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CISM Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is necessary to ensure consistent protection for an organization's information assets?

Options:

A.

Classification model

B.

Control assessment

C.

Data ownership

D.

Regulatory requirements

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Questions 5

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the maturity level of a vendor risk management process?

Options:

A.

Average time required to complete the vendor risk management process

B.

Percentage of vendors that have gone through the vendor onboarding process

C.

Percentage of vendors that are regularly reviewed against defined criteria

D.

Number of vendors rejected because of security review results

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Questions 6

After updating password standards, an information security manager is alerted by various application administrators that the applications they support are incapable of enforcing these standards. The information security manager's FIRST course of action should be to:

Options:

A.

determine the potential impact.

B.

reevaluate the standards.

C.

implement compensating controls.

D.

evaluate the cost of replacing the applications.

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Questions 7

Which of the following is the BEST way to contain an SQL injection attack that has been detected by a web application firewall?

Options:

A.

Force password changes on the SQL database.

B.

Reconfigure the web application firewall to block the attack.

C.

Update the detection patterns on the web application firewall.

D.

Block the IPs from where the attack originates.

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Questions 8

When designing a disaster recovery plan (DRP), which of the following MUST be available in order to prioritize system restoration?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Recovery procedures

D.

Systems inventory

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Questions 9

Reviewing which of the following would be MOST helpful when a new information security manager is developing an information security strategy for a non-regulated organization?

Options:

A.

Management's business goals and objectives

B.

Strategies of other non-regulated companies

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Industry best practices and control recommendations

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Questions 10

An information security manager has been tasked with developing materials to update the board, regulatory agencies, and the media about a security incident. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Set up communication channels for the target audience.

B.

Determine the needs and requirements of each audience.

C.

Create a comprehensive singular communication

D.

Invoke the organization's incident response plan.

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Questions 11

Which of the following is the BEST indication ofa successful information security culture?

Options:

A.

Penetration testing is done regularly and findings remediated.

B.

End users know how to identify and report incidents.

C.

Individuals are given roles based on job functions.

D.

The budget allocated for information security is sufficient.

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Questions 12

When properly implemented, secure transmission protocols protect transactions:

Options:

A.

from eavesdropping.

B.

from denial of service (DoS) attacks.

C.

on the client desktop.

D.

in the server's database.

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Questions 13

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing escalation procedures for an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Each process is assigned to a responsible party.

B.

The contact list is regularly updated.

C.

Minimum regulatory requirements are maintained.

D.

Senior management approval has been documented.

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Questions 14

The BEST way to integrate information security governance with corporate governance is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the information security steering committee monitors compliance with security policies.

B.

management teams embed information security into business processes.

C.

awareness programs include industry best practice for information security governance.

D.

the information security program is included in regular external audits.

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Questions 15

Which of the following would BEST guide the development and maintenance of an information security program?

Options:

A.

A business impact assessment

B.

A comprehensive risk register

C.

An established risk assessment process

D.

The organization's risk appetite

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Questions 16

Which of the following BEST facilitates the effectiveness of cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Utilizing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.

B.

Utilizing industry-leading network penetration testing tools.

C.

Increasing communication with all incident response stakeholders.

D.

Continuously updating signatures of the anti-malware solution.

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Questions 17

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of incident triage?

Options:

A.

Coordination of communications

B.

Mitigation of vulnerabilities

C.

Categorization of events

D.

Containment of threats

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Questions 18

Which of the following should be done FIRST after a ransomware incident has been successfully contained?

Options:

A.

Notify relevant stakeholders.

B.

Conduct forensic analysis.

C.

Perform lessons learned.

D.

Restore impacted systems.

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Questions 19

What type of control is being implemented when a security information and event management (SIEM) system is installed?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Detective

D.

Corrective

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Questions 20

The ULTIMATE responsibility for ensuring the objectives of an information security framework are being met belongs to:

Options:

A.

)the information security officer.

B.

the steering committee.

C.

the board of directors.

D.

the internal audit manager.

