SIE Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) Questions and Answers

Step by Step Explanation:

FINRA Rule 2210: Firms are prohibited from suggesting or implying FINRA's endorsement or approval in any advertising materials.

Approvals: Even if a principal or FINRA approves the content, such a statement remains impermissible.

Key Point: FINRA's role is to regulate, not to endorse firms or their marketing.

References:

FINRA Rule 2210 (Communications with the Public): FINRA Rule 2210.

Step by Step Explanation:

Definition of Accredited Investor: As perSEC Regulation D, Rule 501, an accredited investor includes:

Individuals with a net worth exceeding $1 million (excluding primary residence equity).

Individuals with an annual income exceeding $200,000 (or $300,000 jointly with a spouse) for the past two years.

Elimination of Incorrect Answers:

$500,000 threshold (option B) is too low to qualify under Regulation D.

Option D is incorrect as it requires assets of $5 million, not $2.5 million.

References:

SEC Regulation D, Rule 501 (Accredited Investor Definition): SEC Regulation D.

In a UTMA account, the minor is the legal owner of the account. The custodian (in this case, the attorney) manages the account until the minor reaches the age of majority specified by state law.

C is correctbecause the grandson (the minor) is the account’s legal owner.

Ais incorrect because the attorney is the custodian, not the owner.

Bis incorrect because the grandfather established the account but does not own it.

Dis incorrect because the parent does not have ownership unless explicitly named as the custodian.

A covered call involves selling a call option on a stock the investor already owns. The strategy generates income in the form of the premium collected for selling the call, providing additional returns on the stock position.

D is correctbecause the primary goal of a covered call is to generate income.

Ais incorrect because covered calls do not hedge against large declines in the stock price.

Bis incorrect because speculation involves taking higher risks, not a covered call’s conservative strategy.

Cis incorrect because no strategy guarantees a profit.

Step by Step Explanation:

Outside Business Activity Definition: Per FINRA Rule 3270, an OBA involves compensated business activities outside the scope of the RR’s role at their firm. Passive investments are excluded because they do not require active involvement.

Incorrect Options:

A, B, and C: Selling real estate, selling insurance, and refereeing are considered OBAs as they involve active participation and compensation.

References:

FINRA Rule 3270 (Outside Business Activities): FINRA Rule 3270.

Purchasing power risk, also known as inflation risk, occurs when inflation reduces the real value of a fixed-income stream. Fixed payments (e.g., bond interest or annuity payments) lose buying power as inflation rises.

D is correctbecause inflation directly affects fixed income by eroding purchasing power.

Ais incorrect because market risk relates to fluctuations in market prices, not inflation.

Bis incorrect because economic risk generally refers to broader economic downturns.

Cis incorrect because interest rate risk involves changes in bond prices due to interest rate movements, not inflation.

Step by Step Explanation:

Private Securities Transactions: Under FINRA Rule 3280, RRs must obtain written approval from their employing firm before participating in the sale of securities outside the firm.

Promissory Notes: These are typically considered securities, requiring prior approval.

Incorrect Options:

A & C: Notification alone is insufficient; written approval is required.

D: Promissory notes are generally treated as securities under federal law.

References:

FINRA Rule 3280 (Private Securities Transactions): FINRA Rule 3280.

Step by Step Explanation:

SEC Rule 10b-10: Requires trade confirmations to disclose the capacity in which the firm acted (e.g., as agent or principal) and details like trade price, quantity, and commissions.

Incorrect Options:

A: Cost basis is not disclosed on trade confirmations.

B: Inventory levels are not part of the required disclosures.

C: Market maker status is not explicitly required in the confirmation.

References:

SEC Rule 10b-10 (Confirmation Requirements): SEC Rule 10b-10.

Certificates of Deposit (CDs) are time deposit accounts issued by banks, offering fixed interest rates for a specified term. CDs are insured by the FDIC up to $250,000 per depositor, but the issuing entity is the bank itself.

B is correctbecause banks issue CDs.

Ais incorrect because the FDIC insures CDs but does not issue them.

Cis incorrect because broker-dealers may facilitate the purchase of CDs but do not issue them.

