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200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

SCP

D.

Telnet

E.

SSH

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Questions 5

An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure IEEE 802.1p

B.

configure IEEE 802.1q

C.

configure ISL

D.

configure DSCP

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200-301 Report Card

Questions 6

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

Options:

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

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Questions 7

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

Options:

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

B.

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

C.

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

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Questions 8

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

Options:

A.

CPU ACL

B.

TACACS

C.

Flex ACL

D.

RADIUS

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Questions 9

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 9

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

Options:

A.

adminadmin123

B.

default

C.

testing1234

D.

cisco123

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Questions 10

Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.

200-301 Question 10

Options:

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Questions 11

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

B.

using a non-default native VLAN

C.

802.1x

D.

DHCP snooping

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Questions 12

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

200-301 Question 12

Options:

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Questions 13

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

Options:

A.

TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

B.

TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

C.

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

D.

TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

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Questions 14

By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

Options:

A.

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.

it uses a reference bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

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Questions 15

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

Options:

A.

PortFast

B.

BPDU guard

C.

UplinkFast

D.

BackboneFast

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Questions 16

What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

Options:

A.

Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

B.

FlexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC

C.

FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured

D.

Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

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Questions 17

What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port?

Options:

A.

All four pairs of the cable are used

B.

It detects the device is a powered device

C.

The default level is used for the access point

D.

Power policing is enabled at the same time

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Questions 18

When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?

Options:

A.

Flush all MAC addresses from the WLC

B.

Re-associate the WLC with the access point.

C.

Re-enable the WLC interfaces

D.

Reboot the WLC

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Questions 19

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

200-301 Question 19

Options:

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Questions 20

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 20

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

Options:

A.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100

B.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

C.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121

D.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3

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Questions 21

PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN Which switching concept does this describe?

Options:

A.

MAC address aging

B.

MAC address table

C.

frame flooding

D.

spanning-tree protocol

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Questions 22

Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?

Options:

A.

applies 802.1x authentication

B.

uses TKIP

C.

employs PKI to identify access points

D.

protects against brute force attacks

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Questions 23

Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?

Options:

A.

To simplify the process of maintaining a consistent configuration state across all devices

B.

To centralize device information storage

C.

To implement centralized user account management

D.

To deploy the management plane separately from the rest of the network

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Questions 24

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 24

A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?

Options:

A.

Device(config)# netconf lock-time 500

B.

Device(config)# netconf max-message 1000

C.

Device(config)# no netconf ssh acl 1

D.

Device(config)# netconf max-sessions 100

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Questions 25

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 25

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

200-301 Question 25

Options:

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Questions 26

What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

data center network policy control

B.

console server that permits secure access to all network devices

C.

IP address pool distribution scheduler

D.

software-defined controller for automation of devices and services

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Questions 27

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 27

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.128 10.10.10.6R2(config)#lp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.5

C.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.6R2(config)#tp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.5

D.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

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Questions 28

Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?

Options:

A.

config sessions maxsessions 0

B.

config sessions timeout 0

C.

config serial timeout 0

D.

config serial timeout 9600

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Questions 29

Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.

200-301 Question 29

Options:

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Questions 30

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

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Questions 31

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

200-301 Question 31

B)

200-301 Question 31

C)

200-301 Question 31

D)

200-301 Question 31

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 32

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 32

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.

R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0 0.0 192.168.0.2

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Questions 33

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

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Questions 34

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

Options:

A.

access ports

B.

Layer 3 main Interfaces

C.

Layer 3 suninterfaces

D.

trunk ports

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Questions 35

An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

200-301 Question 35

Options:

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Questions 36

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 36

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

Options:

A.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

B.

It discards the packets.

C.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

D.

It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

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Questions 37

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 37

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

Options:

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

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Questions 38

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

Options:

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Helto packets

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Questions 39

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 39

Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131

B.

ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224

D.

ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

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Questions 40

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 40

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

Options:

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

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Questions 41

What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a three-tier architecture model?

Options:

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

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Questions 42

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

Options:

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

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Questions 43

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.

used without tracking or registration

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Questions 44

Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?

Options:

A.

conserve public IPv4 addressing

B.

preserve public IPv6 address space

C.

reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses

D.

support the NAT protocol

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Questions 45

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 45

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

Options:

A.

192.168.16.0/21

B.

192.168.16.0/24

C.

192.168 26.0/26

D.

192.168.16.0/27

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Questions 46

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

Options:

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

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Questions 47

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 47

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

Options:

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

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Questions 48

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

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Questions 49

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.

to support load balancing via static routing

E.

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

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Questions 50

200-301 Question 50

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.

200-301 Question 50

Options:

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Questions 51

Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

Options:

A.

0050.0c05.ad81

B.

0007.c061.bc01

C.

0000.5E00.0101

D.

0500.3976.6401

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Questions 52

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?

