping

D.

Affinity diagram

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Questions 122

Match the project manager's sphere of influence with the associated primary role.

Options:

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Questions 123

A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change. Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?

Options:

A.

Discussing with management

B.

Escalating to the sponsors

C.

Engaging regularly with stakeholders

D.

Engaging only with decision makers

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Questions 124

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

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Questions 125

Which of the following is used to classify stakeholders based on their assessments of power, urgency, and legitimacy?

Options:

A.

Power interest grid

B.

Stakeholder cube

C.

Salience model

D.

Directions of influence

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Questions 126

In which type of organization does the project manager have the maximum influence

Options:

A.

Centralized

B.

Composite

C.

Simple Organic

D.

Multi-divisional

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Questions 127

What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Interpersonal skills

C.

Team agreements

D.

Communication skills

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Questions 128

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them.

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and Impact for every risk in the risk register.

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project.

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project's time and cost objectives.

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Questions 129

Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?

Options:

A.

Identity the different aspects of me team to manage and control physical resources efficiently.

B.

Procure equipment, materials, facilities, and infrastructure for the project.

C.

Train the team members in project skill sets.

D.

Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member.

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Questions 130

A project team is discussing an upcoming planned product launch of a highly visible technologically advanced artificial intelligence tool. The team is debating the aspect of iterative and hybrid approaches. Which aspect of tailoring would this best represent?

Options:

A.

Life cycle approaches

B.

Resource availability

C.

Project dimensions

D.

Technology support

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Questions 131

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 132

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Options:

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 133

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

Options:

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

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Questions 134

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements.

B.

Close Procurements.

C.

Administer Procurements,

D.

Plan Procurements.

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Questions 135

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

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Questions 136

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Questions 137

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

Options:

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

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Questions 138

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 139

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

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Questions 140

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

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Questions 141

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

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Questions 142

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 143

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

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Questions 144

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Questions 145

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

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Questions 146

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

Options:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

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Questions 147

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

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Questions 148

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 149

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Updated project charter

C.

Approved change request

D.

Multicriteria decision analysis

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Questions 150

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

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Questions 151

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Questions 152

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 153

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

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Questions 154

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Questions 155

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 156

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 157

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

Options:

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

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Questions 158

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

Options:

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 159

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

Options:

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

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Questions 160

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

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Questions 161

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

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Questions 162

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

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Questions 163

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

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Questions 164

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

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Questions 165

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

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Questions 166

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

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Questions 167

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

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Questions 168

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

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Questions 169

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

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Questions 170

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

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Questions 171

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

Options:

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

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Questions 172

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

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Questions 173

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

Options:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

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Questions 174

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

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Questions 175

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

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Questions 176

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

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Questions 177

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

Options:

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

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Questions 178

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

Options:

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

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Questions 179

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

Options:

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 180

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

Options:

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

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Questions 181

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Accept

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Questions 182

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 183

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 184

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

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Questions 185

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control charts

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Histogram

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Questions 186

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Options:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

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Questions 187

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

Options:

A.

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

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Questions 188

What is the total float of the critical path?

Options:

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

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Questions 189

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

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Questions 190

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

Options:

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

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Questions 191

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

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Questions 192

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

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Questions 193

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

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Questions 194

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.

Activity cost estimates.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Procurement documents.

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Questions 195

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

Options:

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

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Questions 196

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 197

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

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Questions 198

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

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Questions 199

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

Options:

A.

Transference

B.

Avoidance

C.

Exploring

D.

Mitigation

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Questions 200

The stakeholder register is an output of:

Options:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

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Questions 201

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Administer Procurements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 202

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

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Questions 203

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Options:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Questions 204

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

Options:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

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Questions 205

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

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Questions 206

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

Options:

A.

negotiation

B.

organizational theory

C.

meeting

D.

networking

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Questions 207

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

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Questions 208

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 209

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 210

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

Options:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

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Questions 211

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

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Questions 212

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 213

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

Options:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

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Questions 214

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D.

Project Scope Management

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Questions 215

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

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Questions 216

When is a project finished?

Options:

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

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Questions 217

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

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Questions 218

An output of Control Schedule is:

Options:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

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Questions 219

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

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Questions 220

Most experienced project managers know that:

Options:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

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Questions 221

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.

Project selection methods

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Questions 222

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Options:

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

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Questions 223

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

Options:

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

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Questions 224

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

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Questions 225

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 226

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

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Questions 227

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 228

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

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Questions 229

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

Options:

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 230

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

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Questions 231

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

Options:

A.

Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.

B.

Conduct risk management activities for a project.

C.

Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.

D.

Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.

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Questions 232

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

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Questions 233

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Questions 234

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

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Questions 235

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

Options:

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

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Questions 236

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

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Questions 237

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

Options:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Questions 238

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

Options:

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

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Questions 239

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 240

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

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Questions 241

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

Options:

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

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Questions 242

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

Options:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

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Questions 243

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Questions 244

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

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Questions 245

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Questions 246

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

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Questions 247

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

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Questions 248

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Questions 249

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Corrective action

B.

Defect repair

C.

Preventative action

D.

Probable action

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Questions 250

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

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Questions 251

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

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Questions 252

An input to the Control Quality process is:

Options:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

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Questions 253

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

Options:

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

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Questions 254

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

Options:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Questions 255

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM Question 255

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

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Questions 256

An adaptive team's velocity dropped significantly in the last sprint due to the planned vacation of two team members. The project sponsor wants to know how many more sprints it would take to complete the remaining project.

How should the project manager calculate the anticipated velocity for future sprints?

Options:

A.

Use the velocity of the last sprint, as it is the most recent one to share.

B.

Add a 30% buffer to the velocity to calculate future velocity.

C.

Calculate the average of the past five sprints to predict future velocity.

D.

Change the adaptive tool that the team is using to calculate velocity.

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Questions 257

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager. What should the project manager do to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

B.

Apply emotional intelligence (EI) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team's issues.

C.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

D.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

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Questions 258

What is an emerging practice in stakeholder engagement?

Options:

A.

Confirming that all identified stakeholders are engaged and actually affected by the work

B.

Assuring that team leadership is primarily involved in stakeholder engagement

C.

Ensuring that stakeholders do not change after stakeholder identification

D.

Ensuring that stakeholders most affected by the work are involved as collaborative team partners

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Questions 259

Which of the following are outputs of define scope process in project scope management

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project Scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

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Questions 260

Which of the following is the key construction to controlling the costs and achieving the schedule in projects with high variability?

Options:

A.

Learn methods

B.

collaborative teams

C.

Generalizing specialists

D.

Knowledge sharing

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Questions 261

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is

curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

Options:

A.

An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.

B.

An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria that is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.

C.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor, a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process

D.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

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Questions 262

During a virtual kick-off session, the project sponsor highlights the significance of the project to the company. What message should be conveyed to the team in this meeting?

Options:

A.

Bonuses based on accomplishment criteria

B.

New working contract with more benefits

C.

Promotion opportunities with this project

D.

Assignment of key roles and responsibilities

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Questions 263

A construction project is underway with three months left to complete the building. A public authority responsible for approving the final stage is stalling the project. What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Discuss this with the department head and arrive at an acceptable solution to expedite the approval process.

B.

Report the issue to major stakeholders and explore possible corrective actions along with legal assistance.

C.

Mitigate the risk by requesting an alternative public authority to participate in the approval process.

D.

Visit the public authority headquarters and formally petition them, demanding an explanation about the delay.

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Questions 264

Which enterprise environmental factors should be considered when creating a new procurement contract?

Options:

A.

Supply chains

B.

Trial engagements

C.

Lessons learned register

D.

Local laws and regulalk

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Questions 265

What is the common factor among portfolios, programs, and projects, regardless of the hierarchy within an organization?

Options:

A.

Resources and stakeholders

B.

Operations and performance

C.

Subsidiary projects

D.

Project manager

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Questions 266

What is the recommended approach for handling risk in a high-variability environment?

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Iterative

D.

Incremental

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Questions 267

What is a tailoring consideration for Project Scope Management'?

Options:

A.

Life cycle approach

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Validation and control

D.

Project complexity

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Questions 268

A project team identifies defects that will require a modification to a tool's functionality. What process should the project manager follow to obtain stakeholder buy-in?

Options:

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 269

A key project team member complains about being left out of the communication loop. In order to ensure that each key member is involved, who should review the business analysis communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Business analyst, project manager, and sponsor

B.

Business analyst, project manager, and stakeholders

C.

Business analyst and project manager

D.

Only the business analyst

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Questions 270

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

Options:

A.

Product release plan

B.

Project release plan

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product management plan

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Questions 271

What does ’verified’ in verified deliverable represent?

Options:

A.

The correctness of a deliverable

B.

The completeness of a deliverable

C.

The deliverable requirements

D.

The customer acceptance of a deliverable

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Questions 272

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

Options:

A.

Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks

B.

Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios

C.

Addition Duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted

D.

Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

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Questions 273

When a dynamic systems development method (DSDM) practitioner receives a new high-priority feature request, what should the practitioner do first?

Options:

A.

Develop the feature as a parallel work package.

B.

Shorten the current work period and begin the new work.

C.

Ask a dedicated team member to complete it immediately.

D.

Prioritize it in the requirements list for the next work period.

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Questions 274

Which process is engaged when a project team member makes a change to project budget with project manager's approval

Options:

A.

Manage Cost Plan

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Questions 275

The project team is inspecting the completed project scope to determine if the requirements have been satisfied. What is the result of this inspection?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

planning packages

C.

Verified deliverables

D.

Work packages

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Questions 276

When planning communications management what input identifies key stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project schedule

C.

Project charter

D.

Work performance reports

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Questions 277

Construction of a building has stopped due to a supplier's failure to deliver concrete. The project schedule is behind by three months.

What should the project manager do to overcome this problem and put the project back on track?

Options:

A.

Follow the risk response plan and allocate resources, if needed, to overcome the issue.

B.

Consult the legal department and subject matter experts (SMEs) regarding what to do to avoid failure.

C.

Extend the time of product delivery and use management reserve to cover any losses.

D.

Accept any penalties that might occur and continue working as initially planned.

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Questions 278

The project manager released a report A few stakeholders express the view that report should

have been directed to them

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

Options:

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

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Questions 279

A project's aim, from a business perspective, is moving an organization from one level to another to achieve a specific objective. What is the goal for a project's successful completion?

Options:

A.

Current state

B.

Future state

C.

Budgeted state

D.

Planned state

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Questions 280

A project manager has a project schedule baseline. How can the critical path be determined from the finalized schedule?

Options:

A.

Identify the crashed project schedule to find the shortest duration to complete the project.

B.

Identify the longest activity path in the schedule with the shortest possible duration.

C.

Identify the tasks with float duration, which do not impact the duration of the project.

D.

Identify the path through the schedule with leveled resources and the shortest duration.

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Questions 281

A business analyst needs to ensure the project team understands the most critical roles and responsibilities within the requirements change process. Which responsibility is the most important?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the change

B.

Approving the change

C.

Reviewing the change

D.

Discussing the change

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Questions 282

How does planning for prevention costs assist in meeting stakeholder needs and expectations, while still providing required performance and reliability?

Options:

A.

It details product or service failures experienced by the customer

B.

It clarifies the costs associated with assessing the quality of the product or service

C.

It accounts for costs used to avoid poor quality in the product or service

D.

It communicates product or service failures discovered by the project team

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Questions 283

Which method should be used to elicit a cross-functional requirement?

Options:

A.

Focus groups

B.

Prototyping

C.

Facilitated workshops

D.

Interviews

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Questions 284

Which of the following is used as input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 285

Which of the following is example of communication tools and techniques?

Options:

A.

Conflict management

B.

Stakeholder mapping

C.

Advertising plan

D.

Developing team

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Questions 286

What statement describes the function or responsibility of a project manager?

Options:

A.

Works with the sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues that may impact the team

B.

Seeks ways to develop relationships that assist the team in achieving organizational goals and objectives

C.

Ensures that the project's business operations are efficient

D.

Provides management oversight for a project’s functional or business units

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Questions 287

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

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Questions 288

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

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Questions 289

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

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Questions 290

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Questions 291

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Questions 292

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

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Questions 293

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Questions 294

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 295

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

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Questions 296

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

Options:

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

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Questions 297

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Questions 298

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

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Questions 299

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Questions 300

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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Questions 301

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

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Questions 302

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Questions 303

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Questions 304

What is project management?

Options:

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Questions 305

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

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Questions 306

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

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Questions 307

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

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Questions 308

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 309

A project lifecycle is defined as:

Options:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

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Questions 310

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

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Questions 311

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

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Questions 312

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 313

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

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Questions 314

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

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Questions 315

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

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Questions 316

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

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Questions 317

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

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Questions 318

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Questions 319

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

Options:

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

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Questions 320

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

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Questions 321

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Questions 322

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Options:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

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Questions 323

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

Options:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

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Questions 324

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Questions 325

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

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Questions 326

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

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Questions 327

Resource calendars are included in the:

Options:

A.

staffing management plan.

B.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.

project communications plan.

D.

project charter.

