220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 (2026 Exam Update) Questions and Answers

The first step in the IT change management process is to identify and propose the change. In this case, the technician notices a need (end-of-life network switches), so the appropriate action is to formally propose a change. This proposal would be documented and submitted for approval before any planning or implementation occurs.

According to the CompTIA A+ 220-1102 objectives under Operational Procedures (Domain 4.0), the change management process follows these typical steps:

Submit a change request (Propose the change)

Review and approval (Approve the change)

Planning and scheduling (Schedule the change)

Implementation

Documentation and review

Therefore, proposing the change is the correct first step in accordance with standard ITIL-based change management practices.

This is part of the user education step after a security incident to prevent future occurrences.

From Quentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“User education and awareness is a crucial part of preventing phishing attacks. After an incident, it is vital to train users on recognizing suspicious messages.” .

The net use command in Windows is used to map (assign) a shared drive from the command line. The syntax typically looks like: net use X: \server\share where X is the drive letter and \server\share is the network path.

A. pathping tests network latency and packet loss.

B. nslookup is used for DNS troubleshooting.

D. tracert shows the route packets take to reach a destination — not for drive mapping.

TheServicestool in Windows allows a technician to view service dependencies and status. If the print spooler can ' t start due to a dependency, Services is the correct tool to inspect and manage them.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“The Services console allows technicians to view, start, and configure system services, including setting recovery actions and viewing dependencies.”

The requirement is graphical interface access to Linux servers. SSH is excellent for secure command-line access, but it is not a GUI remote desktop by default. Mike Meyers explains this distinction clearly: “The kind of remote command-line access you can get with SSH is great… When you need remote access to the full graphical desktop, you need a remote desktop application. ” He then notes that most remote desktop tools use “either the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) or Virtual Network Computing (VNC) ,” and that TightVNC is cross-platform.

The All-in-One guide repeats the same point: for a full graphical desktop, remote desktop applications commonly use RDP or VNC , and VNC solutions are cross-platform. Since the servers are Linux and the employee needs GUI access, VNC is the best answer among the choices. Telnet is insecure (clear-text credentials), and WinRM is Windows-focused management. Therefore, choose VNC (B) .

The correct answer is B. Kerberos token, because Kerberos authentication relies heavily on precise system time synchronization between clients, servers, and the Key Distribution Center (KDC). Kerberos uses time-stamped tickets to prevent replay attacks, and even small time discrepancies can cause authentication failures.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Kerberos requires clocks on all participating systems to be synchronized within a narrow tolerance (typically five minutes). If system time is inaccurate, Kerberos will reject authentication requests, resulting in login failures and access denial.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that Kerberos tokens include timestamps to ensure tickets are valid only for a short time window. This security design protects against attackers reusing captured authentication data.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that time synchronization issues are a common cause of Kerberos-related login problems in domain environments. Services like TACACS+, RADIUS, and WPA do not depend on strict system time synchronization in the same way Kerberos does.

Because Kerberos authentication cannot function correctly without accurate system time, B is the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. net use, which is the Windows command-line utility used to display, create, and remove mapped network drives and SMB (Server Message Block) connections. When working re motely through command-line interfaces, technicians often rely on net use to quickly verify which network shares are currently connected.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that SMB is the protocol Windows uses for file and printer sharing, and mapped drives are maintained through SMB sessions. The net use command lists all active connections, including the drive letter, remote UNC path, and connection status.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide highlights that net use is especially valuable for remote troubleshooting because it does not require a graphical interface. This makes it ideal when administering multiple systems via command prompt or remote shell.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that systeminfo displays OS and hardware details, hostname only shows the system name, and nslookup is used for DNS queries. None of those commands provide information about mapped SMB shares.

Since the task is to verify existing SMB mappings, net use is the only command that directly fulfills this requirement, making C the correct answer.

Microsoft Edge most commonly blocks “unrecognized” or “potentially unsafe” downloads through Microsoft Defender SmartScreen, which is a reputation-based protection feature integrated into Windows/Edge. When SmartScreen cannot establish trust in a downloaded file (often because the file type is commonly abused or the file has low reputation), it can warn or block the download even if the technician believes the file is legitimate. In this scenario, the technician should adjust SmartScreen settings (rather than disabling antivirus, UAC, or the firewall) to permit the download while keeping other protections intact. This aligns with Windows security management concepts: Windows includes built-in protections (Microsoft Defender and related safeguards) that can be configured through Windows Security, and technicians should tune the specific protection causing the block instead of broadly weakening system security. Also, browser security options are managed from the browser’s Settings area, reinforcing that the correct fix is changing the browser’s download/reputation protection behavior rather than network or privilege controls.

