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FPGEE Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Questions and Answers

Questions 4

With respect to bioalence, the parameter “Cmax” is:

Options:

A.

Affected by the extent of absorption only.

B.

Affected by the rate of absorption only.

C.

Affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption.

D.

Affected by both rate and extent of absorption.

E.

The only significant parameter.

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Questions 5

Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

fluid retention

B.

headache

C.

hypertension

D.

constipation

E.

depression

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Questions 6

All are examples of corticosteroids inhalers used in asthma, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Beclometasone

B.

Sodium cromoglycate

C.

Flunisolide

D.

Fluticasone

E.

Budesonide

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Questions 7

Biceps muscles are part of:

I the arm

II the thigh

III the rib cage

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 8

In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates:

Options:

A.

Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement

B.

Specifically reverse the cause of the disease

C.

Provide only analgesic effect

D.

Are effective because they are uricosuric agents

E.

Are more effective when given with allopurinol

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Questions 9

The MOST well known characteristic symptom of asthma include:

Options:

A.

Wheezing

B.

Mucosal edema

C.

Cough

D.

Chest tightness

E.

Tachycardia

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Questions 10

Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include:

I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule

II the presence of surfactants in the formulation

III the type of ointment base

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 11

Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity:

Options:

A.

oxazepam

B.

nitrazepam

C.

diazepam

D.

triazolam

E.

clonazepam

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Questions 12

In some parenteral formulations, sodium metabisulphite is included as:

Options:

A.

an antioxidant

B.

a chelator

C.

a solubilizer

D.

a cosolvent

E.

an emulsifier

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Questions 13

A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication:

Options:

A.

in the refrigerator

B.

in a plastic vial with a childproof cap

C.

with the original cotton

D.

in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap

E.

in a warm, dry place

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Questions 14

Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it:

I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds.

II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction.

III decreases the force of myocardial contraction.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 15

The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by:

I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant

II the free drug concentration

III the total receptor concentration

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 16

Factors that determine bioalence of two brands of a drug include:

I the taste of the preparations

II the physical appearance of the preparations

III pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 17

Class of pectin is:

Options:

A.

Analgesics

B.

Glucocorticosteroids

C.

Methylxanthines

D.

Antidiarrheal agents

E.

Antiarrhythmic agents

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Questions 18

Mechanism of action of PAS is:

Options:

A.

Activates antithrombin III

B.

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

C.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

D.

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

E.

beta-1 antagonist

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Questions 19

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of sulfametoxazole?

Options:

A.

Inhibit protein synthesis

B.

Inhibit cell growth by competitive antagonism with folic acid synthesis

C.

Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

D.

Alter the function of cell membrane permeability

E.

Inhibit translation of genetic information

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Questions 20

Mechanism of action of salbutamol is:

Options:

A.

opiate agonist

B.

Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing

C.

beta-2 agonist

D.

Inhibits phospholipase A2

E.

Inhibits phospholipase C

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Questions 21

Which of the following is NOT an anti-fungal drug?

Options:

A.

Amphotericin B

B.

Metronidazole

C.

Griseofulvin

D.

Nystatin

E.

Clotrimazole

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Questions 22

Otitis extern, an ear infection may be best is best treated by:

Options:

A.

Ciprofloxacin eardrop

B.

Gentamicin eardrop

C.

Prednisone eardrop

D.

Levobunolol eardrop

E.

Saline solution

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Questions 23

Subclass of tolbutamide is:

Options:

A.

Sulfonylureas

B.

Organic nitrates

C.

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

D.

Potassium channel agonists

E.

Biguanides

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Questions 24

Class of urokinase is:

Options:

A.

Sedatives

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Antimycobacterial

D.

Antidepressants

E.

Thrombolytics

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Questions 25

Side effect of triamcinolone is:

Options:

A.

Asthma

B.

Nausea

C.

Cataracts

D.

Anxiety

E.

Hyperglycemia

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Questions 26

Subclass of norfloxacin is:

Options:

A.

III

B.

Fluoroquinolones

C.

IC

D.

Bulk-forming laxatives

E.

II

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Questions 27

Indication of norepinephrine is:

Options:

A.

Life-threatening ventricular tachyarrhythmias

B.

Cardiac stimulation

C.

Decongestant

D.

Hypertension

E.

Asthma

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Questions 28

Drugs used in the treatment of meningitis are all of the following, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Penicillins

B.

Cephalosporins

C.

Gentamycin

D.

Streptomycin

E.

Sulfonamides

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Questions 29

The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Pyridoxine

C.

Folic acid

D.

Niacin

E.

Cyanocobalamin

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Questions 30

Class of ranitidine is:

Options:

A.

Vasodilators

B.

Sulfonamides

C.

Tetracyclines

D.

H2 antagonists

E.

Antimycobacterial

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Questions 31

All of the following penicillins are acid label penicillins, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Penicillin V

B.

Penicillin G

C.

Methicillin

D.

Nafcillin

E.

Carbenicillin

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Questions 32

Which of the following statement is RIGHT regarding influenza treatment?

I- Type A influenza is best treated by amantadine and rimantadine

II- Type B influenza is best treated by oseltamivir and zenamivir

III- Influenza should not be treated with antiviral agents

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 33

Class of nystatin is:

Options:

A.

Thiazides

B.

Antiprotozoan agents

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Polyenes

E.

Oral hypoglycemics

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Questions 34

Mechanism of action of amyl nitrite is:

Options:

A.

dopamine antagonist

B.

Unknown

C.

Holds water in stool

D.

Potassium channel agonist

E.

Stimulates guanylate cyclase

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Questions 35

Mechanism of action of neomycin is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

B.