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Questions 21

An information security team plans to strengthen authentication requirements for a customer-facing site, but there are concerns it will negatively impact the user experience. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Assess business impact against security risk.

B.

Provide security awareness training to customers.

C.

Refer to industry best practices.

D.

Quantify the security risk to the business.

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Questions 22

The PRIMARY advantage of single sign-on (SSO) is that it will:

Options:

A.

increase efficiency of access management

B.

increase the security of related applications.

C.

strengthen user passwords.

D.

support multiple authentication mechanisms.

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Questions 23

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when developing a business continuity plan (BCP) for ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Backups are maintained offline and regularly tested.

B.

Impacted networks can be detached at the network switch level.

C.

Production data is continuously replicated between primary and secondary sites.

D.

Backups are maintained on multiple sites and regularly reviewed.

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Questions 24

An organization uses a security standard that has undergone a major revision by the certifying authority. The old version of the standard will no longer be used for organizations wishing to maintain their certifications. Which of the following should be the FIRST

course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the cost of maintaining the certification.

B.

Review the new standard for applicability to the business.

C.

Modify policies to ensure new requirements are covered.

D.

Communicate the new standard to senior leadership.

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Questions 25

To help users apply appropriate controls related to data privacy regulation, what is MOST important to communicate to the users?

Options:

A.

Data storage procedures

B.

Data classification policy

C.

Results of penetration testing

D.

Features of data protection products

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Questions 26

Which of the following should include contact information for representatives of equipment and software vendors?

Options:

A.

Information security program charter

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

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Questions 27

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to demonstrate improvement in security performance?

Options:

A.

Report the results of a security control self-assessment (CSA).

B.

Provide a summary of security project return on investments (ROIs).

C.

Present vulnerability testing results.

D.

Present trends in a validated metrics dashboard.

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Questions 28

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

To define security roles and responsibilities

B.

To determine return on investment (ROI)

C.

To establish incident severity levels

D.

To determine the criticality of information assets

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Questions 29

Which of the following is the MOST important function of an information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

Assigning data classifications to organizational assets

B.

Developing organizational risk assessment processes

C.

Obtaining multiple perspectives from the business

D.

Defining security standards for logical access controls

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Questions 30

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration of business continuity management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring human safety

B.

Identifying critical business processes

C.

Ensuring the reliability of backup data

D.

Securing critical information assets

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Questions 31

An organization learns that a third party has outsourced critical functions to another external provider. Which of the following is the information security manager's MOST important course of action?

Options:

A.

Engage an independent audit of the third party's external provider.

B.

Recommend canceling the contract with the third party.

C.

Evaluate the third party's agreements with its external provider.

D.

Conduct an external audit of the contracted third party.

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Questions 32

An information security manager notes that security incidents are not being appropriately escalated by the help desk after tickets are logged. Which of the following is the BEST automated control to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning in the help desk workflow

B.

Changing the default setting for all security incidents to the highest priority

C.

Integrating automated service level agreement (SLA) reporting into the help desk ticketing system

D.

Integrating incident response workflow into the help desk ticketing system

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Questions 33

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the organization's security objectives are embedded in business operations?

Options:

A.

Publish adopted information security standards.

B.

Perform annual information security compliance reviews.

C.

Implement an information security governance framework.

D.

Define penalties for information security noncompliance.

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Questions 34

Which of the following messages would be MOST effective in obtaining senior management's commitment to information security management?

Options:

A.

Effective security eliminates risk to the business.

B.

Adopt a recognized framework with metrics.

C.

Security is a business product and not a process.

D.

Security supports and protects the business.

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Questions 35

What will BEST facilitate the success of new security initiatives?

Options:

A.

Establish an IT security steering committee.

B.

Include business in security decision making.

C.

Update security policies on a regular basis

D.

Monitor post-implementation security metrics.

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Questions 36

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure the effective execution of an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

The plan is reviewed by senior and IT operational management.

B.

The plan is based on industry best practices.

C.

Process steps are documented by the disaster recovery team.