This is a classic symptom of graphics performance limitations: modern games stress GPU/VRAM far more than older or lightweight titles. The All-in-One guide explains that “graphically demanding applications… state specific graphics requirements,” and highlights that CompTIA focuses on “dedicated graphics cards versus integrated ones.” It further clarifies that integrated GPUs are typically less powerful than dedicated GPUs and that demanding software (including games) often assumes dedicated graphics, with VRAM requirements frequently included.

On many “gaming-ready” laptops, the system may have both integrated and discrete graphics, and performance issues occur if the game runs on the integrated GPU instead of the discrete GPU. Selecting dedicated graphics (for the application or globally, depending on the platform) forces the workload onto the more capable GPU and typically resolves lag. Overclocking RAM is not the first-line fix and adds instability risk, NIC teaming is irrelevant to local rendering performance, and hyperthreading helps some CPU workloads but won’t solve a GPU-bound modern game. Therefore, Select dedicated graphics (C) is best.

The symptoms suggest abrowser hijacker. Thefirst stepsshould be toremove any malicious extensionsandreset the startup pageto restore normal behavior.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Browser hijackers often install as extensions and change homepage settings. Removing these extensions and resetting the startup configuration typically resolves the issue.”

Highmemory usage (97%)suggests the system is overloaded with active processes. The technician should close unneeded applications to free up RAM and improve performance.

FromMike Meyers ' Lab Manual:

“When memory usage is near capacity, close all non-essential programs. This can dramatically improve response time without needing hardware upgrades.”

To work remotely without physically transporting a workstation, the user needs:

C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol): Allows graphical remote access to a Windows PC at the office.

D. VPN (Virtual Private Network): Establishes a secure tunnel to access the corporate network remotely, making the internal PC reachable.

A. SPICE is used in virtual machine environments and is not typically used for end-user remote desktop access.

B. SSH is a text-based remote access tool used mostly for Linux systems.

E. RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) is used by IT administrators for support — not end-user remote access.

F. WinRM is used for Windows remote management via PowerShell, not for full desktop access.

The correct answer is B. SSID configuration, because controlling SSID visibility and behavior directly affects which wireless networks devices can see and attempt to join. In shared office environments, multiple Wi-Fi networks may be present, increasing the risk of users accidentally connecting to the wrong network.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, SSIDs define how wireless networks are advertised and discovered. By modifying SSID settings—such as disabling broadcast or restricting auto-join behavior—technicians can prevent devices from attempting to connect to unauthorized or unintended networks.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that MDM solutions often preconfigure approved wireless profiles. Adjusting SSID configuration ensures devices only recognize and connect to sanctioned networks, reducing accidental associations and security risks.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that IP filtering, content filtering, and port forwarding are network traffic control mechanisms. They do not prevent a device from seeing or attempting to connect to nearby Wi-Fi networks.

Because the goal is to prevent accidental Wi-Fi access, not filter traffic after connection, modifying SSID configuration is the correct and most effective solution.

Content filtering allows administrators to block or allow access to websites based on categories (e.g., social media, adult content, streaming). On a SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) router, this is often built-in or available via DNS-level filtering, and is the most appropriate method for enforcing browsing policies without needing to touch each individual device.

A. Secure management access protects router admin interfaces but doesn’t control user browsing.

B. Group Policy Editor is a Windows tool, not used on routers.

D. A firewall can block specific IPs or ports, but it doesn ' t categorize web content.

The correct answer is C. Enforce multifactor authentication for all users . Brute-force attacks attempt to guess passwords or other hidden values by trying many possible combinations. The All-in-One Exam Guide describes brute force as a method in which an attacker guesses many or all possible values, most commonly to crack a password. Complex passwords help, but a sufficiently advanced brute-force attack can still target passwords through leaks, dictionaries, credential stuffing, or repeated guessing. Multifactor authentication is stronger because it requires an additional factor beyond the password, such as a token, authenticator app, SMS code, voice call, or biometric factor. The A+ objectives list multifactor authentication under logical security and also include related MFA methods such as hard tokens, soft tokens, SMS, voice call, and authenticator applications. Restricting logon hours and applying OS updates are useful security practices, but they do not directly address password-guessing attacks as effectively as MFA.

