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Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What type of attack redirects the traffic of a legitimate website to a fake website?

Options:

A.

Watering hole

B.

Pharming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Whaling

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Questions 5

Web 2.0 applications provide which type of service?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

FWaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

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Questions 6

Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

Options:

A.

Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand

B.

Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components

C.

Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code

D.

Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.

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Questions 7

Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?

Options:

A.

Serverless

B.

Dockers

C.

Cloud-hosted

D.

Kubernetes

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Questions 8

Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

Options:

A.

API

B.

Code security

C.

Virtualization

D.

IRP

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Questions 9

Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?

Options:

A.

Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.

B.

Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.

C.

Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.

D.

Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.

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Questions 10

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security addresses ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured?

Options:

A.

visibility, governance, and compliance

B.

network protection

C.

dynamic computing

D.

compute security

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Questions 11

Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?

Options:

A.

cybercriminal

B.

cyberterrorist

C.

state-affiliated group

D.

hacktivist

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Questions 12

Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Practitioner Question 12

Options:

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Questions 13

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

Options:

A.

They share the work of both clients and servers.

B.

They allow client computers to perform most of the work.

C.

They divide responsibilities among clients.

D.

They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.

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Questions 14

When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

decrypt the infected file using base64

B.

alert system administrators

C.

quarantine the infected file

D.

delete the infected file

E.

remove the infected file’s extension

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Questions 15

Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

Options:

A.

Advanced malware

B.

Smishing

C.

Reconnaissance

D.

Denial of service

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Questions 16

What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Assessing severity levels

B.

Identifying misconfigurations

C.

Unifying cloud provider services

D.

Detecting and correlating anomalies

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Questions 17

In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

Options:

A.

simplifies security policy management

B.

reduces network latency

C.

causes security policies to be complex

D.

improves security policy application ID enforcement

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Questions 18

Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?

Options:

A.

Types of physical storage media used

B.

Data-at-rest encryption standards

C.

Acceptable use of the SaaS application

D.

Vulnerability scanning and management

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Questions 19

What is an operation of an Attack Surface Management (ASM) platform?

Options:

A.

It scans assets in the cloud space for remediation of compromised sanctioned SaaS applications.

B.

It continuously identifies all internal and external internet-connected assets for potential attack vectors and exposures.

C.

It identifies and monitors the movement of data within, into, and out of an organization's network.

D.

It detects and remediates misconfigured security settings in sanctioned SaaS applications through monitoring.

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Questions 20

In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?

Options:

A.

weaponization

B.

reconnaissance

C.

exploitation

D.

delivery

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Questions 21

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

Options:

A.

192.168.6.168/30

B.

192.168.6.0/25

C.

192.168.6.160/29

D.

192.168.6.128/27

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Questions 22

Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

C.

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D.

Split horizon

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Questions 23

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

Options:

A.

the network is large

B.

the network is small

C.

the network has low bandwidth requirements

D.

the network needs backup routes

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Questions 24

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.

B.

Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.

C.

Perform an attack on local systems.

D.

Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.

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Questions 25

What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network

B.

Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure

C.

Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments

D.

Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS

E.

Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location

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Questions 26

Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It contains password characters that users enter to access encrypted data.

B.

It is a method used to encrypt data and authenticate web-based communication.

C.

It ensures the data that is transferred between a client and a server remains private.

D.

It provides administrator privileges to manage and control the access of network resources.

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Questions 27

Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

DevOps

C.

Denial of Service

D.

Data Exposure Control

E.

Threat Prevention

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Questions 28

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

Options:

A.

Threat Prevention

B.

DNS Security

C.

WildFire

D.

URL Filtering

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Questions 29

Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

Options:

A.

interfaces

B.

business

C.

technology

D.

people

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Questions 30

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

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Questions 31

What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

Options:

A.

It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.

B.

It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

C.

It manages applications accessible on endpoints.

D.

It reduces the need for network security.

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Questions 32

Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

Options:

A.

Behavior analysis

B.

Comparison of alerts to signatures

C.

Manual inspection of user activities

D.

Rule-based activity prioritization

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Questions 33

Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

MAC

C.

SNMP

D.

NFS

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Questions 34

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

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Questions 35

Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

Options:

A.

It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.

B.

It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.

C.

It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.

D.

It allows safe use of applications by scanning files for malware.

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Questions 36

Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?

Options:

A.

Hub

B.

Layer 2 switch

C.

Router

D.

