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CTFL_Syll_4.0 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask theuser to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[II]. Expected result

[III]. Actual result

[IV]. Test level

[V]. Root cause

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to correctly specify in a defect report?

Options:

A.

[I]and [IV]

B.

[II]and [III]

C.

[II]. [Ill] and [V]

D.

[I]. [IV] and [V]

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Questions 5

The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y

A)

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 5

B)

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 5

C)

D)

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 5

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 6

Which ONE of the following options BEST characterizes the Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) approach?

Options:

A.

Derives tests from acceptance criteria as part of the system design process. Tests are written before the part of the application is developed to satisfy the tests. Tests may persist as automated tests to ensure the code quality in future adaptions/refactoring.

B.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

C.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Preconditions/Input Values/Process/Output Values/Postconditions format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

D.

Derives tests from acceptance criteria as part of the system design process. Tests are written before the part of the application is developed to satisfy the tests. Tests will persist as automated tests to ensure code maintainability in future adaptions/refactoring.

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Questions 7

Consider an estimation session where a six-member Agile team (Memb1, ... , Memb6) is performing a planning poker session to estimate a user story (in story points). Team

members are using a set of cards with the following values: 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21. Below is the outcome produced by the first round of estimation for this session:

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 7

Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?

Options:

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of all the estimates made by the team members during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

B.

The final estimation of the user story in story points is determined as the most frequent estimate value among those selected by the team members (in this case 3 story points chosen by Memb1, Memb2, Memb3, Memb5) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of the most optimistic estimate (chosen by Memb6) and the most pessimistic estimate (chosen by Memb4) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

D.

Memb4 and Memb6, which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all team members before to proceed to another round of estimation

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Questions 8

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

Options:

A.

Be able to apply test-driven development

B.

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

C.

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

D.

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

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Questions 9

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is true?

Options:

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

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Questions 10

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

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Questions 11

Which of the following statements about traceability is false?

Options:

A.

Traceability between test basis items and thetest casesdesigned tocover them,makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executedtest cases

B.

Traceability between test basis items and thetest casesdesigned tocover them,enablesexperience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and thetest casesdesigned tocover them,enablesidentification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basisitems

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained throughall test documentation for a giventest level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts

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Questions 12

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

Options:

A.

9,5001

B.

10,5000

C.

9,10,11,4999,5000,5001

D.

9,10,5000,5001

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Questions 13

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumeric characters, and its first character must be a letter. As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID.

What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.

7

B.

6

C.

5

D.

3

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Questions 14

What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Structural testing

C.

Integration testing

D.

Exploratory testing

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Questions 15

You are a test manager responsible for implementing risk-based testing in your organization which deals with software in the healthcare domain. You are writing a handbook of various product risk mitigation options. Which ONE of the following options correctly represent the correct mitigation options?

Options:

A.

Choosing a tool for automated unit testing to reduce the risks

B.

Using a third party testing company to transfer the risk to that company

C.

Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards

D.

Increasing the number of testers to be able to take care of all the risks

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Questions 16

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

Options:

A.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

B.

Defines test cases at a low level, close to the implementation, using unit test frameworks.

C.

Is primarily focused on non-functional testing techniques to ensure system reliability and performance.

D.

Requires testing to be performed after development is completed to validate software functionality.

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Questions 17

Your organization's test strategy states that it is desirable to usemore than one method for estimating test effort. You are responsible for estimating test effort for the next project. Based on historical data, thedevelopment-to-test effort ratiois5:3.

The initial estimate for thedevelopment effort is 450 person-days.

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to the estimatedtest effortusing the ratio-based method?

Options:

A.

750 person-days

B.

180 person-days

C.

720 person-days

D.

270 person-days

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Questions 18

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which acollective authorship processgenerates a shared vision of user stories?

Options:

A.

Product owner, development, and testing

B.

Business, architecture, and testing

C.

Business, development, and testing

D.

Business, development, and acceptance testing

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Questions 19

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

Options:

A.

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.

It is an example of DevOps related tools

C.

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

D.