When Disk Management can’t remove certain partitions (often recovery, OEM, or protected partitions), the next step is to use a more powerful command-line tool with administrative rights— DiskPart —from an elevated prompt . Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual states: “The diskpart utility is a fully featured partitioning tool” and notes it “lacks many of the safety features built into Disk Management,” but it can “delete any partition of any type at any time.” It also describes using DiskPart’s clean command to “wipe all partition and volume information off the currently selected disk,” which is exactly what you’d do when you need to repurpose a drive and GUI tools won’t cooperate.

The All-in-One Exam Guide reinforces the same capability: DiskPart can delete partitions regardless of type and is available through the command prompt utilities for low-level disk work. Returning the drive to the manufacturer is unnecessary, malware removal isn’t the issue, and clearing a BIOS password on the old PC has no bearing on partition removal. The correct next step is using the CLI elevated.

Before deploying an application update broadly, best practice is to test it in an isolated environment to avoid breaking production systems. The All-in-One guide defines sandbox testing clearly: “a sandbox is a place where you can experiment without messing up the primary system,” typically a virtualized environment, and it “entails checking out new and updated applications without putting the systems and data you depend on at risk.” That directly aligns with rolling out a new application update across the organization.

Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual repeats the same concept: sandbox testing uses an isolated environment and snapshots to test changes safely before production deployment. It’s positioned as a documented business process within change-management best practices, reinforcing why it comes early—before impact spreads.

A backup/rollback plan is important too, but the question asks for the first step when applying a new update to everyone. Testing first helps identify compatibility issues, installation failures, and side effects early—so you don’t deploy a bad update at scale. Therefore, Sandbox testing (C) is correct.

A bollard is a sturdy physical barrier—often a steel or concrete post—designed to prevent vehicles or unauthorized individuals from ramming into or entering secure areas of a building. It provides physical security and is commonly used outside entrances to prevent forced entry.

A. PIV (Personal Identity Verification) cards are used for identity access control, not physical blocking.

B. Motion lighting may deter activity but doesn’t physically prevent entry.

C. Surveillance records activity but cannot stop a forced entry.

Background applications can significantly drain a smartphone’s battery, even when the device is idle. A technician should first review which apps are running in the background and consuming power through the battery usage section of the OS. Disabling or restricting power-hungry apps often resolves poor battery life.

A. Storage usage doesn’t significantly affect battery life.

B. End of software support is unrelated to battery performance unless it ' s causing inefficient processes, which would still be secondary.

C. Charger wattage affects charging speed, not battery life after charging.

The correct answer is A. SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) because SOPs are specifically designed to document roles, responsibilities, workflows, and support expectations for systems and applications within an organization. When deploying a new application, clear documentation is essential to ensure consistent support, escalation, maintenance, and troubleshooting.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide defines SOPs as formal documents that outline who performs specific tasks, how tasks are performed, and when escalation is required. SOPs are commonly used by IT departments to standardize support processes and ensure continuity, especially when multiple technicians or teams are involved.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that SOPs are a key component of operational maturity, ensuring that support staff understand their responsibilities and follow approved procedures when responding to incidents or service requests related to an application.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that documents such as NDAs focus on confidentiality, EULAs define usage rights for end users, and DRM is a technical mechanism—not a documentation framework. None of those options describe internal support roles.

Because the scenario explicitly mentions documenting roles and responsibilities, the correct and intended document type is a Standard Operating Procedure, making A the correct answer.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) requires at least two different types of authentication factors:

Something you know (e.g., password or PIN)

Something you have (e.g., smartphone or hardware token)

Something you are (e.g., fingerprint or facial recognition)

Option A, sending a code to the user’s phone, is an example of " something you have " — a physical device that receives a one-time passcode. Combined with a password, this forms a proper MFA implementation.