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Questions 328

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

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Questions 329

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

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Questions 330

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

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Questions 331

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Questions 332

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

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Questions 333

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

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Questions 334

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

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Questions 335

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Options:

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Questions 336

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

Options:

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 337

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

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Questions 338

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

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Questions 339

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

Options:

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

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Questions 340

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

Options:

A.

10.

B.

12.

C.

20.

D.

24.

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Questions 341

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

Options:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

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Questions 342

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

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Questions 343

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

Options:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

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Questions 344

The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements.

B.

Conduct Procurements.

C.

Estimate Activity Durations.

D.

Estimate Activity Resources.

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Questions 345

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

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Questions 346

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

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Questions 347

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Modeling techniques

C.

Resource optimization

D.

Meetings

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Questions 348

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

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Questions 349

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Plan

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 350

In a project, total float measures the:

Options:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

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Questions 351

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

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Questions 352

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Efficient

B.

Effective

C.

Push

D.

Pull

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Questions 353

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

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Questions 354

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

Options:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

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Questions 355

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

Options:

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

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Questions 356

Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 357

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Options:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

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Questions 358

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

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Questions 359

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 360

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

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Questions 361

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

Options:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

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Questions 362

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

Options:

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

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Questions 363

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 364

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Questions 365

Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 366

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 367

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 368

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors updates.

C.

Project staff assignments.

D.

Organizational charts and position descriptions.

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Questions 369

A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Performance reporting.

C.

Bidder conferences.

D.

Reserve analysis.

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Questions 370

An adaptive team is working on a mobile banking application. The team conducted their sprint demo, which included 12 stories that were completed. This was the last sprint before the product was to be launched in the beta phase. One of the attendees from marketing noticed that a requested enhancement to share on social media was still in the product backlog.

Why was the product still determined to be ready for delivery?

Options:

A.

The development team ran out of time and did not pull the social media story from the backlog.

B.

The development team completed all of the stories identified by the product owner as having the highest customer value.

C.

The sprint demo went smoothly and the team did not find any open issues.

D.

The social media story is a marketing priority and less important than other priorities.

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Questions 371

An adaptive project manager is migrating the company's new website. The project manager must work with the team to invest full capacity on this project because it is the company's top-ranked project in the portfolio. In order to increase throughput and provide consistent delivery, the project manager needs to assign members who are currently involved with other projects.

How should the project manager assign the team members to this project?

Options:

A.

Task switching

B.

Multitasking

C.

Prediction

D.

Full allocation

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Questions 372

What document gathers all of the lessons learned at the end of a phase or project

Options:

A.

Lessons learned register

B.

Lessons learned list

C.

Lessons learned project asset

D.

Lessons learned repository

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Questions 373

Which behavior relates to team leadership'?

Options:

A.

Centering on systems and structure

B.

Providing guidance using the power of relationships

C.

Accepting the status quo

D.

Focusing on operational issues and problem solving

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Questions 374

A project manager oversees a project in an adaptive environment. After each iteration, which type of meeting should the project manager conduct?

Options:

A.

Iteration planning

B.

Retrospective

C.

Backlog refinement review

D.

Daily standup

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Questions 375

During a project team meeting, one of the team members suggested a product functionality that would immensely benefit the customer. The project manager documents the request for later analysis.

What is this an example of?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the traceability matrix

B.

Managing the scope

C.

Maintaining the product backlog

D.

Managing the cost benefit

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Questions 376

Which scenario is most desirable during the execution phase of a project?

Options:

A.

Apply and use quality controls to ensure expectations are met throughout the project

B.

Communicate quality failures to the sponsor for feedback

C.

Conduct all quality inspections at the end of the project

D.

Only correct quality issues found if it will keep you within the budget

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Questions 377

Which additional considerations should the project manager make when managing risks in an agile/adaptive project?

Options:

A.

Add more risk categories

B.

Identify, analyze, and manage risk during each iteration of the project

C.

Add new values to the probability and impact matrix

D.

Increase the reserves because of the high variability environment

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Questions 378

What do top project managers do to maximize their sphere of influence within a project team?

Options:

A.

Consider management standards, economic factors, and sustainability strategies

B.

Contribute knowledge and expertise to others within the profession

C.

C Address political and strategic issues that impact the project's viability or quality

D.

D Demonstrate superior relationship and communication skills while displaying a positive attitude

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Questions 379

Which project life cycle follows a plan reviewed and approved by the stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Predictive

B.

Adaptive

C.

Iterative

D.

Incremental

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Questions 380

Which tool should a project manager use to calculate cost variance for a project?

Options:

A.