Dis incorrect because the Federal Reserve does not issue CDs; it manages monetary policy.

Step by Step Explanation:

Credit Downgrade: Increases perceived risk, causing bond prices to drop and yields to rise.

Yield-Price Relationship: Yields move inversely to bond prices. Lower prices lead to higher yields as investors demand more return for increased risk.

References:

SEC Guidance on Bond Ratings: SEC Bond Ratings.

Step by Step Explanation:

FINRA Rule 3220: This rule limits gifts to $100 per person annually to prevent conflicts of interest.

Aggregate Limit: There is no provision for exceeding the $100 annual limit, regardless of the number of gifts.

Purpose: The rule ensures that gifts do not influence decisions or create unethical relationships.

References:

FINRA Rule 3220 (Influencing or Rewarding Employees of Others): FINRA Rule 3220.

Regulation S-P mandates that broker-dealers disclose how they collect, protect, and share customers’ nonpublic personal information. The privacy notice must include:

The categories of information collected.

The firm’s policies for safeguarding data.

Opt-out rights for sharing information with unaffiliated third parties.

D is correctbecause privacy notices must describe policies for protecting customer information.

A,B, andCare incorrect because they do not relate to the required elements of Regulation S-P privacy notices.

The primary market deals with the issuance of new securities, which is regulated under the Securities Act of 1933. This act requires issuers to provide full disclosure of material information to investors to ensure transparency and fairness in new offerings.

A is correctbecause the Securities Act of 1933 governs initial offerings.

Bis incorrect because the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 regulates secondary market trading.

Cis incorrect because the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 pertains to investment advisers.

Dis incorrect because the Investment Company Act of 1940 governs mutual funds and other investment companies.

Nonqualified deferred compensation (NQDC) plans allow employees to defer income until a future date.

D is correctbecause NQDC funds remain part of the company’s general assets, which creditors may claim if the company goes bankrupt.

Ais incorrect as NQDC plans are not subject to ERISA rules.

Bis incorrect because these plans do not require IRS review.

Cis incorrect as NQDC assets are not required to be held in escrow.

Step by Step Explanation:

Low Liquidity: Hedge funds often impose lock-up periods and restrict redemptions, leading to low liquidity for investors.

Incorrect Options:

B: Hedge funds typically have high minimum investment requirements, often $1 million or more.

C: Hedge funds employ diverse strategies, not just fixed income.

D: Hedge funds are generally opaque about their strategies and holdings to protect their competitive advantage.

References:

SEC Investor Bulletin on Hedge Funds: SEC Hedge Funds.

FINRA prohibits the payment of referral fees or splitting of commissions with individuals who are not registered with a broker-dealer. However, taking a friend out to dinner as a gesture of gratitude is allowed, as it does not involve cash or monetary compensation directly tied to the referral.

C is correctbecause non-monetary expressions of gratitude (like a dinner) are permitted under FINRA rules.

Ais incorrect because commission splitting with unregistered individuals is prohibited.

Bis incorrect because paying referral fees is also prohibited without registration.

Dis incorrect because giving prepaid credit cards tied to commission income violates compensation rules.

Step by Step Explanation:

SEC Registration Statements: The SEC reviews registration statements for completeness and compliance but does not judge the merits, approve, or endorse the securities being offered.

Other Options:

A, B, and C: Misrepresent the SEC’s role in the registration process.

References:

SEC Bulletin on Registration Statements: SEC Registration Process.

Buying a put option gives the investor the right to sell a stock at a specific strike price, effectively setting a floor for potential losses if the stock price declines. This is a common risk-management strategy.

A is correctbecause buying puts limits downside risk while retaining the potential for upside gains.

Bis incorrect as buying puts is a bearish strategy, not one used during upward momentum.

Cis incorrect because selling call options does not hedge losses; it is a speculative or income-generating strategy.

Dis incorrect because buying calls is a bullish strategy, used during upward momentum, not downward.

Fundamental analysis focuses on evaluating a company’s financial health and potential for growth by analyzing its financial statements, such as the income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement.

C is correctbecause financial statements provide the data necessary for fundamental analysis.

