200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers
An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
200-301 Report Card
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?
What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port?
When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?
PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN Which switching concept does this describe?
Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?
Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?
Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements
• Create 8 new subnets
• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet
• A Layer 3 interface is used
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?
Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?
What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a three-tier architecture model?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two)

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?
Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows UDP 69 through the firewall?
Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?


An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A. B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which nary addresss must be advertised in OSPF?
Refer to Exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency, such as VoIP?
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?
After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of each enterprise router with a local username and password. Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?

Refer to the exhibit.

When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192.1, which interface or next hop address does it use to route the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.

The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?
An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic Neighbor Discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:
• Disable all Neighbor Discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.
• Permit Neighbor Discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.
• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.
• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.
Which configuration must be used?

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A)

B)

C)

D)

A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?
Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growith. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router Fa0/1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a static IP address on the Wi-Fi network. Which feature must be enabled and configured to prevent connection issues with the printer?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.
Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.

Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?
Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for new hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)

B)

C)

D)

R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165.200.225
How should R1 be configured?
A)

B)

C)

D)

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?
Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0.4.0/24 network?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wirelesss authentication?
Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation froin the let into the order on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two)
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
Refer to the exhibit.

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

Refer to the exhibit.

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?
Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)
Topology:

Configure OSPF routing for the network by completing the following tasks:
Task 1
Configure OSPF on R2. Ensure that R1 and R3 become neighbors.
Use process ID 30.
Use 10.22.22.22 as the router ID.
Under the OSPF process, advertise the following specific prefixes:
10.0.23.0/28
10.0.12.0/30
Task 2
Ensure that R2 always becomes the designated router (DR).


Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.


IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.



IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.


Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Topology:

All relevant ports are preconfigured as IEEE 802.1Q trunks.
Task 1
Configure SW-1 port Ethernet0/0 to permit only VLANs 5 and 6.
Task 2
Configure ports Ethernet0/1 on SW-1 and SW-2 to use VLAN 77 as the native VLAN.
Task 3
Configure SW-2 port Ethernet0/2 to permit only VLAN 6.
Task 4
Using LACP, create a Port-Channel between SW-3 and SW-4.
Combine Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 into a Port-Channel while leaving the existing trunk configurations intact.
Assign Port-Channel number 34.
Only SW-3 must initiate LACP negotiations.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.


All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.


All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.


Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.


A network architect planning a new Wi-Fi network must decide between autonomous, cloud-based, and split MAC architectures. Which two facts should the architect consider? (Choose two.)
What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?
A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?
A)

B)

C)

D)

The addresss block 192.168.32.0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks. The engineer must meet these requirements:
Create 8 new subnets
Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet.
A Layer 3 interface is used.
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
A network engineer starts to implement a new wirelesss LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic Interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?
Which two statements distinguish authentication from accounting? (Choose two.)
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, to which type of OSPF network does this interface belong?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.


Refer to the exhibit. How will router R1 handle packets destined to 192.168.64.22?
Which mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresssses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?
Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?
Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?

Refer to the exhibit. A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172.21.34.0/25 network that resides on R86. Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures the CCNA WLAN so that clients must authenticate hourly and to limit the number of simultaneous connections to the WLAN to Which two actions complete this configuration? (Choose two.)
What are two differences between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless security? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?
A wirelesss access point is needed and must meet these requirements:
• " zero-touch " deployed and managed by a WLC
• process only real-time MAC functionality
• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.
What is the first step to verify connectivity?


Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?
A network engineer starts to implement a new wirelesss LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

Refer to the exhibit. After applying this configuration to router R1, a network engineer is verifying the implementation. If all links are operating normally, and the engineer sends a series of packets from PC1 to PC3. how are the packets routed?

Refer to the exhibit. All routers In the network are configured. R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configured on R2 to be elected as the DR in the network?
A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP addressss 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?

Refer to the exhibit. This ACL is configured to allow client access only to HTTP, HTTPS, and DNS services via UDP. The new administrator wants to add TCP access to the DNS service. Which configuration updates the ACL efficiently?

Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to connect with the 172.16.10.0/24 network on VLAN 20. The engineer wants to limit the number of devices that connect to the WLAN on the USERWL SSID to 125. Which configuration must the engineer perform on the WLC?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP addressss and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user ' s computer?
Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?
Refer to the exhibit
.

After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configuredd on the right. Not all commands are used.

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:
• Only Telnet access is allowed.
• The enable password must be stored securely.
• The enable password must be applied in plain text.
• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.
Which configuration script meets the requirements?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Which channel-group mode must be configuredd when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?
Drag and drop the characteristics of northbound APIs from the left onto any position on the right. Not all characteristics are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?
Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interface Serial0. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?
A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?
Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?
Refer to the exhibit.

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-GHz clients connect? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from the left onto the corresponding modes on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IIP address 192.168.0.10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?
Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provide the ability to retrieve large amounts of data in one request
What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?
Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.

Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization??
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?
What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?
Refer to the exhibit

A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:
* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically
* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen
Which two commands must be configuredd to complete this task " ? (Choose two)
Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBIC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?
Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?
Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?













































