Contingency analysis

B.

Review lessons learned from similar projects

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Actual cost

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Questions 381

Which statement describes the Monitor Communications process?

Options:

A.

Evaluates the differences between the communications management plan and the reality of communications in a project

B.

Ensures that the information needs of the project and the stakeholders are met

C.

Ensures that project information is created, collected, and distributed in a timely and appropriate manner

D.

Develops an appropriate approach and plan for communication of project activities

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Questions 382

The project manager is leading a construction project that has been ongoing for eight years. The project manager needs to calculate the correct static payback period and consults the cash flow statement of the construction project investment.

What equation should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Static payback period = 6 + 1300 / 500 = 6.6

B.

Static payback period = 3 + 1200 / 500 = 5.4

C.

Static payback period = 5 + 700 / 500 = 5.4

D.

Static payback period = 5 + 200 / 500 = 5.4

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Questions 383

What does the creation of a project management plan accomplish?

Options:

A.

Defines the basis of all project work and how it will be performed

B.

Acknowledges the existence of a project and defines its high-level information

C.

Authorizes the project manager to apply organizational resources to project activities

D.

Provides the project manager with organizational standards, policies, processes, and procedures

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Questions 384

A project team is working on relocating offices to another building and providing new furniture. The new furniture was purchased from an international vendor. The price was negotiated in a foreign currency, and due to changes in the exchange rate, the cost has increased by 10%. There is no contingency in the project budget. What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Escalate this issue to the project management office (PMO).

B.

Escalate this issue to the chief financial officer (CFO).

C.

Escalate this issue to the procurement team.

D.

Escalate this issue to the project sponsor.

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Questions 385

A project manager is seeking assistance from the business analyst for an IT project. What assistance can the business analyst provide?

Options:

A.

Elicit product requirements.

B.

Verify product functionality.

C.

Manage the project schedule.

D.

Allocate project resources.

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Questions 386

What is the purpose of an adaptive standup meeting?

Options:

A.

To review what work has been completed, remove impediments, and calculate velocity

B.

To ask the team what work has been completed, calculate velocity, and determine what work will be completed

C.

To ask the team what work has been completed, ask what work will be completed, and report impediments

D.

To update the burndown chart, calculate velocity, and report impediments

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Questions 387

Which characteristic defines the Delphi technique of group decision-making?

Options:

A.

The participants must use their expertise to determine the best option.

B.

The decision is based on eliminating the options that are too expensive.

C.

The decision is based on a predefined algorithm and the highest score.

D.

The participants must create a list of options, rank them, and then vote.

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Questions 388

What Knowledge Area must be led by the project manager and cannot be delegated to other specialists?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Schedule Management

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Questions 389

What process group includes processes performed to complete work to satisfy the project requirements defined in the project management plan?

Options:

A.

InitiatingB Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

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Questions 390

A project team member is discussing a new project with their manager. The project is very similar to a project that was delivered last year and the scope is very well documented.

Which of the following project delivery approaches should be recommended?

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Extreme

D.

Traditional

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Questions 391

Which of the following activities are included as part of a project manager's responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Direct, control, and focus on structure.

B.

Problem solve , achieve the bottom line, and focus on success.

C.

Control, maintain project status, and develop.

D.

Inspire, engage, and build relationships with people.

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Questions 392

An adaptive team is performing the kickoff meeting and planning the project management approach. After defining project events, one team member argues that the artifacts are missing. The project manager coaches the team to complete the planning.

Which two of the following items should be included in the planning? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Daily scrum

B.

Sprint backlog

C.

Sprint review

D.

Increments

E.

Sprint retrospective

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Questions 393

A project manager has joined the sponsor to verify the last deliverable of the project. The sponsor is measuring and examining the deliverable to determine whether it meets the requirements and product acceptance criteria. Which activity is being performed?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Prototyping

C.

Decision making

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 394

Which of the following lists represents trends and emerging practices in Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Integrated risk management, non-event risks, and project resilience

B.

Representation of uncertainty, strategies for opportunities, and strategies for overall project risk

C.

Dormancy, proximity, and propinquity

D.

Simulation, sensitivity analysis, and decision tree analysis

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Questions 395

Which of the following factors within a company cloud trigger the creation of a project?

Options:

A.

Need to lower production costs to remain competitive

B.

Need to submit a warranty claim for a faulty product

C.

Need to submit the monthly production report

D.

Need to define next month's production goals

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Exam Code: CAPM
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)
Last Update: Mar 1, 2026
Questions: 1317

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