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CFR-410 CyberSec First Responder (CFR) Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A company has noticed a trend of attackers gaining access to corporate mailboxes. Which of the following

would be the BEST action to take to plan for this kind of attack in the future?

Options:

A.

Scanning email server for vulnerabilities

B.

Conducting security awareness training

C.

Hardening the Microsoft Exchange Server

D.

Auditing account password complexity

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Questions 5

Senior management has stated that antivirus software must be installed on all employee workstations. Which

of the following does this statement BEST describe?

Options:

A.

Guideline

B.

Procedure

C.

Policy

D.

Standard

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Questions 6

What is the definition of a security breach?

Options:

A.

An event or series of correlated events that indicate a potential violation of some control or policy.

B.

Unauthorized access that violates the authentication, authorization, and accounting of an information asset through intentional access, destruction, or manipulation of an information asset.

C.

An event or series of uncorrelated events that indicate a potential violation of some control or policy has occurred.

D.

Unauthorized access that violates the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an information asset in the form of unintentional access, destruction, or manipulation of an information asset.

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Questions 7

What are three examples of incident response? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Dealing with systems that are suspected to be used to commit a crime

B.

Collecting data from computer media

C.

Dealing with systems suspected to be the victim of a crime

D.

Analyzing a system

E.

Threat Modeling

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Questions 8

Which two answer options correctly highlight the difference between static and dynamic binary analysis techniques? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Dynamic analysis tells everything the program can do. and static analysis tells exactly what the program does when it is executed in a given environment and with a particular input.

B.

Static analysis tells everything the program can do. and dynamic analysis tells exactly what the program does when it is executed in a given environment and with a particular input.

C.

Dynamic analysis examines the binary without executing it, while static analysis executes the program and observes its behavior.

D.

Static analysis examines the binary without executing it. while dynamic analysis executes the program and observes its behavior.

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Questions 9

When performing a vulnerability assessment from outside the perimeter, which of the following network devices is MOST likely to skew the scan results?

Options:

A.

Access Point

B.

Router

C.

Firewall

D.

IDS

E.

Switch

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Questions 10

When tracing an attack to the point of origin, which of the following items is critical data to map layer 2 switching?

Options:

A.

DNS cache

B.

ARP cache

C.

CAM table

D.

NAT table

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Questions 11

Which of the following plans helps IT security staff detect, respond to, and recover from a cyber attack?

Options:

A.

Data Recovery Plan

B.

Incident Response Plan

C.

Disaster Recovery Plan

D.

Business Impact Plan

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Questions 12

Nmap is a tool most commonly used to:

Options:

A.

Map a route for war-driving

B.

Determine who is logged onto a host

C.

Perform network and port scanning

D.

Scan web applications

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Questions 13

An employee discovered the default credentials in DB servers, which were found by using a word list of commonly used and default passwords in Hydra, the tool behind the Brute functionality. The use of the word list in Hydra is an example of what type of password cracking?

Options:

A.

Rainbow tables

B.

hashcat

C.

Markov chains

D.

Brute-force

E.

Dictionary attack

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Questions 14

What term means that data is valid and not corrupt?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Authorization

C.

Integrity

D.

Authentication

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Questions 15

Which of the following types of attackers would be MOST likely to use multiple zero-day exploits executed against high-value, well-defended targets for the purposes of espionage and sabotage?

Options:

A.

Cybercriminals

B.

Hacktivists

C.

State-sponsored hackers

D.

Cyberterrorist

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Questions 16

Which concept involves having more than one person required to complete a task?

Options:

A.

Separation of duties

B.

Mandatory access control

C.

Discretionary access control

D.

Least privilege

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Questions 17

Which common source of vulnerability should be addressed to BEST mitigate against URL redirection attacks?

Options:

A.

Application

B.

Users

C.

Network infrastructure

D.

Configuration files

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Questions 18

Recently, a cybersecurity research lab discovered that there is a hacking group focused on hacking into the computers of financial executives in Company A to sell the exfiltrated information to Company B. Which of the

following threat motives does this MOST likely represent?

Options:

A.

Desire for power

B.

Association/affiliation

C.

Reputation/recognition

D.

Desire for financial gain

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Questions 19

Which of the following is an automated password cracking technique that uses a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, 0-9 numbers, and special characters?

Options:

A.

Dictionary attack

B.

Password guessing

C.

Brute force attack

D.

Rainbow tables

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Questions 20

Detailed step-by-step instructions to follow during a security incident are considered:

Options:

A.

