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250-580 Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What EDR feature provides endpoint activity recorder data for a file hash?

Options:

A.

Process Dump

B.

Entity Dump

C.

Hash Dump

D.

Full Dump

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Questions 5

Which EDR feature is used to search for real-time indicators of compromise?

Options:

A.

Domain search

B.

Endpoint search

C.

Cloud Database search

D.

Device Group search

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Questions 6

Which antimalware intensity level is defined by the following: "Blocks files that are most certainly bad or potentially bad files results in a comparable number of false positives and false negatives."

Options:

A.

Level 6

B.

Level 5

C.

Level 2

D.

Level 1

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Questions 7

What are the two (2) locations where an Incident Responder should gather data for an After Actions Report in SEDR? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Incident Manager

B.

Policies

C.

Syslog

D.

Action Manager

E.

Endpoint Search

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Questions 8

In what order should an administrator configure the integration between SEDR and Symantec Endpoint Protection in order to maximize their benefits?

Options:

A.

Synapse, ECC, then Insight Proxy

B.

ECC, Synapse, then Insight Proxy

C.

Insight Proxy, Synapse, then ECC

D.

ECC, Insight Proxy, then Synapse

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Questions 9

Which Incident View widget shows the parent-child relationship of related security events?

Options:

A.

The Incident Summary Widget

B.

The Process Lineage Widget

C.

The Events Widget

D.

The Incident Graph Widget

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Questions 10

What does a ranged query return or exclude?

Options:

A.

Data matching the exact field names and their values

B.

Data matching a regular expression

C.

Data falling between two specified values of a given field

D.

Data based on specific values for a given field

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Questions 11

What type of Threat Defense for Active Directory alarms are displayed after domain misconfigurations or hidden backdoors are detected?

Options:

A.

Computer Information Gathering

B.

Pass-The-Ticket

C.

Credential Theft

D.

Dark Corners

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Questions 12

Which technique randomizes the memory address map with Memory Exploit Mitigation?

Options:

A.

ForceDEP

B.

SEHOP

C.

ASLR

D.

ROPHEAP

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Questions 13

How does IPS check custom signatures?

Options:

A.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine continues checking for other signatures.

B.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine restarts checking for signatures.

C.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine stops checking other signatures.

D.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine logs the other signatures.

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Questions 14

What should an administrator utilize to identify devices on a Mac?

Options:

A.

UseDevViewerwhen the Device is connected.

B.

Use Devicelnfo when the Device is connected.

C.

UseDevice Managerwhen the Device is connected.

D.

UseGatherSymantecInfowhen the Device is connected.

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Questions 15

An Application Control policy includes an Allowed list and a Blocked list. A user wants to use an application that is neither on the Allowed list nor on the Blocked list. What can the user do to gain access to the application?

Options:

A.

Email the App Control Admin

B.

Request an Override

C.

Install the application

D.

Wait for the Application Drift process to complete

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Questions 16

Which two (2) scan range options are available to an administrator for locating unmanaged endpoints? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Entire Network

B.

IP range within the network

C.

Subnet Range

D.

IP range within the subnet

E.

Entire Subnet

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Questions 17

What does an end-user receive when an administrator utilizes the Invite User feature to distribute the SES client?

Options:

A.

An email with the SES_setup.zip file attached

B.

An email with a link to register on the ICDm user portal

C.

An email with a link to directly download the SES client

D.

An email with a link to a KB article explaining how to install the SES Agent

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Questions 18

How would an administrator specify which remote consoles and servers have access to the management server?

Options:

A.

Edit theServer Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change theServer Communication Permission.

B.

Edit theCommunication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

C.

EdittheExternal Communication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

D.

Edit theSite Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change the server priority.

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Questions 19

What must be entered before downloading a file from ICDm?

Options:

A.

Name

B.

Password

C.

Hash

D.

Date

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Questions 20

Which security threat stage seeks to gather valuable data and upload it to a compromised system?

Options:

A.

Exfiltration

B.

Impact

C.

Lateral Movement

D.

Command and Control

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Questions 21

Which alert rule category includes events that are generated about the cloud console?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

System

C.

Diagnostic

D.

Application Activity

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Questions 22

What prevention technique does Threat Defense for Active Directory use to expose attackers?

Options:

A.

Process Monitoring

B.

Obfuscation

C.

Honeypot Traps

D.

Packet Tracing

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Questions 23

Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?

Options:

A.

Push Enrollment

B.

Auto Discovery

C.

Push Discovery

D.

Device Enrollment

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Questions 24

Which Endpoint Setting should an administrator utilize to locate unmanaged endpoints on a network subnet?

Options:

A.

Device Discovery

B.

Endpoint Enrollment

C.

Discover and Deploy

D.

Discover Endpoints

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Questions 25

The LiveUpdate Download Schedule is set to the default on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM).