Options:

A.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685

B.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary

C.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440

D.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

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Questions 53

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Options:

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

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Questions 54

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

Options:

A.

wireless connections provide the sole access method to services

B.

onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components

C.

services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

D.

physical workstations are configured to share resources

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Questions 55

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

200-301 Question 55

Options:

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Questions 56

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.

It supports protocol discovery

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Questions 57

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

Options:

A.

magic links

B.

one-time passwords

C.

digital certificates

D.

90-day renewal policies

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Questions 58

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

200-301 Question 58

Options:

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Questions 59

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

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Questions 60

A corporate office uses four floors in a building

• Floor 1 has 24 users

• Floor 2 has 29 users

• Floor 3 has 28 users

•Floor 4 has 22 users

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

B.

192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

C.

192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

D.

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

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Questions 61

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

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Questions 62

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Options:

A.

WEP

B.

RC4

C.

AES

D.

TKIP

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Questions 63

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in " mode active "

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

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Questions 64

Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows UDP 69 through the firewall?

Options:

A.

FTP

B.

TFTP

C.

REST API

D.

SMTP

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Questions 65

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

200-301 Question 65

Options:

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Questions 66

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

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Questions 67

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

B.

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

C.

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

D.

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

E.

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

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Questions 68

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

200-301 Question 68

200-301 Question 68

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 69

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

Options:

A.

Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B.

Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C.

Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me comeback timer to 10

D.

Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the comeback timer to 10

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Questions 70

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 70

Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A. B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which nary addresss must be advertised in OSPF?

Options:

A.

10.1.40.0/25

B.

10.1.40.0/24

C.

10.1.40.0/23

D.

10.1.41.0/25

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Questions 71

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 71

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

C.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

D.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

E.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

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Questions 72

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

Options:

A.

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.

B.

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

C.

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

D.

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

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Questions 73

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 73

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

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Questions 74

What is a syslog facility?

Options:

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a network management system to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

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Questions 75

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 75

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Options:

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

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Questions 76

What are two capabilities provided by VRRP within a LAN network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

dynamic routing updates

B.

bandwidth optimization

C.

granular QoS

D.

load sharing

E.

redundancy

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Questions 77

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.

ip helper-address

B.

ip address dhcp

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp relay

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Questions 78

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

Options:

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

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Questions 79

What are two characteristics of a public cloud implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B.

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C.

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D.

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E.

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

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Questions 80

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 80

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

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Questions 81

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 81

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

Options:

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

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Questions 82

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

configure the helto and dead timers to match on both sides

B.

configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process

C.

configure the same router ID on both routing processes

D.

Configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides.

E.

configure both interfaces with the same area ID

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Questions 83

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

Options:

A.

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B.

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C.

to pass traffic between different networks

D.

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

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Questions 84

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

200-301 Question 84

Options:

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Questions 85

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 85

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

200-301 Question 85

Options:

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Questions 86

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

200-301 Question 86

Options:

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Questions 87

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )

Options:

A.

CAR

B.

CBWFQ

C.

PQ

D.

PBR

E.

FRTS

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Questions 88

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

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Questions 89

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

Options:

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

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Questions 90

Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency, such as VoIP?

Options:

A.

TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery, and UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets.

B.

TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet that is received, and UDP operates without acknowledgments.

C.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order.

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Questions 91

Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

Options:

A.

policy plane

B.

management plane

C.

control plane

D.

data plane

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Questions 92

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

Options:

A.

The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval.

B.

The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.

C.

The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted.

D.

The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

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Questions 93

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

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Questions 94

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

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Questions 95

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport nonegotiate

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Questions 96

What must be considered when using 802:11 a?

Options:

A.

It is compatible with 802.11b and 802.11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

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Questions 97

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

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Questions 98

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 98

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

Options:

A.

84

B.

110

C.

128

D.

192

E.

193

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Questions 99

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

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Questions 100

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

Options:

A.

200

B.

301

C.

404

D.

500

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Questions 101

200-301 Question 101

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

Options:

A.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

B.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

C.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

D.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

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Questions 102

Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

Options:

A.

when a gateway protocol is required that support more than two Cisco devices for redundancy

B.

to enable normal operations to continue after a member failure without requiring a change In a host ARP cache

C.

to ensure that the spanning-tree forwarding path to the gateway is loop-free

D.

to interoperate normally with all vendors and provide additional security features for Cisco devices

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Questions 103

After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of each enterprise router with a local username and password. Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?

200-301 Question 103

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 104

What is the purpose of the URI string in a REST request?

Options:

A.

To identify a resource on a target server.

B.

To transport data or payload to a remote resource.

C.

To specify the way in which a remote resource is modified.

D.

To respond with the data content encoding for a request.

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Questions 105

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 105

When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192.1, which interface or next hop address does it use to route the packet?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0.0/0

B.

10.56.0.1

C.

10.56.128.19

D.

Vlan57

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Questions 106

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 106

The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?

Options:

A.

192.168.1.226

B.

192.168.1.100

C.