D.

Procedures are available at the primary and failover location.

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Questions 37

An organization has discovered that a server processing real-time visual data could be vulnerable to a lateral movement stage in a ransomware attack. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates this vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Network segmentation

B.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Encryption of data in transit

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Questions 38

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to protect the authenticity of data in transit?

Options:

A.

Digital signature

B.

Private key

C.

Access controls

D.

Public key

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Questions 39

What is the information security steering committee’s PRIMARY role in the development of security policies?

Options:

A.

Commissioning an organization-wide security audit

B.

Drafting language related to policy noncompliance

C.

Ensuring policies facilitate business practices

D.

Overseeing a gap analysis against industry best practice

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Questions 40

To overcome the perception that security is a hindrance to business activities, it is important for an information security manager to:

Options:

A.

rely on senior management to enforce security.

B.

promote the relevance and contribution of security.

C.

focus on compliance.

D.

reiterate the necessity of security.

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Questions 41

An incident management team is alerted ta a suspected security event. Before classifying the suspected event as a security incident, it is MOST important for the security manager to:

Options:

A.

notify the business process owner.

B.

follow the business continuity plan (BCP).

C.

conduct an incident forensic analysis.

D.

follow the incident response plan.

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Questions 42

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an inforrnation security manager contact the information owner? After the:

Options:

A.

incident has been confirmed.

B.

incident has been contained.

C.

potential incident has been logged.

D.

incident has been mitigated.

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Questions 43

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability reduction

B.

Compliance management

C.

Risk management

D.

Threat minimization

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Questions 44

An organization has implemented controls to mitigate risks resulting from identified vulnerabilities in an application. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify all weaknesses have been addressed?

Options:

A.

Conduct an internal audit.

B.

Conduct penetration testing.

C.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Prepare compensating controls.

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Questions 45

Which of the following BEST minimizes information security risk in deploying applications to the production environment?

Options:

A.

Integrating security controls in each phase of the life cycle

B.

Conducting penetration testing post implementation

C.

Having a well-defined change process

D.

Verifying security during the testing process

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Questions 46

Senior management is concerned about data exposure through the use of public Al services. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Train all employees on the appropriate use of public Al services and confidential data.

B.

Disable access to public Al from company devices.

C.

Perform a risk assessment of public Al with appropriate recommendations for senior management.

D.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA) of public Al.

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Questions 47

What is the BEST way to inform senior management of the value of information security?

Options:

A.

Present the benefits of security awareness training

B.

Describe how security enables business objectives

C.

Describe potential impact of compromises

D.

Present anticipated return on security investment

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Questions 48

Which of the following would be the GREATEST obstacle to implementing incident notification and escalation processes in an organization with high turnover?

Options:

A.

Lack of knowledgeable personnel

B.

Lack of communication processes

C.

Lack of process documentation

D.

Lack of alignment with organizational goals

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Questions 49

Company A, a cloud service provider, is in the process of acquiring Company B to gain new benefits by incorporating their technologies within its cloud services.

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of Company A's information security manager?

Options:

A.

The organizational structure of Company B

B.

The cost to align to Company A's security policies

C.

Company A's security architecture

D.

Company B's security policies

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Questions 50

A multinational organization is required to follow governmental regulations with different security requirements at each of its operating locations. The chief information security officer (CISO) should be MOST concerned with:

Options:

A.

developing a security program that meets global and regional requirements.

B.

ensuring effective communication with local regulatory bodies.

C.

using industry best practice to meet local legal regulatory requirements.

D.

monitoring compliance with defined security policies and standards.

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Questions 51

Which of the following would BEST support the business case for an increase in the information security budget?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis results

B.

Comparison of information security budgets with peer organizations

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Frequency of information security incidents

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Questions 52

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to identify worst-case disruption scenarios?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business process analysis

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Cast-benefit analysis

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Questions 53

Which of the following is PRIMARILY influenced by a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

IT strategy

B.

Recovery strategy

C.

Risk mitigation strategy

D.