How many content revisions must the SEPM keep to ensure clients that check in to the SEPM every 10 days receive xdelta content packages instead of full content packages?

Options:

A.

10

B.

20

C.

30

D.

60

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Questions 26

Which default role has the most limited permission in the Integrated Cyber Defense Manager?

Options:

A.

Endpoint Console Domain Administrator

B.

Server Administrator

C.

Restricted Administrator

D.

Limited Administrator

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Questions 27

What tool can administrators use to create custom behavioral isolation policies based on collected application behavior data?

Options:

A.

Behavioral Prevalence Check

B.

Behavioral Heat Map

C.

Application Catalog

D.

Application Frequency Map

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Questions 28

Which security control is complementary to IPS, providing a second layer of protection against network attacks?

Options:

A.

Host Integrity

B.

Network Protection

C.

Antimalware

D.

Firewall

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Questions 29

How would an administrator specify which remote consoles and servers have access to the management server?

Options:

A.

Edit theServer Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change theServer Communication Permission.

B.

Edit theCommunication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

C.

EdittheExternal Communication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

D.

Edit theSite Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change the server priority.

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Questions 30

An organization recently experienced an outbreak and is conducting a health check of the environment. What Protection Technology can the SEP team enable to control and monitor the behavior of applications?

Options:

A.

Host Integrity

B.

System Lockdown

C.

Application Control

D.

Behavior Monitoring (SONAR)

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Questions 31

A file has been identified as malicious.

Which feature of SEDR allows an administrator to manually block a specific file hash?

Options:

A.

Playbooks

B.

Quarantine

C.

Allow List

D.

Block List

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Questions 32

What does a ranged query return or exclude?

Options:

A.

Data matching the exact field names and their values

B.

Data matching a regular expression

C.

Data falling between two specified values of a given field

D.

Data based on specific values for a given field

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Questions 33

Which ICDm role is required in order to use LiveShell?

Options:

A.

Security Analyst

B.

Administrator

C.

Viewer

D.

Any

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Questions 34

What does the Endpoint Communication Channel (ECC) 2.0 allow Symantec EDR to directly connect to?

Options:

A.

SEDR Cloud Console

B.

Synapse

C.

SEP Endpoints

D.

SEPM

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Questions 35

What is the purpose of a Threat Defense for Active Directory Deceptive Account?

Options:

A.

It prevents attackers from reading the contents of the Domain Admins Group.

B.

It assigns a fake NTLM password hash value for users with an assigned AdminCount attribute.

C.

It exposes attackers as they seek to gather credential information from workstation memory.

D.

It acts as a honeypot to expose attackers as they attempt to build their AD treasure map

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Questions 36

Which two (2) criteria are used by Symantec Insight to evaluate binary executables? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

Sensitivity

B.

Prevalence

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Content

E.

Age

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Questions 37

Which Endpoint Setting should an administrator utilize to locate unmanaged endpoints on a network subnet?

Options:

A.

Device Discovery

B.

Endpoint Enrollment

C.

Discover and Deploy

D.

Discover Endpoints

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Questions 38

Which two (2) security controls are utilized by an administrator to mitigate threats associated with the Discovery phase? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

IPS

C.

Antimalware

D.

Blacklist

E.

E.Device Control

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Questions 39

What information is required to calculate retention rate?

Options:

A.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

B.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

C.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

D.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

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Questions 40

An organization is considering a single site for their Symantec Endpoint Protection environment. What are two (2) reasons that the organization should consider? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Organizational merger

B.

Sufficient WAN bandwidth

C.

Delay-free, centralized reporting

D.

24x7 admin availability

E.

E.Legal constraints

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Questions 41

What happens when an administrator adds a file to the deny list?

Options:

A.

The file is assigned to a chosen Deny List policy

B.

The file is assigned to the Deny List task list

C.

The file is automatically quarantined

D.

The file is assigned to the default Deny List policy

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Questions 42

Which type of security threat is used by attackers to exploit vulnerable applications?

Options:

A.

Lateral Movement

B.

Privilege Escalation

C.

Credential Access

D.

Command and Control

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Questions 43

What is an appropriate use of a file fingerprint list?

Options:

A.

Allow unknown files to be downloaded with Insight

B.

Prevent programs from running

C.

Prevent Antivirus from scanning a file

D.

Allow files to bypass Intrusion Prevention detection

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Questions 44

The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?

Options:

A.

Enable port scan detection

B.

Automatically block an attacker's IP address

C.

Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops

D.

Enable denial of service detection

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Questions 45

What is the timeout for the file deletion command in SEDR?

Options:

A.

2 Days

B.

7 Days

C.

72 Hours

D.

5 Days

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Exam Code: 250-580
Exam Name: Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist
Last Update: Oct 6, 2025
Questions: 150

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