B. Date of birth is another knowledge-based factor (like a password), not a second factor type.

C. Solving a math problem is not a recognized authentication factor.

D. A PIN is also " something you know " and does not count as a distinct MFA factor when paired with a password.

The key clue is “uses built-in sensors to monitor targets without their consent.” In the All-in-One Exam Guide’s mobile security coverage, it explains that modern devices can be abused for unauthorized location tracking and that device settings or apps may send location information “to third parties, sometimes without explicit consent or knowledge.” It also warns about unauthorized camera and microphone activation , stating that “app features, malware, and unauthorized network connections can potentially be used to activate… built-in cameras and microphones,” which enables an attacker to “effectively spy on anyone near it.” The Mike Meyers Lab Manual mirrors this exactly: unauthorized tracking can occur without explicit consent and built-in cameras/microphones are “of particular concern” because they let an attacker spy nearby.

That specific “surveillance via sensors” behavior aligns best with stalkerware (a spyware-style category focused on covert monitoring). By contrast, a rootkit’s hallmark is hiding itself using low-level OS control, and a Trojan primarily masquerades as something harmless. Therefore, D is the best answer.

The correct answer is C. exFAT . macOS can read and write several file systems, but among the listed choices, exFAT is the best answer because it is designed for broad compatibility and is commonly used on removable storage shared between Windows and macOS. The Sybex practice-test explanation states that macOS can only read NTFS partitions but can both read and write to exFAT partitions. The All-in-One Exam Guide also explains that macOS can read and write FAT32 and exFAT, while it only reads NTFS. NTFS is the standard modern Windows file system but is not writable by macOS without extra tools. ReFS is a Microsoft file system used for specific Windows storage scenarios, and XFS is a Linux/UNIX-style file system. Therefore, when a macOS system must write data to a volume from the listed options, exFAT is the correct choice.

Extra icons in the system tray after an update often indicate new background apps loading at startup, increasing boot time. The Mike Meyers Lab Manual explains that “autostarting programs will slow down your system,” and Windows provides control through Task Manager’s Startup tab to enable/disable startup programs—specifically calling this out as useful “especially if Windows is slow to load.” The All-in-One Exam Guide gives the same practical step: open Task Manager’s Startup tab and “review the enabled applications for any you don’t need,” then disable unnecessary ones to regain speed.

Importantly, the All-in-One answer guidance explicitly notes that disabling unnecessary startup programs is the least disruptive first action: “Andre’s best option would be to disable unnecessary startup programs… A system restore might help… but it’ll be much slower and more disruptive.”

Uninstalling the update or restoring the system are more disruptive and should come later if simpler optimization fails. Antivirus scanning can be appropriate if no obvious cause exists, but the clear clue here is new startup items (system tray icons).

Cloud-based software often enforcesdevice limitsper license. Before reinstallation or switching software, checking license allocations is the most logical first step.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Many cloud apps enforce user or device count restrictions. When an install fails, check licensing before troubleshooting other areas.”

The correct answer is B. VNC . The key phrase is graphical interface access . VNC, or Virtual Network Computing, is a remote-control technology used to share and control graphical desktops. Quentin Docter’s Complete Study Guide explains that VNC is a remote control tool for desktop sharing, uses a client-server model, and allows remote control of the host where the VNC server is installed. The Mike Meyers/Mark Soper material also explains that SSH is excellent for command-line administrative tasks, but when full graphical desktop access is needed, a remote desktop application is required; VNC is identified as cross-platform and usable for remote graphical control. SSH provides secure command-line access, not a full graphical interface by default. WinRM is mainly a Windows remote-management technology. Telnet is an insecure text-based remote access protocol and should not be used for secure remote administration.

In AI terminology,hallucinationrefers to generated output that appears plausible but is factually incorrect.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“AI hallucination describes output that is fluent and coherent but includes information that is entirely fabricated or inaccurate.”

The scenario strongly suggests the device has been compromised by malware delivered through a social-engineering message (an “unexpected overdue invoice” attachment). After the attempt, the phone shows system-wide performance issues affecting the browser and other apps, and a restart does not fix it—this matches common mobile malware symptoms such as sluggish response time and abnormal behavior that persists across reboots. When symptoms persist beyond a soft reset, the most reliable remediation is to return the device to a known-good state by performing a factory reset (wipe). Quentin Docter explains that a factory reset is much more effective and will remove malware along with applications, and that when a security symptom indicates malware, the device should be factory reset and then protected with antimalware before reinstalling apps.The All-in-One guide similarly teaches an escalation path: stop/uninstall suspect apps, and if these steps don’t resolve the behavior, use a factory reset to cleanse the device.【turn27file4†L9-L14】 Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual also lists factory resets among the key tools for resolving persistent mobile app security issues.