192.168.1.254

D.

192.168.1.253

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Questions 107

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

B.

large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

C.

small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

D.

small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

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Questions 108

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

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Questions 109

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 109

For security reasons, automatic Neighbor Discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all Neighbor Discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit Neighbor Discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

200-301 Question 109

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 110

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

200-301 Question 110

Options:

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Questions 111

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

200-301 Question 111

Options:

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Questions 112

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

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Questions 113

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

Options:

A.

The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

B.

The source MAC address of the frame is unknown

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same

D.

The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

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Questions 114

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 114

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

200-301 Question 114

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 115

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 115

An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?

A)

200-301 Question 115

B)

200-301 Question 115

C)

200-301 Question 115

D)

200-301 Question 115

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 116

A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024

B.

transport input all

C.

crypto key generate rsa usage-keys

D.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048

E.

transport Input ssh

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Questions 117

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

Options:

A.

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog messageage is generated

B.

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

C.

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

D.

Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

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Questions 118

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 118

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

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Questions 119

How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?

Options:

A.

ratio of signal-to-noise rating supplied by the wirelesss device

B.

signals from other Wi-Fi networks that interfere with the local signal

C.

measured difference between the desired Wi-Fi signal and an interfering Wi-Fi signal

D.

any interference that is not Wi-Fi traffic that degrades the desired signal

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Questions 120

What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?

Options:

A.

services traffic according to its class

B.

identifies the type of traffic that will receive a particular treatment

C.

writes the class identifier of a packet to a dedicated field in the packet header

D.

configures traffic-matching rules on network devices

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Questions 121

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 121

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

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Questions 122

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 122

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Questions 123

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Options:

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

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Questions 124

An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?

Options:

A.

crypto key Import rsa pem

B.

crypto key pubkey-chain rsa

C.

crypto key generate rsa

D.

crypto key zeroize rsa

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Questions 125

What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?

Options:

A.

1000BASE-ZX is supported on links up to 1000km, and 1000BASE-LX/LH operates over links up to 70 km.

B.

1000BASE-LX/LH interoperates with multimode and single-mode fiber, and 10008ASE-ZX needs a conditioning patch cable with a multimode.

C.

1000BASE-LX/LH is supported on links up to 10km, and 1000BASE-ZX operates over links up to 70 km

D.

1000BASE-ZX interoperates with dual-rate 100M/1G 10Km SFP over multimode fiber, and 1000BASE-LX/LH supports only single-rate.

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Questions 126

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Options:

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

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Questions 127

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 127

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growith. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

200-301 Question 127

B)

200-301 Question 127

C)

200-301 Question 127

D)

200-301 Question 127

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 128

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 128

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router Fa0/1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

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Questions 129

An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a static IP address on the Wi-Fi network. Which feature must be enabled and configured to prevent connection issues with the printer?

Options:

A.

client exclusion

B.

passive client

C.

DHCP address assignment

D.

static IP tunneling

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Questions 130

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Maintains stateful transaction information

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addressses

D.

Filters based on a transport layer protocol

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Questions 131

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 131

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID.

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Questions 132

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 132

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

200-301 Question 132

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 133

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 133

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

200-301 Question 133

B)

200-301 Question 133

C)

200-301 Question 133

D)

200-301 Question 133

E)

200-301 Question 133

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 134

What is the purpose of an SSID?

Options:

A.

It provides network security

B.

It differentiates traffic entering access points

C.

It identities an individual access point on a WLAN

D.

It identifies a WLAN

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Questions 135

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 135

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

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Questions 136

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The packets fail to match any permit statement

B.

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

C.

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

D.

The ACL is empty

E.

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

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Questions 137

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 137

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

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Questions 138

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

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Questions 139

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

200-301 Question 139

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

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Questions 140

200-301 Question 140

Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

200-301 Question 140

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 141

What is a zero-day exploit?

Options:

A.

It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available

B.

It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.

C.

It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth

D.

It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SQL server.

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Questions 142

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

Options:

A.

hypervisor

B.

router

C.

straight cable

D.

switch

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Questions 143

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

200-301 Question 143

Options:

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Questions 144

Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 144

Options:

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Questions 145

Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?

Options:

A.

shaping

B.

policing

C.

CBWFQ

D.

LLQ

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Questions 146

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 146

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for new hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

200-301 Question 146

B)

200-301 Question 146

C)

200-301 Question 146

D)

200-301 Question 146

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 147

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165.200.225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

200-301 Question 147

B)

200-301 Question 147

C)

200-301 Question 147

D)

200-301 Question 147

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 148

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

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Questions 149

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 Question 149

B)

200-301 Question 149

C)

200-301 Question 149

D)

200-301 Question 149

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 150

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 150

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?

Options:

A.

Select PSK under Authentication Key Management

B.

Select WPA+WPA2 on Layer 2 Security

C.

Select Static-WEP + 802.1X on Layer 2 Security

D.