Wireless access point

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Questions 37

What type of DNS record maps an IPV6 address to a domain or subdomain to another hostname?

Options:

A.

SOA

B.

NS

C.

AAAA

D.

MX

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Questions 38

Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

VPN Concentrator

B.

Content Identification

C.

Segmentation Platform

D.

Web Application Zone

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Questions 39

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

Options:

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

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Questions 40

A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.

Which type of phishing attack does this represent?

Options:

A.

Whaling

B.

Vishing

C.

Pharming

D.

Angler phishing

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Questions 41

What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Convincing an employee that they are also an employee

B.

Leveraging open-source intelligence to gather information about a high-level executive

C.

Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call

D.

Compromising a website and configuring it to automatically install malicious files onto systems that visit the page

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Questions 42

Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?

Options:

A.

Shortest Path

B.

Hop Count

C.

Split Horizon

D.

Path Vector

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Questions 43

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

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Questions 44

Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

Options:

A.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

B.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

C.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

D.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

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Questions 45

An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.

What can be created to dynamically block these websites?

Options:

A.

URL category

B.

Custom signatures

C.

Decryption policy

D.

Application group

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Questions 46

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)

D.

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

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Questions 47

You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.

Which type of attack is this?

Options:

A.

Whaling

B.

Spamming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Phishing

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Questions 48

Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?

Options:

A.

They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.

B.

They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.

C.

They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.

D.

They typically attack only once.

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Questions 49

What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Dedicated Networks

C.

Dedicated Hosts

D.

Multiplexing

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Questions 50

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Options:

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

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Questions 51

Which statement describes DevOps?

Options:

A.

DevOps is its own separate team

B.

DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the softwaredelivery process

C.

DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams

D.

DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process

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Questions 52

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

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Questions 53

What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?

Options:

A.

run a static analysis

B.

check its execution policy

C.

send the executable to WildFire

D.

run a dynamic analysis

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Questions 54

Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organization's endpoint systems.

Options:

A.

It cannot identify command-and-control traffic

B.

It assumes that all internal devices are untrusted

C.

It assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted

D.

It cannot monitor all potential network ports

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Questions 55

Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?

Options:

A.

O Multicloud

B.

O 5G -

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

DevOps

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Questions 56

Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

how the data is backed up in one or more locations

B.

how the application can be used

C.

how the application processes the data

D.

how the application can transit the Internet

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Questions 57

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

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Questions 58

Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

Options:

A.

endpoint antivirus software

B.

strong endpoint passwords

C.

endpoint disk encryption

D.

endpoint NIC ACLs

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Questions 59

What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Docker lets the user boot up one or more instances of an operating system on the same host whereas hypervisors do not

B.

Docker uses more resources than a bare metal hypervisor

C.

Docker is more efficient at allocating resources for legacy systems

D.

Docker uses OS-level virtualization, whereas a bare metal hypervisor runs independently from the OS

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Questions 60

Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

Options:

A.

cybercriminals

B.

state-affiliated groups

C.

hacktivists

D.

cyberterrorists

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Questions 61

Which technique uses file sharing or an instant messenger client such as Meebo running over Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?

Options:

A.

Use of non-standard ports

B.

Hiding within SSL encryption

C.

Port hopping

D.

Tunneling within commonly used services

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Questions 62

What does “forensics” refer to in a Security Operations process?

Options:

A.

Collecting raw data needed to complete the detailed analysis of an investigation

B.

Validating cyber analysts’ backgrounds before hiring

C.

Reviewing information about a broad range of activities

D.

Analyzing new IDS/IPS platforms for an enterprise

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Questions 63

What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

is hardened against cyber attacks

B.

runs without any vulnerability issues

C.

runs within an operating system

D.

allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer

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Questions 64

What role do containers play in cloud migration and application management strategies?

Options:

A.

They enable companies to use cloud-native tools and methodologies.

B.

They are used for data storage in cloud environments.

C.

They serve as a template manager for software applications and services.

D.

They are used to orchestrate virtual machines (VMs) in cloud environments.

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Questions 65

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

Options:

A.

Department of Homeland Security

B.

MITRE

C.

Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance

D.

Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

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Questions 66

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

Options:

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

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Questions 67

Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?

Options:

A.

192.168.19.0

B.

192.168.19.16

C.

192.168.19.64

D.

192.168.19.32

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Questions 68

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

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Exam Code: Practitioner
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP)
Last Update: Jan 8, 2026
Questions: 227

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