Badge readers are electronic access control systems that require authorized users to scan a badge (e.g., RFID or magnetic strip cards) to gain access to restricted physical locations. These systems typically log all access attempts—successful or denied—providing both detection and recording of access events.

A. Bollards are physical barriers to prevent vehicle access.

B. Video surveillance can record access visually but does not track identity unless integrated with access control systems.

D. A fence restricts access but doesn ' t detect or record who entered.

Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the user ' s files and demands a payment (ransom) for the decryption key. When a user receives a message stating that their files are encrypted and cannot be accessed, ransomware is the most likely cause. The attacker’s goal is to hold the data hostage until the victim pays to restore access.

A. Keylogger records keystrokes and doesn’t encrypt files.

C. Phishing is a social engineering tactic to gather credentials, not to encrypt data.

D. Cryptominer uses system resources to mine cryptocurrency, not encrypt files.

After containment and remediation, one of the final steps in incident response is user education. Since the root cause was a phishing attack, it is essential to educate users about identifying phishing attempts, safe browsing practices, and how to handle suspicious communications. This improves overall security posture and helps prevent future incidents.

A. Installing additional tools may be helpful but is a long-term step.

C. Flashing router firmware is not warranted unless the network hardware is known to be compromised.

D. Suggesting more advanced tools might be excessive given that the EDR successfully contained the incident.

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) for users who connect and use a network service.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“RADIUS is a widely used protocol for implementing AAA in network environments, allowing centralized control over user access and accounting.”

The correct answer is D. Guest . I corrected the answer choices by adding the missing likely option, Guest , because a public-facing library kiosk should use a restricted account type intended for temporary or limited access. The Mike Meyers/Mark Soper material explains that the Guests group allows someone without a normal account to log on using a guest account and specifically gives examples such as casual Internet access or a library terminal . It also states that guest users cannot change settings, install software, or access other users’ personal files. Quentin Docter’s Complete Study Guide also explains that Guest accounts have limited rights and are best used when users need access only for a limited time. A Power User account has unnecessary privileges. A domain account is intended for organizational authentication, and a service account is used by applications or services, not public kiosk users.

Windows Helloprovides alternative sign-in options including facial recognition, fingerprint scans, and PINs, reducing dependence on passwords.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Windows Hello offers a range of biometric and PIN-based login methods designed to simplify access while enhancing security.”

“It can be used in place of a password, ideal for users who frequently forget credentials.”

The correct answer is C. ping 10.203.10.1. The technician should test whether the computer can communicate with its default gateway. Quentin Docter’s Complete Study Guide explains that the ping command verifies network connectivity using ICMP packets and that a common troubleshooting step is to ping the default gateway. If the gateway responds, the system has basic connectivity to that device. The All-in-One Exam Guide also states that ping is a great way to determine whether a computer can talk to another system by sending packets to an IP address or DNS name. ipconfig is used to view TCP/IP configuration, not to ping an address in that syntax. nslookup checks DNS resolution, which is not the first test for reaching the gateway. net use maps or manages network resources, but it does not directly test gateway communication.

Shoulder surfing is explicitly categorized as a social engineering technique because it relies on human behavior and observation rather than exploiting software flaws or cracking passwords through computation. Quentin Docter defines it directly: “Another form of social engineering is known as shoulder surfing. It involves nothing more than watching someone when they enter their sensitive data,” such as a password or credit card number. Docter also notes that privacy filters can reduce viewing angles, but “privacy filters do not protect you as you are entering a password, since a shoulder surfer will watch your keystrokes,” and the best defense is to “survey your environment before entering personal data.”

The Mike Meyers Lab Manual reinforces the same classification: “Shoulder surfing is another technique for gathering information and gaining unauthorized access… observing someone’s screen or keyboard to get information, often passwords.” Since this is about manipulating or exploiting a person’s situation (being nearby, watching, taking advantage of inattentiveness), it is not a zero-day, evil twin, or brute-force method. Therefore, Social engineering (C) is correct.

When DHCP isn’t enabled, static IPs must be assigned manually, so the engineering team provides the IP details.