Select WPA Policy with TKIP Encryption

E.

Select 802.1X from under Authentication Key Management

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Questions 151

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 151

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

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Questions 152

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 152

Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )

200-301 Question 152

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 153

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 153

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

200-301 Question 153

B)

200-301 Question 153

C)

200-301 Question 153

D)

200-301 Question 153

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 154

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

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Questions 155

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 155

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0.4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Questions 156

What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?

Options:

A.

move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses

B.

transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively

C.

forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses

D.

flood broadcast traffic within a VLAN

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Questions 157

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

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Questions 158

200-301 Question 158

Options:

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Questions 159

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

200-301 Question 159

Options:

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Questions 160

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 160

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

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Questions 161

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 161

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

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Questions 162

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 162

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

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Questions 163

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 163

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

200-301 Question 163

B)

200-301 Question 163

C)

200-301 Question 163

D)

200-301 Question 163

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 164

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 164

How many JSON objects are represented?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 165

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 165

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

200-301 Question 165

B)

200-301 Question 165

C)

200-301 Question 165

D)

200-301 Question 165

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 166

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

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Questions 167

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 167

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

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Questions 168

Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wirelesss authentication?

Options:

A.

Client Exclusion and SSH

B.

802.1x and the MAC addresss of the server

C.

Network Access Control State and SSH

D.

AAA Override and the IP addressss of the server

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Questions 169

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation froin the let into the order on the right.

200-301 Question 169

Options:

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Questions 170

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 170

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

B.

This is a root bridge

C.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

D.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

E.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

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Questions 171

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?

Options:

A.

There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

B.

The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.

C.

Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

D.

The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.

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Questions 172

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

OpenStack

C.

OpFlex

D.

REST

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Questions 173

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

Options:

A.

outside global

B.

outside local

C.

inside global

D.

inside local

E.

outside public

F.

inside public

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Questions 174

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

Options:

A.

172.9.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

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Questions 175

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering

B.

runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

C.

handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

D.

runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers

E.

housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

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Questions 176

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

Options:

A.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter

C.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter

D.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter

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Questions 177

What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Layer 2 forwarding

B.

coordinating VTNs

C.

tracking hosts

D.

managing the topology

E.

protecting against DDoS attacks

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Questions 178

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

Options:

A.

lldp timer

B.

lldp holdtime

C.

lldp reinit

D.

lldp tlv-select

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Questions 179

When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

relay agent information

B.

database agent

C.

address pool

D.

smart-relay

E.

manual bindings

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Questions 180

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

load balancer

C.

firewall

D.

LAN controller

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Questions 181

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 181

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

200-301 Question 181

Options:

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Questions 182

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address dhcp

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

C.

ipv6 address autoconfig

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

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Questions 183

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

Options:

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

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Questions 184

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

Options:

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

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Questions 185

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 185

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

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Questions 186

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?

Options:

A.

Facilities communication between the controller and the applications

B.

Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

C.

allows application developers to interact with the network

D.

integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.

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Questions 187

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

Options:

A.

enable secret

B.

service password-encryption

C.

username Cisco password encrypt

D.

enable password

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Questions 188

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

runts

B.

giants

C.

frame

D.

CRC

E.

input errors

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Questions 189

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

B.

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

C.

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

D.

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

E.

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

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Questions 190

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

200-301 Question 190

Options:

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Questions 191

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

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Questions 192

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

Options:

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor ' s bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor ' s port ID

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Questions 193

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

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Questions 194

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 194

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

200-301 Question 194

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 195

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 195

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?

Options:

A.

The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.

B.

The source MAC address is changed.

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

D.

The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.

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Questions 196

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

Options:

A.

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

B.

TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

C.

TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

D.

TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

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Questions 197

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 197

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

200-301 Question 197

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 198

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

200-301 Question 198

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 199

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 199

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

Options:

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

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Questions 200

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

Options:

A.

different nonoverlapping channels

B.

different overlapping channels

C.

one overlapping channel

D.

one nonoverlapping channel

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Questions 201

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

Options:

A.

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.

DHCP Binding

C.

a DHCP Pool

D.

DHCP Snooping

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Questions 202

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

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Questions 203

Topology:

200-301 Question 203

Configure OSPF routing for the network by completing the following tasks:

Task 1

Configure OSPF on R2. Ensure that R1 and R3 become neighbors.

    Use process ID 30.

    Use 10.22.22.22 as the router ID.

    Under the OSPF process, advertise the following specific prefixes:

      10.0.23.0/28

      10.0.12.0/30

Task 2

Ensure that R2 always becomes the designated router (DR).

Options:

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Questions 204

200-301 Question 204

200-301 Question 204

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

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Questions 205

200-301 Question 205

200-301 Question 205

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Questions 206

200-301 Question 206

200-301 Question 206

200-301 Question 206

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

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Questions 207

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

200-301 Question 207200-301 Question 207

Options:

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Questions 208

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 208

Options:

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Questions 209

Topology:

200-301 Question 209

All relevant ports are preconfigured as IEEE 802.1Q trunks.