Blocks K channels

C.

Blocks Na channels

D.

Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome

E.

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

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Questions 36

Effect of diltiazem is:

Options:

A.

May increase heart rate

B.

Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

C.

May decrease heart rate

D.

Inhibits basal gastric acid secretion

E.

Decreases AV conduction

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Questions 37

Route of administration of methadone is:

Options:

A.

Subcutaneous

B.

Inhalation

C.

Intrathecal

D.

Oral

E.

Transdermal

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Questions 38

Which Cytochrome P450 isozyme does not participate appreciably in drug metabolism?

Options:

A.

CYP1A2

B.

CYP2C9

C.

CYP3A4

D.

CYP51

E.

All are drug metabolizing isoforms

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Questions 39

In a zero order elimination process, which of the following is true?

Options:

A.

The removal of drug is independent of drug concentration

B.

Cl = Elimination rate/Cp

C.

t1/2 = .7VD/Cl

D.

All are true

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Questions 40

Side effect of nedocromil is:

Options:

A.

Growth retardation in children

B.

Thiocyanate poisoning

C.

Neuromuscular paralysis

D.

Nausea

E.

Dysphonia

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Questions 41

A drug ending in the suffix (tidine. is considered a ______.

Options:

A.

Antidepressant

B.

Protease inhibitor

C.

Beta antagonist

D.

H2 antagonist

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Questions 42

Class of nitrogen mustard is:

Options:

A.

Aquaretics

B.

Alkylating agents

C.

Lipid lowering drugs

D.

Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

E.

Antivirals

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Questions 43

Class of famciclovir is:

Options:

A.

NSAID

B.

Antidepressants

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Antivirals

E.

Oral hypoglycemics

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Questions 44

Which of the following enzymes could directly act on codeine?

Options:

A.

Glucuronyl transferase

B.

Sulfotransferase

C.

Glutathione transferase

D.

A & B

E.

All of the above

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Questions 45

Which of the following enzymes could metabolize ethanol?

Options:

A.

Cytochrome P450

B.

Alcohol Dehydrogenase

C.

Glucuronyl Transferase

D.

Sulfotransferase

E.

All of the above

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Questions 46

Interactions with other drugs of clonazepam is:

Options:

A.

Lactose: increases absorption

B.

meperidine

C.

Tricyclic antidepressants: potentiate sedation

D.

cis-platinum - augments nephrotoxicity

E.

Oral contraceptives: inhibit metabolism

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Questions 47

Mechanism of action of enalapril is:

Options:

A.

serotonin reuptake inhibitor

B.

Inhibits bone resorption

C.

beta-2 agonist

D.

Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme

E.

Induces "freezing" of initiation complex

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Questions 48

Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Options:

A.

Propafenone

B.

Disopyramide

C.

Aminodarone

D.

Quinidine

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Questions 49

Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid?

Options:

A.

Methionine

B.

Argenine

C.

Leucine

D.

Tryptophan

E.

Glycine

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Questions 50

The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order:

Options:

A.

when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km.

B.

when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration.

C.

when Vmax is much smaller than Km.

D.

when Vmax is much larger than Km.

E.

when Km approaches Vmax.

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Questions 51

Correct statements regarding mutation may include:

I- Cell division

II- Change in genotype

III- Change in DNA replication altering the gene

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 52

Which of the following is the end product of AEROBIC reactions?

Options:

A.

Pyruvic acid

B.

CO2

C.

CO2 + H2O

D.

Lactic acid

E.

Proteins

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Questions 53

Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of:

Options:

A.

glutathione conjugates.

B.

glucuronide conjugates.

C.

glycine conjugates.

D.

glutamate conjugates.

E.

sulfate conjugates.

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Questions 54

Which of the following agent is classified as lincosamide antibiotic?

Options:

A.

Tetracycline

B.

Aminoglycosides

C.

Vancomycin

D.

Cloramphenicol

E.

Clindamycin

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Questions 55

Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism?

Options:

A.

Maltase

B.

Sucrose

C.

Glucose

D.

Cellulose

E.

Frutose

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Questions 56

Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to:

Options:

A.

30s ribosomal subunit only

B.

50s ribosomal subunit only

C.

70s ribosomal subunit only

D.

30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits

E.

30s and 70s ribosomal subunits

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Questions 57

The blood volume of the average adult is approximately:

Options:

A.

5 L

B.

10 L

C.

15 L

D.

20 L

E.

25 L

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Questions 58

Biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions that maintain human life process:

Options:

A.

Nucleic acid

B.

Amino acids

C.

Carbohydrates

D.

Oligopeptides

E.

Enzymes

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Questions 59

Antioxidants, which mechanistically act as reducing agents, include:

I ascorbic acid

II sodium bisulfite

III citric acid

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 60

The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Kreb’s cycle metabolites is an anabolic process called:

Options:

A.

Glycogenolysis

B.

Glycolysis

C.

Glycogenesis

D.

Gluconeogenesis

E.

None of the above

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Questions 61

Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of one group to other group is called:

Options:

A.

Oxidoreductase enzymes

B.

Transferase enzymes

C.

Hydrolyses enzymes

D.

Isomerasis enzymes

E.

Lyasis enzymes

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Questions 62

Which of the following amino acid is an important precursor of hemoglobin?

Options:

A.

Alanine

B.

Proline

C.

Leucine

D.

Glycin

E.

Histadin

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Questions 63

The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in:

Options:

A.

RBCs

B.

Reticulum Endothelial

C.

Liver

D.

Kidney

E.

Pancreas

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Exam Code: FPGEE
Exam Name: Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination
Last Update: May 18, 2024
Questions: 426

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