From Travis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“If DHCP is unavailable, technicians need the static IP configuration to connect devices to the network.” .

Inbox mail 1 -Account Locked- Phishing - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 2 -Share your feedback - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 3 –Employee orientation - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 4 –Security Update – Spam - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 5 –Interview - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

—

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

> Select reply: " I am happy to assist you today. "

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

> Select reply: " Is this the first router in your office? "

Third Chat Response:After learning it ' s a replacement router and the user is logged into the router ' s web page:

> Select reply: " The first thing you need to do is change the default password. "

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

> Select reply: " Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character. "

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

> Select reply: " Yes, reboot please. "

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers

Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.

A screenshot of a computer AI-

A screenshot of a computer AI-

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig

Issue (drop-down)

Limited network connectivity

Why this matches:

“Internet Down” most commonly indicates the workstation has lost valid Layer 3 connectivity (bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, wrong gateway, etc.). In CompTIA A+ terms, this aligns best with limited connectivity symptoms (can’t reach internet resources).

Resolution (drop-down)

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

If the client has:

an expired lease

an APIPA address (169.254.x.x) because DHCP failed

an incorrect IP/gateway from a bad lease

…then the fastest first remediation is to renew DHCP to obtain a correct IP address, default gateway, and DNS servers. This is a standard CompTIA A+ troubleshooting action (quick, low-risk, high-success).

Verify/Resolve (drop-down)

ipconfig

Why this is the correct verification tool:

ipconfig is the primary Windows CLI tool to:

check current IP settings (ipconfig /all)

release/renew DHCP (ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew)

confirm you received a valid IP + gateway + DNS, which is required for internet access.

What you would do (mapped to those choices)

Using ipconfig to complete “Refresh DHCP” and confirm the fix:

Check current addressing

ipconfig /all

Look for:

Valid IPv4 (not 169.254.x.x)

Valid Default Gateway

DNS servers present

Refresh the DHCP lease

ipconfig /release

ipconfig /renew

Verify outcome

Run ipconfig again to confirm:

You now have a correct IP for the network

Default gateway is populated

If the gateway/DNS populate correctly, internet access typically returns.

1st CLI Resolution

copy " C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll " " User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32 " /v /y

2nd CLI Resolution

regsvr32 msvcp100.dll

Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)

Why the COPY command is first

The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing

Other users can run the app → the DLL exists on another system

The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:

Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32

The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts — both are enterprise-safe defaults

This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.

Why REGSVR32 is second

After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it

regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system

This ensures:

The Testing application can properly call the runtime library

The fix persists after reboot

Ticket #8675310

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig /renew

For the Low priority ticket #8675310 (“A small yellow triangle appeared in the taskbar. I am no longer able to access network resources.”), the Windows yellow triangle on the network icon is the classic indicator of limited connectivity (often caused by a bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, missing default gateway, or DNS info not being assigned).

Correct PBQ Selections (Ticket #8675310)

Issue

Limited network connectivity

Why (CompTIA logic):

That yellow warning triangle means the NIC is connected at Layer 2 (link is up), but the system likely doesn’t have valid Layer 3 config (IP/gateway/DNS), so it can’t reach network resources.

Resolution

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

When a Windows PC can’t access network resources and shows “limited connectivity,” the fastest, lowest-risk fix is to renew DHCP so the PC can pull:

a valid IP address

default gateway

DNS servers

This directly resolves the most common root cause behind that icon.

Verify / Resolve

ipconfig /renew

Why this is the correct verification/remediation command:

ipconfig /renew is the direct command to request a fresh DHCP lease. After renewal, the user should regain access to network resources if DHCP was the issue.

What this fixes (what you’d expect to see)

Before the fix, the attachment (Output.txt) in these PBQs typically shows symptoms like:

169.254.x.x (APIPA) → DHCP failed

Missing/blank Default Gateway

DNS not present or incorrect

After ipconfig /renew, you should see a normal private IP (like 192.168.x.x / 10.x.x.x / 172.16-31.x.x) and a valid gateway/DNS.

The completed configuration:

1. Wireless AP (LAN side)

1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1

2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK

2. Router (port-forward rule)

1. Allow TCP Any 3389

This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.

3. Firewall (screened subnet side)

1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1

4. Device placement

1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).

2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).

3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.

The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.

Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.