Task 1

Configure SW-1 port Ethernet0/0 to permit only VLANs 5 and 6.

Task 2

Configure ports Ethernet0/1 on SW-1 and SW-2 to use VLAN 77 as the native VLAN.

Task 3

Configure SW-2 port Ethernet0/2 to permit only VLAN 6.

Task 4

Using LACP, create a Port-Channel between SW-3 and SW-4.

    Combine Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 into a Port-Channel while leaving the existing trunk configurations intact.

    Assign Port-Channel number 34.

    Only SW-3 must initiate LACP negotiations.

Options:

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Questions 210

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

200-301 Question 210200-301 Question 210

Options:

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Questions 211

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 211

Options:

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Questions 212

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 212

Options:

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Questions 213

200-301 Question 213

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

200-301 Question 213

Options:

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Questions 214

200-301 Question 214

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

200-301 Question 214

Options:

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Questions 215

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

200-301 Question 215200-301 Question 215

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Questions 216

A network architect planning a new Wi-Fi network must decide between autonomous, cloud-based, and split MAC architectures. Which two facts should the architect consider? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Lightweight access points are solely used by split MAC architectures.

B.

Cloud-based architectures uniquely use the CAPWAP protocol to communicate between access points and clients.

C.

Each of the three architectures must use WLCs to manage their access points.

D.

All three architectures use access points to manage the wirelesss devices connected to the wired infrastructure.

E.

Autonomous architectures exclusively use tunneling protocols to manage access points remotely.

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Questions 217

What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?

Options:

A.

forwarding mode and provides the lowest-cost path to the root bridge for each VLAN

B.

learning mode and provides the shortest path toward the root bridge handling traffic away froin the LAN

C.

blocking mode and provides an alternate path toward the designated bridge

D.

listening mode and provides an alternate path toward the root bridge

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Questions 218

A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?

A)

200-301 Question 218

B)

200-301 Question 218

C)

200-301 Question 218

D)

200-301 Question 218

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 219

What is a characteristic of an SSID in wirelesss networks?

Options:

A.

provides protection against spyware

B.

eliminates network piggybacking

C.

associates a name to a wirelesss network

D.

allows easy file sharing between endpoints

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Questions 220

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

Options:

A.

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

B.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

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Questions 221

The addresss block 192.168.32.0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks. The engineer must meet these requirements:

Create 8 new subnets

Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet.

A Layer 3 interface is used.

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

Options:

A.

no switchport  ip addresss 192.168.32.30 255.255.255.224

B.

no switchport mode trunk  ip addresss 192.168.32.97 255.255.255.224

C.

no switchport mode access  ip addresss 192.168.32.62 255.255.255.240

D.

switchport  ip addresss 192.168.32.65 255.255.255.240

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Questions 222

A network engineer starts to implement a new wirelesss LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic Interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

Options:

A.

Install the management interface and add the management IP.

B.

Configure high availability and redundancy tor the access points.

C.

Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the management interface.

D.

Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to It.

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Questions 223

Which two statements distinguish authentication from accounting? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Only authentication records the duration of a user ' s connection.

B.

Only authentication supports user-activity audits.

C.

Only authentication provides supporting information for billing users.

D.

Only authentication challenges users for their credentials and returns a response.

E.

Only authentication validates " who you are. "

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Questions 224

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, to which type of OSPF network does this interface belong?

Options:

A.

point-to-point

B.

non-broadcast

C.

point-to-multipoint

D.

broadcast

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Questions 225

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 225

Options:

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Questions 226

200-301 Question 226

Refer to the exhibit. How will router R1 handle packets destined to 192.168.64.22?

Options:

A.

It will use the static route to 10.1.1.1.

B.

It will use the route with the highest AD and highest destination IP.

C.

It will route the packets to 10.1.1.2.

D.

It will drop the packets.

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Questions 227

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

Options:

A.

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

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Questions 228

Which mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Options:

A.

GRE over IPsec

B.

IPsec over ISATAP

C.

GRE

D.

ISATAP

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Questions 229

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 229

What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresssses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?

Options:

A.

172.16.1.4

B.

172.16.1.1

C.

172.16.1.2

D.

172.16.1.3

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Questions 230

Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?

Options:

A.

netstat-n

B.

ipconfig

C.

ifconfig

D.

netstat-r

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Questions 231

What is a function of a southbound API?

Options:

A.

Automate configuration changes between a server and a switching fabric.

B.

Use orchestration to provision a virtual server configuration from a web server.

C.

Manage flow control between an SDN controller and a switching fabric.

D.

Facilitate the information exchange between an SDN controller and application.

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Questions 232

What is a valid IPv6 addresss record in DNS?

Options:

A.

A

B.

MX

C.

AAAA

D.