Security strategy

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Questions 54

Which of the following factors would have the MOST significant impact on an organization's information security governance mode?

Options:

A.

Outsourced processes

B.

Security budget

C.

Number of employees

D.

Corporate culture

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Questions 55

In order to gain organization-wide support for an information security program, which of the following is MOST important to consider?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the security policy

B.

Clarity of security roles and responsibilities

C.

Corporate culture

D.

Corporate risk framework

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Questions 56

An information security manager has become aware that a third-party provider is not in compliance with the statement of work (SOW). Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Notify senior management of the issue.

B.

Report the issue to legal personnel.

C.

Initiate contract renegotiation.

D.

Assess the extent of the issue.

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Questions 57

When establishing metrics for an information security program, the BEST approach is to identify indicators that:

Options:

A.

reduce information security program spending.

B.

support major information security initiatives.

C.

reflect the corporate risk culture.

D.

demonstrate the effectiveness of the security program.

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Questions 58

Following an employee security awareness training program, what should be the expected outcome?

Options:

A.

A decrease in the number of viruses detected in incoming emails

B.

A decrease in reported social engineering attacks

C.

An increase in reported social engineering attempts

D.

An increase in user-reported false positive incidents

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Questions 59

Which of the following is the MOST significant contributor to the success of incident response efforts during a major breach?

Options:

A.

The incident response plan is aligned with the disaster recovery strategy

B.

The incident response process is regularly tested

C.

Incident response processes are documented and available to staff

D.

The incident response plan clearly outlines roles and responsibilities

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Questions 60

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

project management

B.

governance.

C.

performance.

D.

risk management.

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Questions 61

Which of the following roles is accountable for the protection of data?

Options:

A.

CISO

B.

Data custodian

C.

Data owner

D.

Data administrator

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Questions 62

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to ensure information security is aligned with the organization's strategy?

Options:

A.

To identify the organization's risk tolerance

B.

To improve security processes

C.

To align security roles and responsibilities

D.

To optimize security risk management

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Questions 63

In violation of a policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office, employees have been issued smartphones and tablet computers with enabled web cameras. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment,

D.

Communicate the acceptable use policy.

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Questions 64

Which of the following will ensure confidentiality of content when accessing an email system over the Internet?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Digital encryption

C.

Data masking

D.

Digital signatures

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Questions 65

An organization would like to invest in a new emerging technology. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to consider when evaluating its impact?

Options:

A.

Secure configuration

B.

Vulnerabilities in the technology

C.

Systems compatibility

D.

Industry peer reviews of the technology

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Questions 66

Which of the following BEST enables the capability of an organization to sustain the delivery of products and services within acceptable time frames and at predefined capacity during a disruption?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 67

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon learning that some security hardening settings may negatively impact future business activity?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Reduce security hardening settings.

C.

Inform business management of the risk.

D.

Document a security exception.

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Questions 68

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help staff members understand their responsibilities for information security?

Options:

A.

Communicate disciplinary processes for policy violations.

B.

Require staff to participate in information security awareness training.

C.

Require staff to sign confidentiality agreements.

D.

Include information security responsibilities in job descriptions.

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Questions 69

Regular vulnerability scanning on an organization's internal network has identified that many user workstations have unpatched versions of software. What is the BEST way for the information security manager to help senior management understand the related risk?

Options:

A.

Include the impact of the risk as part of regular metrics.

B.

Recommend the security steering committee conduct a review.

C.

Update the risk assessment at regular intervals

D.

Send regular notifications directly to senior managers

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Questions 70

Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing the introduction of vulnerabilities that may disrupt the availability of a critical business application?

Options:

A.

A patch management process

B.

Version control

C.

Change management controls

D.

Logical access controls

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Questions 71

Penetration testing is MOST appropriate when a:

Options:

A.

new system is about to go live.

B.

new system is being designed.

C.

security policy is being developed.

D.

security incident has occurred,

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Questions 72

Which of the following would BEST demonstrate the status of an organization's information security program to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Information security program metrics

B.