Policies

B.

Guidelines

C.

Procedures

D.

Standards

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Questions 21

A system administrator pulls records from a database that only requires the use of their general user vs. domain admin account. Use of the general user account demonstrates which of the following concepts?

Options:

A.

Discretionary Access Control

B.

Separation of Duties

C.

Least Privilege

D.

Privileged Access Management

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Questions 22

An incident response team is concerned with verifying the integrity of security information and event

management (SIEM) events after being written to disk. Which of the following represents the BEST option for addressing this concern?

Options:

A.

Time synchronization

B.

Log hashing

C.

Source validation

D.

Field name consistency

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Questions 23

Which of the following does the command nmap –open 10.10.10.3 do?

Options:

A.

Execute a scan on a single host, returning only open ports.

B.

Execute a scan on a subnet, returning detailed information on open ports.

C.

Execute a scan on a subnet, returning all hosts with open ports.

D.

Execute a scan on a single host, returning open services.

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Questions 24

Windows Server 2016 log files can be found in which of the following locations?

Options:

A.

C:\Windows\System\winevt\Logs

B.

C:\Windows\winevt\System32\Logs

C.

C:\Windows\System32\winevt\Logs

D.

C:\Windows\winevt\System\Logs

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Questions 25

While planning a vulnerability assessment on a computer network, which of the following is essential? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Identifying exposures

B.

Identifying critical assets

C.

Establishing scope

D.

Running scanning tools

E.

Installing antivirus software

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Questions 26

After a hacker obtained a shell on a Linux box, the hacker then sends the exfiltrated data via Domain Name System (DNS). This is an example of which type of data exfiltration?

Options:

A.

Covert channels

B.

File sharing services

C.

Steganography

D.

Rogue service

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Questions 27

During an audit, an organization's ability to establish key performance indicators for its service hosting solution is discovered to be weak. What could be the cause of this?

Options:

A.

Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture

B.

Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)

C.

Absence of a Business Intelligence (Bl) solution

D.

Inadequate Cost Modeling (CM)

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Questions 28

An administrator believes that a system on VLAN 12 is Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) poisoning clients on the network. The administrator attaches a system to VLAN 12 and uses Wireshark to capture traffic. After

reviewing the capture file, the administrator finds no evidence of ARP poisoning. Which of the following actions should the administrator take next?

Options:

A.

Clear the ARP cache on their system.

B.

Enable port mirroring on the switch.

C.

Filter Wireshark to only show ARP traffic.

D.

Configure the network adapter to promiscuous mode.

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Questions 29

What is the primary role of an intrusion detection system (IDS) on a network?

Options:

A.

Blocking malicious packets

B.

Detection of possible threats

C.

Detection of network vulnerabilities

D.

Detection of system failures

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Questions 30

During a malware-driven distributed denial of service attack, a security researcher found excessive requests to a name server referring to the same domain name and host name encoded in hexadecimal. The malware author used which type of command and control?

Options:

A.

Internet Relay Chat (IRC)

B.

Dnscat2

C.

Custom channel

D.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

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Questions 31

A first responder notices a file with a large amount of clipboard information stored in it. Which part of the MITRE ATT&CK matrix has the responder discovered?

Options:

A.

Collection

B.

Discovery

C.

Lateral movement

D.

Exfiltration

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Questions 32

Traditional SIEM systems provide:

Options:

A.

Unknown Attacks Analysis User Behavior Analysis and Network Anomalies

B.

Aggregation, Normalization, Correlation, and Alerting.

C.

Static Malware Analysis, Dynamic Malware Analysis, and Hybrid Malware Analysis.

D.

Privileged Identity Management. Privileged Access Management, and Identity and Access Management.

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Questions 33

What allows a company to restore normal business operations in a matter of minutes or seconds?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Warm site

C.

Mobile site

D.

Hot site

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Questions 34

Which two answer options are the BEST reasons to conduct post-incident reviews after an incident occurs in an organization? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

To help leverage automated scanning tools and ad hoc tests

B.

To help identify lessons learned and follow-up action.

C.

To help identify event detection information.

D.

To help prevent an incident recurrence.

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Questions 35

According to Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) compliance requirements, an organization must retain logs for what length of time?

Options:

A.

3 months

B.

6 months

C.

1 year

D.

5 years

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Questions 36

Which three tools are used for integrity verification of files? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

sha256sum

B.

ent

C.

pgp32

D.

md5sum

E.

md5deep

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Questions 37

During which phase of the incident response process should an organization develop policies and procedures for incident handling?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Preparation

C.