CNAME

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Questions 233

What is the main capability of multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

Identifying permissions for end users using three authentication factors

B.

Authenticating and authorizing end users using two authentication factors

C.

Confirming end-user identity using two or more authentication factors

D.

Verifying end-user access permissions using two authentication factors

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Questions 234

What is the main purpose of SSH management access?

Options:

A.

To support DES 56-bit and 3DES (168-bit) ciphers

B.

To enable secured access to the inbound management interface

C.

To validate management access with username and domain name only

D.

To allow passwords protected with HTTPS encryption to be sent

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Questions 235

Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?

Options:

A.

virtual interface

B.

management interface

C.

console port

D.

service port

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Questions 236

What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?

Options:

A.

DHCPREQUEST

B.

DHCPDISCOVER

C.

DHCPACK

D.

DHCPOFFER

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Questions 237

What is represented by the word " LB13 " within this JSDN schema?

200-301 Question 237

Options:

A.

value

B.

object

C.

array

D.

key

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Questions 238

200-301 Question 238

Refer to the exhibit. A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172.21.34.0/25 network that resides on R86. Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

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Questions 239

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.

An ICMP connection has been built

B.

A certificate has expired

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A TCP connection has been torn down

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Questions 240

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 240

A network engineer configures the CCNA WLAN so that clients must authenticate hourly and to limit the number of simultaneous connections to the WLAN to Which two actions complete this configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Enable Session Timeout option and set the value to 3600.

B.

Set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 10.

C.

Enable the Client Exclusion option and set the value to 3600.

D.

Enable the Wi-Fi Direct Clients Policy option.

E.

Set the Maximum Allowed Clients Per AP Radio value to 10.

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Questions 241

What are two differences between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WPA3 uses AES for stronger protection than WPA2 which uses SAE

B.

WPA2 uses 128-bit key encryption and WPA3 requires 256-bit key encryption

C.

WPA3 uses AES for stronger protection than WPA2 which uses TKIP WPA3 uses

D.

SAE for stronger protection than WPA2 which uses AES

E.

WPA2 uses 128-bit key encryption and WPA3 supports 128 bit and 192 bit key encryption

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Questions 242

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 242

What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?

Options:

A.

Port security

B.

High throughput

C.

Cable disconnect

D.

duplex mismatch

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Questions 243

Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?

Options:

A.

1 Hz signal

B.

1 GHz signal

C.

60 Hz signal

D.

60 GHz signal

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Questions 244

A wirelesss access point is needed and must meet these requirements:

• " zero-touch " deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality

• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

Options:

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

mesh

D.

cloud-based

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Questions 245

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

Options:

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers froin the failure of an edge routing device

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Questions 246

200-301 Question 246

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

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Questions 247

When is the PUT method used within HTTP?

Options:

A.

when a nonidempotent operation is needed

B.

to update a DNS server

C.

to display a web site

D.

when a read-only operation is required

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Questions 248

Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.

What is the first step to verify connectivity?

200-301 Question 248

Options:

A.

Is the internet reachable?

B.

Is the default gateway reachable?

C.

Is the DNS server reachable?

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Questions 249

200-301 Question 249

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?

Options:

A.

cost 20

B.

cost 30

C.

cost 40

D.

cost 50

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Questions 250

Which components are contained within a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

physical resources, including the NIC, RAM, disk, and CPU

B.

configuration files backed by physical resources froin the Hypervisor

C.

applications running on the Hypervisor

D.

processes running on the Hypervisor and a guest OS

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Questions 251

A network engineer starts to implement a new wirelesss LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

Options:

A.

Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to it.

B.

Install the management interface and add the management IP.

C.

Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the management interface.

D.

Configure high availability and redundancy for the access points.

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Questions 252

200-301 Question 252

Refer to the exhibit. After applying this configuration to router R1, a network engineer is verifying the implementation. If all links are operating normally, and the engineer sends a series of packets from PC1 to PC3. how are the packets routed?

Options:

A.

They are routed to 172.16.20.2.

B.

They are routed to 192.168.100.2.

C.

They are distributed sent round robin to interfaces SO/0/0 and SO/0/1.

D.

They are routed to 10.0.0.2.

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Questions 253

What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?

Options:

A.

location of the virtual machines within the data center environment

B.

whether to leverage VSM to map multiple virtual processors to two or more virtual machines

C.

resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory

D.

support for physical peripherals, such as monitors, keyboards, and mice

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Questions 254

200-301 Question 254

Refer to the exhibit. All routers In the network are configured. R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configured on R2 to be elected as the DR in the network?

Options:

A.

R2(config)#interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R2(config)#router ospf 1 R2(config-router)#router-id 192.168.2.7

C.

R2(config)#router ospf 1 R2(config-router)#router-id 10.100.100.100

D.

R2(config)#interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1

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Questions 255

A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP addressss 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?