It is an example of test implementation tool

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Questions 20

In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users’ expectations. This approach is especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which one?

Options:

A.

Tests wear out

B.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

C.

Working software over comprehensive documentation

D.

Defects cluster together

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Questions 21

Which of the following statement about the shift-left approach is false?

Options:

A.

The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

B.

The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices

C.

The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

D.

The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools

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Questions 22

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

Options:

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

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Questions 23

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

Options:

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

D.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

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Questions 24

In a review, which of the following is the responsibility of the manager?

Options:

A.

Organizing the logistics of the review meeting

B.

Measuring the performance of each reviewer

C.

Ensuring that sufficient time is available for review

D.

Performing detailed review based on past experience

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Questions 25

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about error guessing?

Options:

A.

While reviewing the test cases, testers have to make guess about the kind of mistakes test cases might contain

B.

Error guessing doesn't make use of past failures as past failures are not indicators of correct defects

C.

Fault attacks are an example of a technique for implementing error guessing.

D.

Error guessing depends on the developers guessing what mistakes testers might make and miss the possible defects

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Questions 26

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?

Options:

A.

Test design

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test implementation

D.

Test execution

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Questions 27

Which ONE of the following options CORRECTLY describes one of the seven principles of the testing process?

Options:

A.

The objective of testing is to implement exhaustive testing and execute as many test cases as possible.

B.

Exhaustive testing can only be carried out using behavior-based techniques.

C.

It is impossible to test all possible combinations of inputs and preconditions of a system.

D.

Automated testing enables exhaustive testing.

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Questions 28

Which ONE of the following tools would be MOST SUITABLE for facilitating thecreation of test cases, test data, and test procedures?

Options:

A.

Test design and implementation toolsare specifically designed for creating test cases, test data, and test procedures.

B.

Static testing toolsas they assist the tester in conducting reviews and static analysis.

C.

DevOps tools, as they support the automated build process and CI/CD.

D.

Test execution and coverage toolsfacilitate the automated execution of tests and the measurement of test coverage.

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Questions 29

Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product:

1.Risk register

2.Risk information

3.Test cases

4.Test conditions

Category of work products:

Options:

A.

Test planning work products

B.

Test analysis work products.

C.

Test design work products

D.

Test monitoring and control work products

E.

1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

F.

1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

G.

1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

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Questions 30

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

Options:

A.

12

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

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Questions 31

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Configuration Management Tool

B.

Incident Management Tool

C.

Backup tool

D.

Test Execution tool

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Questions 32

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

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Questions 33

Which ONE of the following is a characteristic of exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Effectiveness depends on the individual testers' skills

B.

Usually conducted when there is sufficient time for testing

C.

Test cases are written once the specifications become available

D.

Testing without defined time-boxes

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Questions 34

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes thethird test quadrant (Q3)?

Options:

A.

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

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Questions 35

Given some statements about independence of testing

i.Independence is a replacement for familiarity with the code

ii.Independence helps remove the biases produced because of own work

iii.Similar kind of failures can be detected by anyone

iv.Assumptions by different people are different revealing weaknesses Which of the following CORRECTLY represents the benefits?

Options:

A.

ii and iv

B.

i and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

iii and iv

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Questions 36

Confirmation testing is performed after:

Options:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Questions 37

Which ONE of the following roles is responsible for mediating, managing time, and generating a safe review environment in which everyone can speak freely?

Options:

A.

Manager

B.

Reviewer

C.

Review leader

D.

Moderator

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Questions 38

Which ONE of the following statements about maintenance testing is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is performed exclusively for adaptive maintenance.

B.

Maintenance testing is only required when defects are reported in production.

C.

Maintenance testing should be performed when enhancements, fixes, or updates are applied to an existing system.

D.

Maintenance testing does not require test cases since it focuses solely on defect verification.

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Questions 39

Which of the following types of tools is best suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerization tool

B.

Fault seeding tool

C.

Static analysis tool

D.

Test data preparation tool

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Questions 40

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLYNOTpart of atest progress report?

Options:

A.

Obstacles and their workarounds

B.

