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CS0-004 CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CySA+ V4 (New Version) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is the most difficult for threat actors to change according to the Pyramid of Pain model?

Options:

A.

Tactics, techniques, and procedures

B.

Tools

C.

Domain names

D.

Internet Protocol addresses

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Questions 5

A security operations center (SOC) analyst investigates the results of a password spray test conducted by the vulnerability management team.

The analyst must:

CS0-004 Question 5

Identify Linux systems that have successful and unsuccessful logins with username "User1".

Create an output report named "linux-events" of all the events to a flat file.

The analyst issues the following console command:

ls /var/log/

The shortened output of the command is below:

Which of the following commands should the analyst use to meet the report output requirements?

Options:

A.

cat /var/log/sssd | grep "User1" > linux-events.txt

B.

cat /var/log/faillog.log | grep "User1" > linux-events.txt

C.

cat /var/log/syslog | grep "User1" > linux-events.txt

D.

cat /var/log/auth.log | grep "User1" > linux-events.txt

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Questions 6

A security team reviews a penetration testing report of a web application that contains multiple cross-site scripting (XSS) and Structured Query Language injection (SQLi) vulnerabilities.

Which of the following is most likely causing these to occur?

Options:

A.

Misconfigured web application firewall (WAF)

B.

Lack of secure input validation

C.

Lack of a Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Strict Transport Security (HSTS) header

D.

Lack of endpoint protection in the environment

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Questions 7

A security analyst receives a notice about a possible data breach. The report identifies unapproved, current access dates for files found in the following personnel archives:

CS0-004 Question 7

Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

Options:

A.

Perform log correlation.

B.

Reset user credentials.

C.

Restore files from backup.

D.

Establish a timeline.

E.

Establish a legal hold.

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Questions 8

A security analyst responds to an alert regarding identity and access management activity within the cloud environment. The attacker is currently trying to gain access from one isolated cloud subscription to another via a compromised user role.

Which of the following aspects of the MITRE ATT & CK framework is the attacker trying to perform?

Options:

A.

Privilege escalation

B.

Lateral movement

C.

Persistence

D.

Execution

E.

Credential access

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Questions 9

A security operations center analyst receives an alert from the security information and event management system. The analyst quickly reviews the alert and sees a workstation infected with malware. The analyst then uses the endpoint detection and response tool to isolate the workstation from the network.

Which of the following best describes the steps that occurred in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Analysis, containment, and eradication

B.

Analysis, eradication, and recovery

C.

Detection, analysis, and containment

D.

Isolation, mitigation, and analysis

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Questions 10

A security architect reviews a report from a third-party incident response consultant and observes the following:

CS0-004 Question 10

Which of the following frameworks did the consultant use to perform analysis?

Options:

A.

Spoofing, tampering, repudiation, information disclosure, denial of service, elevation of privilege (STRIDE)

B.

MITRE ATT & CK

C.

Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis

D.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Cybersecurity Framework

E.

Cyber Kill Chain

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Questions 11

An analyst receives the following output:

CS0-004 Question 11

Which of the following is the correct number of discovered systems that are allowing unencrypted traffic?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

5

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Questions 12

A public threat intelligence report includes indicators of compromise (IoCs) for threat actors. The threat actors are exploiting a zero-day vulnerability that the vendor has not fixed.

Which of the following techniques should be used until a patch is available?

Options:

A.

Sinkholing

B.

Eradication techniques

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Evidence acquisition

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Questions 13

Which of the following should a cybersecurity analyst utilize when a notification is inaccurate?

Options:

A.

Data enrichment

B.

Dashboard creation

C.

Threat hunting

D.

Alert tuning

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Questions 14

A new security operations center (SOC) manager joins a team that struggles to meet service-level agreements (SLAs). The alert backlog continues to increase daily.

Which of the following will the manager most likely need to do?

Options:

A.

Automate escalation.

B.

Improve the triage processes.

C.