Options:

A.

ntp master 172.24.54.8

B.

ntp client 172.24.54.8

C.

ntp peer 172.24.54.8

D.

ntp server 172.24.54.8

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Questions 256

200-301 Question 256

Refer to the exhibit. This ACL is configured to allow client access only to HTTP, HTTPS, and DNS services via UDP. The new administrator wants to add TCP access to the DNS service. Which configuration updates the ACL efficiently?

Options:

A.

ip access list extended Services35 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

B.

no ip access list extended Servicesip access list extended Services30 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

C.

ip access list extended Servicespermit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

D.

no ip access list extended Servicesip access list extended Servicespermit udp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any eq 53permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domaindeny ip any any log

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Questions 257

Which plane is centralized in software-defined networking?

Options:

A.

application

B.

services

C.

control

D.

data

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Questions 258

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addresssing?

Options:

A.

Reduces the forwarding table on network routers

B.

Used on the external interface of a firewall

C.

Used by ISPs when only one IP is needed to connect to the internet

D.

Address space which is isolated froin the internet

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Questions 259

200-301 Question 259

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?

Options:

A.

Disable WPA Policy and WPA Encryption and then enable PSK using ASCII.

B.

Enable PSK and FT PSK and then disable WPA Policy.

C.

Disable WPA Encryption and then enable FT PSK.

D.

Enable PSK using Hex format and then disable WPA Policy.

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Questions 260

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 260

A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to connect with the 172.16.10.0/24 network on VLAN 20. The engineer wants to limit the number of devices that connect to the WLAN on the USERWL SSID to 125. Which configuration must the engineer perform on the WLC?

Options:

A.

In the Management Software activation configuration, set the Clients value to 125.

B.

In the Controller IPv6 configuration, set the Throttle value to 125.

C.

In the WLAN configuration, set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 125.

D.

In the Advanced configuration, set the DTIM value to 125.

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Questions 261

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 261

Options:

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Questions 262

An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP addressss and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user ' s computer?

Options:

A.

ipconfig /all

B.

ifconfig -a

C.

show interface

D.

netstat -r

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Questions 263

Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?

Options:

A.

LAG

B.

default

C.

trunk

D.

Bopess

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Questions 264

Refer to the exhibit

.

200-301 Question 264

After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?

Options:

A.

when 203 0 113.1 is no longer reachable as a next hop B. when the default route learned over external BGP becomes invalid

B.

when a route to 203.0 113 1 is learned via BGP

C.

when the default route over external BGP changes its next hop

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Questions 265

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 265

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router.

Options:

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

B.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

C.

ipv6 route 2000:3 123 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

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Questions 266

200-301 Question 266

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configuredd on the right. Not all commands are used.

200-301 Question 266

Options:

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Questions 267

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

Options:

A.

broadcast to all ports on the switch

B.

flooded to all ports except the origination port

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

inspected and dropped by the switch

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Questions 268

200-301 Question 268

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)

200-301 Question 268

B)

200-301 Question 268

C)

200-301 Question 268

D)

200-301 Question 268

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 269

Which channel-group mode must be configuredd when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?

Options:

A.

Channel-group mode passive.

B.

Channel-group mode on.

C.

Channel-group mode desirable.

D.

Channel-group mode active.

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Questions 270

Drag and drop the characteristics of northbound APIs from the left onto any position on the right. Not all characteristics are used.

200-301 Question 270

Options:

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Questions 271

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 271

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

Options:

A.

S 192.168.0.0/20 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

B.

S 192.168.2.0/29 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

C.

S 192.168.2.0/28 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

D.

S 192.168.1.0/30 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

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Questions 272

Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

Options:

A.

Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)

D.

Point-to-Point Protocol

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Questions 273

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 273

Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.10.3

C.

10.10.10.4

D.

10.10.10.2

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Questions 274

What is the function of northbound API?

Options:

A.

It upgrades software and restores files.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

D.

It provide a path between an SDN controller and network applications.

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Questions 275

What is the definition of backdoor malware?

Options:

A.

malicious code that is installed onto a computer to allow access by an unauthorized user

B.

malicious code with the main purpose of downloading other malicious code

C.

malicious program that is used to launch other malicious programs

D.

malicious code that infects a user machine and then uses that machine to send spam

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Questions 276

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 276

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.240

B.

255.255.255.128

C.

255.255.248.

D.

255.255.255.248

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Questions 277

What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?

Options:

A.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter.

B.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter.

C.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter.

D.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter.

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Questions 278

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

200-301 Question 278

Options:

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Questions 279

Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.

200-301 Question 279

Options:

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Questions 280

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 280

A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interface Serial0. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?

Options:

A.

The permit command fails and returns an error code.

B.

The router accepts all incoming traffic to Serial0 with the last octet of the source IP set to 0.

C.

The sourced traffic from IP range 10.0.0.0 -10.0.0.255 is allowed on Serial0.

D.

The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.

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Questions 281

A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?

Options:

A.