AandBare incorrect because chart patterns and moving averages are tools of technical analysis, not fundamental analysis.

Dis incorrect because resistance and support levels are also part of technical analysis.

FINRA Rule 2360 requires that customers receive theOptions Disclosure Document (ODD), published by the Options Clearing Corporation (OCC), before they are approved to trade options. The ODD explains the risks and characteristics of options trading.

D is correctbecause the ODD is mandatory for options account approval.

Ais incorrect because a prospectus is not specific to options trading.

Bis incorrect because the MSRB Investor Brochure applies to municipal securities.

Cis incorrect because a margin disclosure statement is required only for margin accounts.

Step by Step Explanation:

Settlement of the Transaction: Refers to the finalization of a trade, where the buyer pays for the securities, and the seller delivers them. For most securities, regular-way settlement occurs T+2 (trade date plus two business days).

Incorrect Options:

Clearing the Trade: Refers to matching trade details to prepare for settlement.

DVP Transactions: A specific type of settlement involving simultaneous payment and delivery, often used for institutional clients.

Corporate Action: Refers to events like stock splits or dividend declarations.

References:

FINRA and SEC Guidelines on Settlement: SEC Settlement Process.

Step by Step Explanation:

Hypothecation Agreement: Required for margin accounts, it authorizes the broker-dealer to use the customer's margin securities as collateral to secure loans for funding customer transactions.

Incorrect Options:

A: Sharing customer information is regulated under privacy rules (Regulation S-P).

B: Unauthorized trading violates securities laws.

C: Selling unpaid securities in cash accounts pertains to Regulation T, not hypothecation agreements.

References:

FINRA Margin Account Rules: FINRA Rule 4210.

Step by Step Explanation:

FINRA Rule 4530: Requires member firms to report certain events, including allegations of forgery, to FINRA promptly.

Incorrect Options:

Option B: Maintaining a record does not substitute for required reporting.

Option C: Arbitration isn’t required before reporting.

Option D: Reporting is mandatory irrespective of internal investigations.

References:

FINRA Rule 4530 (Reporting Requirements): FINRA Rule 4530.

Step by Step Explanation:

European-Style Options: Can only be exercised on their expiration date, unlike American-style options, which can be exercised any time before expiration.

Incorrect Options:

A: Not accurate; the exercise must occur specifically on the expiration date.

C: Options cannot be exercised after expiration.

D: The expiration date depends on the option contract, not a specific weekday.

References:

Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) Guidelines:OCC European Options.

Step by Step Explanation:

Tenants in Common: In this arrangement, each tenant owns a fractional interest in the account's assets, which can be unequal depending on the agreement.

Income Distribution: Income is distributed based on ownership percentage, not necessarily equally.

Redemption Requests: Only the owner of the fractional interest has authority to request redemption for their portion.

Estate Taxation: Upon the death of a tenant, only their fractional interest is taxable in their estate.

References:

FINRA Guidelines on Joint Accounts: FINRA Joint Accounts.

Open-end mutual funds do not trade on secondary markets. Instead, shares are continuously issued or redeemed by the fund at the net asset value (NAV), calculated at the market close.

D is correctbecause investors purchase and redeem shares directly through the fund or authorized brokers.

Ais incorrect because mutual funds do not have a predetermined dissolution date.

Bis incorrect because mutual fund shares are priced at the NAV calculated once daily after the market closes.

Cis incorrect because secondary market trading applies to closed-end funds and ETFs, not open-end mutual funds.

Step by Step Explanation:

529 Savings Plans: These plans allow tax-advantaged savings for education expenses. They can be used for both undergraduate and graduate studies, as well as certain K-12 expenses.

Contribution Limits: Contributions are subject to gift tax limits but have no specific statutory maximum under federal law.

Tax Treatment: Earnings grow tax-deferred and are tax-free if used for qualified education expenses.

References:

IRS Section 529 Guidance: IRS 529 Plans.

In cumulative voting, shareholders can allocate all their votes to a single candidate. The total number of votes is calculated by multiplying the number of shares owned by the number of seats available:

Total votes = 100 shares × 10 seats =1,000 votes.