Upgrade threat intelligence.

D.

Enhance the customer service response.

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Questions 15

An analyst reviews the following system logs from a recent breach attempt:

CS0-004 Question 15

Which of the following techniques did the attacker attempt to use?

Options:

A.

Exfiltration

B.

Remote code execution

C.

Privilege escalation

D.

Spoofing

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Questions 16

A server was recently compromised. A security analyst needs to collect artifacts for further analysis before disconnecting the server from the network.

Which of the following artifacts should the analyst collect first?

Options:

A.

ShellBags

B.

Hard disk

C.

Address Resolution Protocol table

D.

Netstat output

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Questions 17

A systems administrator is reviewing the output of a vulnerability scan.

INSTRUCTIONS -

Review the information in each tab.

Based on the organization’s environment architecture and remediation standards, select the server to be patched within 14 days and select the appropriate technique and mitigation.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

CS0-004 Question 17

CS0-004 Question 17

CS0-004 Question 17

CS0-004 Question 17

Options:

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Questions 18

The Chief Information Security Officer wants to improve internal security measures by continuously validating and verifying access to the production environment.

Which of the following concepts best describes this practice?

Options:

A.

Secure access service edge

B.

Next-generation firewall

C.

Zero Trust

D.

Privileged access management

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Questions 19

A vendor releases details of a new vulnerability. When an analyst reviews the scheduled scans, no vulnerabilities are identified. The vulnerability is only discovered after a configuration change.

Which of the following scan types did the analyst configure?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Credentialed

C.

Agent-based

D.

Network

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Questions 20

Which of the following best explains why sensitive data should be encrypted at rest on laptops?

Options:

A.

To prevent end users from copying data to other systems

B.

To protect disclosure of information if physical devices are stolen

C.

To comply with regulatory and legal requirements

D.

To ensure the integrity of the data on the company network

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Questions 21

A security analyst runs an Nmap scan against a host with multiple open ports using the following command:

nmap 10.10.10.1 -p-

The following output is obtained after the scan:

Starting Nmap 7.95 ( https://nmap.org ) at 2025-07-15 15:55 UTC

Note: Host seems down.

Nmap done: 1 IP address (0 hosts up) scanned in 3.16 seconds

Which of the following is the most accurate way to scan the target IP for open ports?

Options:

A.

nmap 10.10.10.1 -p80, 443, 445, 9999, 135, 22, 21 -b --traceroute

B.

nmap -sn -p- 10.10.10.1

C.

nmap -p- -Pn 10.10.10.1

D.

nmap 10.10.10.1/24 -p- -R -O --script=ssl-enum-ciphers

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Questions 22

Before merging with a software company, the acquiring company's legal team requires a detailed software scan to determine if all code base is using open-source or paid licensed libraries. The vulnerability management analyst needs to provide this report.

Which of the following scan methods will best meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Static application security testing (SAST)

B.

Dynamic application security testing (DAST)

C.

Software composition analysis (SCA)

D.

Runtime application self-protection (RASP)

E.

Credentialed vulnerability scan

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Questions 23

Which of the following contains stakeholder contact information for incident response reporting?

Options:

A.

The company organization chart

B.

The communication plan

C.

The last incident report

D.

The standard operating procedures

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Questions 24

An incident response team identifies a malicious uniform resource locator (URL) associated with a required business process and performs the following activities:

• Access to the URL has been restricted only to the necessary users through firewall rules and Cloud Security Group rules.

• Additional monitoring has been enabled for traffic related to that site and the allowed users.

• All application servers that need to access that site have been patched with the latest security and software updates.

• Application owners have been notified of the severity and need to remediate this reported issue.

Which of the following best describes the overall mitigation the security team is performing?

Options:

A.

Patching solutions

B.

Configuration management

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Attack surface management

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Exam Code: CS0-004
Exam Name: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CySA+ V4 (New Version)
Last Update: Oct 7, 2026
Questions: 82

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