Which antimalware intensity level is defined by the following: "Blocks files that are most certainly bad or potentially bad files results in a comparable number of false positives and false negatives."
What are the two (2) locations where an Incident Responder should gather data for an After Actions Report in SEDR? (Select two)
In what order should an administrator configure the integration between SEDR and Symantec Endpoint Protection in order to maximize their benefits?
Which Incident View widget shows the parent-child relationship of related security events?
What type of Threat Defense for Active Directory alarms are displayed after domain misconfigurations or hidden backdoors are detected?
Which technique randomizes the memory address map with Memory Exploit Mitigation?
An Application Control policy includes an Allowed list and a Blocked list. A user wants to use an application that is neither on the Allowed list nor on the Blocked list. What can the user do to gain access to the application?
Which two (2) scan range options are available to an administrator for locating unmanaged endpoints? (Select two)
What does an end-user receive when an administrator utilizes the Invite User feature to distribute the SES client?
How would an administrator specify which remote consoles and servers have access to the management server?
Which security threat stage seeks to gather valuable data and upload it to a compromised system?
Which alert rule category includes events that are generated about the cloud console?
What prevention technique does Threat Defense for Active Directory use to expose attackers?
Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?
Which Endpoint Setting should an administrator utilize to locate unmanaged endpoints on a network subnet?
The LiveUpdate Download Schedule is set to the default on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM).
How many content revisions must the SEPM keep to ensure clients that check in to the SEPM every 10 days receive xdelta content packages instead of full content packages?
Which default role has the most limited permission in the Integrated Cyber Defense Manager?
What tool can administrators use to create custom behavioral isolation policies based on collected application behavior data?
Which security control is complementary to IPS, providing a second layer of protection against network attacks?
How would an administrator specify which remote consoles and servers have access to the management server?
An organization recently experienced an outbreak and is conducting a health check of the environment. What Protection Technology can the SEP team enable to control and monitor the behavior of applications?
A file has been identified as malicious.
Which feature of SEDR allows an administrator to manually block a specific file hash?
What does the Endpoint Communication Channel (ECC) 2.0 allow Symantec EDR to directly connect to?
What is the purpose of a Threat Defense for Active Directory Deceptive Account?
Which two (2) criteria are used by Symantec Insight to evaluate binary executables? (Select two.)
Which Endpoint Setting should an administrator utilize to locate unmanaged endpoints on a network subnet?
Which two (2) security controls are utilized by an administrator to mitigate threats associated with the Discovery phase? (Select two)
An organization is considering a single site for their Symantec Endpoint Protection environment. What are two (2) reasons that the organization should consider? (Select two)
Which type of security threat is used by attackers to exploit vulnerable applications?
The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?