The investor can allocate all votes to one candidate.

C is correctbecause cumulative voting allows all votes to be concentrated.

FINRA Rule 3270 requires registered representatives to disclose all outside business activities that involve compensation or could reasonably be perceived as a conflict of interest.

C is correctbecause serving as a board member for a publicly traded company is a business activity requiring disclosure, even if compensation is indirect.

Ais incorrect because volunteer work for charities does not require disclosure.

Bis incorrect because acting as a trustee for a personal or family estate is generally not considered an OBA.

Dis incorrect because unpaid board membership for a not-for-profit entity does not typically require disclosure.

Step by Step Explanation:

Telemarketing Rules (FINRA Rule 3230): Require firms to check the National Do Not Call Registry before contacting individuals, even if those individuals provide their contact information voluntarily.

Incorrect Options:

A: Approval isn’t required for individual follow-ups; compliance with the registry is.

B: While calls must be limited to appropriate hours, the registry check is still mandatory.

C: Written consent does not override the registry requirement.

References:

FINRA Rule 3230 (Telemarketing): FINRA Rule 3230.

Step by Step Explanation:

Regulation D (Rule 506(b)): Allows offerings to an unlimited number of accredited investors and up to 35 non-accredited investors, provided certain disclosure requirements are met.

Incorrect Options:

A: Refers to Regulation S, which governs offshore offerings, not domestic exemptions.

B: There is no 40-investor limit in Regulation D.

C: The $5 million limit applies to Rule 504, not Rule 506(b).

References:

SEC Regulation D: SEC Regulation D.

Step by Step Explanation:

Diversification: Spreads investments across multiple securities, industries, or asset classes to reduce exposure to a single security or sector.

Other Options:

Use of Leverage: Increases, not decreases, portfolio risk.

Dollar-Cost Averaging: Reduces timing risk but does not address concentration.

Dividend Reinvestment: Enhances returns but does not mitigate concentration risk.

References:

SEC Guidance on Diversification: SEC Diversification.

Step by Step Explanation:

General Obligation (GO) Bonds: Backed by the full faith and credit of the issuing municipality, relying on its taxing power for repayment.

Revenue Bonds: Supported by revenues from a specific project or source.

Treasury Bonds: Issued by the federal government.

Corporate Bonds: Issued by corporations, not municipalities.

References:

SEC Municipal Bond Guide: SEC GO Bonds.

Technology stocks are considered high-risk investments due to their volatility and sensitivity to economic cycles, regulatory changes, and technological advancements. While they may offer significant growth potential, they carry greater risk than blue chip stocks, corporate bonds, or government bonds.

C is correctbecause technology stocks are subject to high volatility and risk.

Ais incorrect because blue chip stocks are generally stable and lower-risk.

Bis incorrect because corporate bonds carry moderate risk, depending on the issuer’s creditworthiness.

Dis incorrect because government bonds are considered low-risk due to the backing of the issuing government.

In atenants in commonaccount, each owner has a distinct percentage of ownership. Upon the death of one owner, their share does not transfer to the surviving owner(s); instead, it becomes part of the deceased’s estate.

C is correctbecause ownership is divided, and the deceased’s share passes to their estate.

Ais incorrect because partnerships have different agreements governing ownership transitions.

Bis incorrect because trust corporations are governed by trust agreements, not estate processes.

Dis incorrect because JTWROS accounts pass ownership directly to the surviving account holder(s).

Step by Step Explanation:

Tender Offer Definition: A tender offer is an offer to purchase a certain number of shares from shareholders, typically at a price above the current market value. This is often part of mergers, acquisitions, or corporate takeovers.

Stock Split: A stock split increases the number of shares but decreases the price per share without affecting the total value of an investor's holdings.

Redemption: Redemption refers to the repayment of a bond or preferred stock at maturity or at a predetermined date.

Class Action: A class action is a lawsuit filed by a group of people with similar grievances.

References:

SEC Rule 14e on tender offers: SEC Tender Offers.

Step by Step Explanation:

Trust Accounts: Provide the account owner (trustee) full control over distributions and investment decisions. Suitable for complex estate planning needs.