A detailed assessment of product quality

C.

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

D.

New or changed risks

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Questions 41

You are working on creating test cases for a user story -

As a customer, I want to be able to book an ISTQB exam for a particular date, so that I can find choose my time slot and pay the correct amount, including discounts, if any.

The acceptance criteria for this :

1.The dates shown should be from the current date to 2 years in future

2.Initially there should be 10 timeslots available for each day, 1 hour each, starting at 8 AM GMT

3.Maximum 5 persons should be able to select a time slot after which that time slot should become unavailable

4.First timeslot should have a 10% discount.

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

Options:

A.

Logon to the site and book an exam for the 8 AM (GMT) timeslot. Expected result: You should get 10% discounted price. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: Discount should be removed

B.

Logon to the site. Book 5 exams for the current date. Expected result: Exams should be booked. Book 6th timeslot for the same date. Expected result: The exam should be booked but no discount should be given.

C.

Logon to the site. Expected result: Default 8 AM (GMT) timeslot should be selected. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: New slot should be booked

D.

Logon to the site. Book an exam for the current date. Expected result: timeslots should be shown. Change the time to any other date prior to the selected date. Expected result: New slot should become visible.

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Questions 42

Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

Options:

A.

The developer

B.

The customer

C.

The development manager

D.

The test leader

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Questions 43

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

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Questions 44

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 44

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

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Questions 45

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B.

When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets

C.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

D.

In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis

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Questions 46

Which of the following is not an example of a typical content of a test completion report for a test project?

Options:

A.

The additional effort spent on test execution compared to what was planned

B.

The unexpected test environment downtime that resulted in slower test execution

C.

The residual risk level if a risk-based test approach was adopted

D.

The test procedures of all test cases that have been executed

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Questions 47

An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test. While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met. This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed.

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

B.

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error

C.

The slowdown is an error the memory leak is a defect

D.

The slowdown is a defect the memory leak is a failure

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Questions 48

Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a video poker game:

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 48

What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting In the "Start" state and ending In the "End" state?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 49

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes the activities of “testing” and “debugging”?

Options:

A.

Testing triggers a failure that is caused by a defect in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this failure (defects), analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.

B.

Testing triggers a failure that is caused by a defect in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this failure (defects), analyzing these causes, and reproducing them.

C.

Testing identifies a defect that is caused by an error in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this defect, analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.

D.

Testing triggers a defect that is caused by an error in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this defect, analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.

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Questions 50

Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

Options:

A.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

B.

Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment

C.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

D.

Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

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Questions 51

Which ONE of the following options is a practice that does NOT TYPICALLY correspond to a shift left approach?

Options:

A.

Using continuous integration (CI) and even better continuous delivery (CD).

B.

Reviewing the specification from the perspective of testing.

C.

Write the test cases before writing the code and run the code in a test harness during code implementation.

D.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

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Questions 52

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you need to decide on the order of test execution. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of test execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Test CasePriorityDependencies

Test A3-

Test B1TestD

TestC2Test A

Test D3•

Options:

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

D-A-B-C

D.

C-B-A-D

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Questions 53

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

Options:

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

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Questions 54

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Questions 55

Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Determining the people who will be involved in the review

B.

Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

C.

Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

D.

Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

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Questions 56

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

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Questions 57

Calculate the measurement error SD for the following estimates done using three point estimation technique-

Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days

Most likely effort (m) -180 person days

Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days

Options:

A.

20

B.

180

C.

197

D.

120

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Questions 58

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of the test plan?

Options:

A.

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

C.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

D.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

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Questions 59

Scenario 2 “Big Drop”:

A company“The Big Drop”providesbulk discounts and frequent customer discountsas follows:

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 59

How manypossible decision rulescan be extracted from this table?

Options:

A.

5 decision rules

B.

6 decision rules

C.

32 decision rules

D.

8 decision rules

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Questions 60

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages

[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems

[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

B.

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C.

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D.

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

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Exam Code: CTFL_Syll_4.0
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0
Last Update: Sep 11, 2025
Questions: 200

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