Lightweight with local switching disabled

B.

Local with AP fallback enabled

C.

OfficeExtend with high availability disabled

D.

FlexConnect with local switching enabled

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Questions 282

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

200-301 Question 282

Options:

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Questions 283

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 283

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

Options:

A.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on

B.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable

C.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive

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Questions 284

200-301 Question 284

A)

200-301 Question 284

B)

200-301 Question 284

C)

200-301 Question 284

D)

200-301 Question 284

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 285

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 285

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-GHz clients connect? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Broadcast SSID option

B.

Enable the Status option.

C.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11g Only.

D.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only.

E.

Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest

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Questions 286

Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from the left onto the corresponding modes on the right.

200-301 Question 286

Options:

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Questions 287

What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It needs a high MTU between sites.

B.

It has a high implementation cost.

C.

It must have point-to-point communication.

D.

It requires complex configuration.

E.

It works only with BGP between sites.

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Questions 288

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 288

User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IIP address 192.168.0.10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?

Options:

A.

The default gateway for site B is configured incorrectly

B.

The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic

C.

The traffic is blocked by an implicit deny in an ACL on router2

D.

The traffic to 192.168.0.10 requires a static route to be configured in router 1.

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Questions 289

Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provide the ability to retrieve large amounts of data in one request

Options:

A.

Get

B.

GetNext

C.

Set

D.

GetBulk

E.

Inform

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Questions 290

What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.

B.

It supports between 50 and 100 users.

C.

It supports between 1 and 50 users.

D.

It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.

E.

A router port connects to a broadband connection.

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Questions 291

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?

Options:

A.

6

B.

8

C.

12

D.

18

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Questions 292

Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.

200-301 Question 292

Options:

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Questions 293

Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?

Options:

A.

SLB

B.

FHRP

C.

VRRP

D.

HSRP

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Questions 294

Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

Options:

A.

UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.

B.

TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out- of-order.

C.

TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.

D.

UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.

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Questions 295

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

200-301 Question 295

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

B.

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

C.

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

D.

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

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Questions 296

What is a specification for SSIDS?

Options:

A.

They are a Cisco proprietary security feature.

B.

They must include one number and one letter.

C.

They define the VLAN on a switch.

D.

They are case sensitive.

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Questions 297

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 297

Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 298

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host

B.

snmp-server community

C.

snmp-server enable traps

D.

snmp-server user

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Questions 299

Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

console

B.

Telnet

C.

Bash

D.

SSH

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Questions 300

200-301 Question 300

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?

Options:

A.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

B.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.

C.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan add 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW2.

D.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

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Questions 301

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 301

An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?

A)

200-301 Question 301

B)

200-301 Question 301

C)

200-301 Question 301

D)

200-301 Question 301

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 302

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization??

Options:

A.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

B.

configuring a password for the console port

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

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Questions 303

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 303

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.254 10.80.65.1

B.

ip route 10.8065.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66

C.

ip route 1073.65.65 255.0.0.0 10.80.65.10

D.

ip route 10.73.65.66 0.0.0.255 10.80.65.10

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Questions 304

What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

Options:

A.

to rate-limit messages for different severity levels from each device

B.

to set the severity of syslog messages from each device

C.

to identify the source from which each syslog message originated

D.

to control the number of syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally

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Questions 305

What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

Multiple companies can use the same addresses without conflicts.

B.

Direct connectivity is provided to internal hosts from outside an enterprise network.

C.

Communication to the internet Is reachable without the use of NAT.

D.

All external hosts are provided with secure communication to the Internet.

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Questions 306

Refer to the exhibit

200-301 Question 306

A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:

* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically

* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen

Which two commands must be configuredd to complete this task " ? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SW(config-if)=switchport port-security mac-address sticky

B.

SW(config-if)=switchport port-security violation restrict

C.

SW(config-if)sswitchport port-security mac-address 0010.7B84.45E6

D.

SW(config-if)switchport port-security maximum 2

E.

SW(config-if)=switchport port-security violation shutdown

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Questions 307

Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

out-of-band management

B.

secure in-band connectivity for device administration

C.

unencrypted in-band connectivity for file transfers

D.

HTTP-based GUI connectivity

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Questions 308

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBIC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

Options:

A.

LC to SC

B.

SC t ST

C.

SC to SC

D.

LC to LC

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Questions 309

Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center leverages SNMPv3 tor encrypted management, and traditional campus management uses SNMPv2.

B.

Cisco DNA Center automates HTTPS for secure web access, and traditional campus management uses HTTP.

C.

Cisco DNA Center leverages APIs, and traditional campus management requires manual data gathering.

D.

Cisco DNA Center automates SSH access for encrypted entry, and SSH Is absent from traditional campus management.

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Questions 310

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

Options:

A.

repeater mode

B.

autonomous mode

C.

bridge mode

D.

lightweight mode

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1
Last Update: Jul 19, 2026
Questions: 1242

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