Identification

D.

Recovery

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Questions 38

Which service is commonly found on port 3306?

Options:

A.

BitTorrent

B.

MySQL

C.

MS-RPC

D.

Oracle SQL*Net Listener

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Questions 39

Which of the following is an essential component of a disaster recovery plan?

Options:

A.

Memorandums of agreement with vendors

B.

Product service agreements

C.

A dedicated incident response team

D.

Complete hardware and software inventories

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Questions 40

When attempting to determine which system or user is generating excessive web traffic, analysis of which of

the following would provide the BEST results?

Options:

A.

Browser logs

B.

HTTP logs

C.

System logs

D.

Proxy logs

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Questions 41

An incident responder discovers that the CEO logged in from their New York City office and then logged in from a location in Beijing an hour later. The incident responder suspects that the CEO’s account has been

compromised. Which of the following anomalies MOST likely contributed to the incident responder’s suspicion?

Options:

A.

Geolocation

B.

False positive

C.

Geovelocity

D.

Advanced persistent threat (APT) activity

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Questions 42

The "right to be forgotten" is considered a core tenet of which of the following privacy-focused acts or regulations?

Options:

A.

GDPR

B.

CCPA

C.

PPA

D.

HIPPA

E.

COPPA

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Questions 43

According to SANS, when should an incident retrospective be performed?

Options:

A.

After law enforcement has identified the perpetrators of the attack.

B.

Within six months following the end of the incident.

C.

No later than two weeks from the end of the incident.

D.

Immediately concluding eradication of the root cause

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Questions 44

Which of the following can increase an attack surface?

Options:

A.

Old or unused code

B.

Vulnerability scanning

C.

Mapping of an attack surface

D.

Penetration scanning

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Questions 45

A common formula used to calculate risk is:+ Threats + Vulnerabilities = Risk. Which of the following represents the missing factor in this formula?

Options:

A.

Exploits

B.

Security

C.

Asset

D.

Probability

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Questions 46

After a security breach, a security consultant is hired to perform a vulnerability assessment for a company’s web application. Which of the following tools would the consultant use?

Options:

A.

Nikto

B.

Kismet

C.

tcpdump

D.

Hydra

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Questions 47

A Windows system administrator has received notification from a security analyst regarding new malware that executes under the process name of “armageddon.exe” along with a request to audit all department workstations for its presence. In the absence of GUI-based tools, what command could the administrator execute to complete this task?

Options:

A.

ps -ef | grep armageddon

B.

top | grep armageddon

C.

wmic process list brief | find “armageddon.exe”

D.

wmic startup list full | find “armageddon.exe”

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Questions 48

What is the correct order of the DFIR phases?

CFR-410 Question 48

Options:

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Questions 49

A security analyst has discovered that an application has failed to run. Which of the following is the tool MOST

likely used by the analyst for the initial discovery?

Options:

A.

syslog

B.

MSConfig

C.

Event Viewer

D.

Process Monitor

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Questions 50

An incident at a government agency has occurred and the following actions were taken:

-Users have regained access to email accounts

-Temporary VPN services have been removed

-Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) and antivirus (AV) signatures have been updated

-Temporary email servers have been decommissioned

Which of the following phases of the incident response process match the actions taken?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Post-incident

C.

Recovery

D.

Identification

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Questions 51

A company that maintains a public city infrastructure was breached and information about future city projects was leaked. After the post-incident phase of the process has been completed, which of the following would be

PRIMARY focus of the incident response team?

Options:

A.

Restore service and eliminate the business impact.

B.

Determine effective policy changes.

C.

Inform the company board about the incident.

D.

Contact the city police for official investigation.

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Questions 52

Which three of the following are included in encryption architecture? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Certificate

B.

Encryption keys

C.

Encryption engine

D.

Database encryption

E.

Data

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Questions 53

Which of the following enables security personnel to have the BEST security incident recovery practices?

Options:

A.

Crisis communication plan

B.

Disaster recovery plan

C.

Occupant emergency plan

D.

Incident response plan

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Questions 54

Which of the following is a cybersecurity solution for insider threats to strengthen information protection?

Options:

A.

Web proxy

B.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Anti-malware

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Exam Code: CFR-410
Exam Name: CyberSec First Responder (CFR) Exam
Last Update: Oct 16, 2025
Questions: 180

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