Incorrect Options:

UTMA: Transfers control to the minor upon reaching the age of majority.

529 Plan: Used for educational savings, with limited control over distributions.

CD: A fixed-term deposit, not an account type for managing distributions.

References:

SEC and FINRA Guidelines on Trusts: FINRA Trust Accounts.

A private securities transaction involves the sale of securities outside the scope of a registered representative’s employment with their member firm. Such transactions must be disclosed to and approved by the firm under FINRA Rule 3280.

B is correctbecause raising money for a startup involves the sale of securities and must be reported as a private securities transaction.

Ais incorrect because soliciting charitable donations does not involve securities.

Cis incorrect because selling term life insurance policies is not a securities transaction.

Dis incorrect because investing personal money does not involve soliciting or selling securities to others.

Equity securities represent ownership in a company, and preferred stock is a type of equity security that pays dividends and has priority over common stock in liquidation.

A is correctbecause preferred stock is an equity security.

Bis incorrect because commercial paper is a short-term debt security.

Cis incorrect because certificates of deposit (CDs) are fixed-income banking products.

Dis incorrect because exchange-traded notes (ETNs) are unsecured debt securities.

Purchasing a put option allows the customer to sell the stock at a predetermined price (the strike price) if the share price declines. This strategy protects against downside risk while maintaining upside potential.

C is correctbecause a put acts as insurance, locking in a minimum sale price.

Ais incorrect because selling a put exposes the investor to additional risk if the stock declines.

Bis incorrect because selling a call generates income but does not protect against downside risk.

Dis incorrect because purchasing a call is a bullish strategy unrelated to protecting existing positions.

XYZ bonds have a yield higher than the coupon rate, indicating that their market price has decreased due to concerns about the issuer's creditworthiness.

A is correctbecause the high yield suggests elevated credit risk.

Bis incorrect because domestic utility companies are unlikely to face political risk.

Cis irrelevant as the bonds are denominated in U.S. dollars.

Dis incorrect as prepayment risk is associated with callable bonds, not noncallable bonds.

Step by Step Explanation:

Closed-End Funds: Trade on exchanges like stocks, and the investor receives the bid price (market price) minus any applicable commissions.

Incorrect Options:

A & B: NAV applies to open-end mutual funds, not closed-end funds.

D: POP applies to initial sales of mutual fund shares.

References:

SEC Guidance on Closed-End Funds: SEC Closed-End Funds.

Step by Step Explanation:

Publicly Traded Limited Partnerships (PTPs): Represent ownership stakes, which categorize them as equity securities. PTPs often involve sectors like real estate or energy.

Incorrect Options:

A: Mutual funds are pooled investment vehicles, not partnerships.

C: Fixed-income securities are debt instruments like bonds.

D: Derivatives include options or futures, not ownership stakes.

References:

SEC Guidance on Publicly Traded Partnerships: SEC PTPs.

CMOs are divided into tranches, which are portions of the pool of mortgage-backed securities. Each tranche has its own characteristics, including coupon rate, maturity date, and credit rating, tailored to meet the needs of different investors.

C is correctbecause tranches represent slices of the investment with specific terms.

Ais incorrect because the yield depends on prepayment rates and interest rate changes.

Bis incorrect as average life is an estimate, not a defining characteristic of a tranche.

Dis incorrect because underwriting is unrelated to the definition of a tranche.

Step by Step Explanation:

Balance Sheet Definition: Shows a company’s financial position at a specific point in time, listing assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity (net worth).

Other Financial Statements:

Profit and Loss Statement: Summarizes revenues and expenses over a period.

Cash Flow Statement: Tracks cash inflows and outflows.

References:

SEC Guide to Financial Statements: SEC Financials.

An option is considered "at the money" when the current price of the underlying asset (or index level) equals the option’s strike price.

B is correctbecause the index level equals the strike price.

Ais incorrect because "in the money" requires the option to have intrinsic value (e.g., for a call, the index level must be above the strike price).

Cis incorrect because "out of the money" applies when the index level is below the strike price (for calls) or above it (for puts).

Dis incorrect because "at the money" options have no intrinsic value.