Results of a recent external audit

C.

The information security operations matrix

D.

Changes to information security risks

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Questions 73

Which of the following would BEST enable the timely execution of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The introduction of a decision support tool

B.

Definition of trigger events

C.

Clearly defined data classification process

D.

Centralized service desk

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Questions 74

Which of the following provides the MOST assurance that a third-party hosting provider will be able to meet availability requirements?

Options:

A.

Right-to-audit clause

B.

The third party's incident response plan

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

The third party's business continuity plan (BCP)

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Questions 75

Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance in determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical security system?

Options:

A.

Available annual budget

B.

Cost-benefit analysis of mitigating controls

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum tolerable outage (MTO)

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Questions 76

Which of the following is MOST important in increasing the effectiveness of incident responders?

Options:

A.

Communicating with the management team

B.

Integrating staff with the IT department

C.

Testing response scenarios

D.

Reviewing the incident response plan annually

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Questions 77

An organization has identified an increased threat of external brute force attacks in its environment. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk to the organization's critical systems?

Options:

A.

Implement multi-factor authentication.

B.

Increase the frequency of log monitoring and analysis.

C.

Implement a security information and event management system (SIEM),

D.

Increase the sensitivity of intrusion detection systems (IDSs).

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Questions 78

Which of the following would be the BEST way to reduce the risk of disruption resulting from an emergency system change?

Options:

A.

Confirm the change implementation is scheduled.

B.

Verify the change request has been approved.

C.

Confirm rollback plans are in place.

D.

Notify users affected by the change.

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Questions 79

A daily monitoring report reveals that an IT employee made a change to a firewall rule outside of the change control process. The information security manager's FIRST step in addressing the issue should be to:

Options:

A.

require that the change be reversed

B.

review the change management process

C.

perform an analysis of the change

D.

report the event to senior management

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Questions 80

Which of the following would BEST enable the help desk to recognize an information security incident?

Options:

A.

Train the help desk to review the call logs.

B.

Require the help desk to participate in post-incident reviews.

C.

Provide the help desk with criteria for security incidents.

D.

Include members of the help desk on the security incident response team.

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Questions 81

Which type of system is MOST effective for prioritizing cyber incidents based on impact and tracking them until they are closed?

Options:

A.

Security information and event management (SIEM)

B.

Extended detection and response (XDR)

C.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

D.

Network intrusion detection system (NIDS)

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Questions 82

To ensure the information security of outsourced IT services, which of the following is the MOST critical due diligence activity?

Options:

A.

Request the service provider comply with information security policy.

B.

Review a recent independent audit report of the service provider.

C.

Assess the level of security awareness of the service provider.

D.

Review samples of service level reports from the service provider.

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Questions 83

Which of the following provides the MOST effective response against ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Automatic quarantine of systems

B.

Thorough communication plans

C.

Effective backup plans and processes

D.

Strong password requirements

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Questions 84

An organization has identified IT failures in a call center application. Of the following, who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Head of the call center

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Head of the IT department

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Questions 85

An organization's information security manager reads on social media that a recently purchased vendor product has been compromised and customer data has been posted online. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Notify local law enforcement agencies of a breach.

C.

Activate the incident response program.

D.

Validate the risk to the organization.

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Questions 86

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to operate smoothly with reduced capacities when service has been disrupted?

Options:

A.

Crisis management plan

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

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Questions 87

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when noncompliance with security standards is identified?

Options:

A.

Report the noncompliance to senior management.

B.

Validate the noncompliance.

C.

Include the noncompliance in the risk register.

D.

Implement compensating controls to mitigate the noncompliance.

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Questions 88

When integrating security risk management into an organization it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

business units approve the risk management methodology.

B.

the risk treatment process is defined.

C.

information security policies are documented and understood.

D.

the risk management methodology follows an established framework.

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Questions 89

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when defining control objectives?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

An information security framework

C.

Control recommendations from a recent audit

D.

The organization's risk appetite

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Questions 90

Which of the following defines the triggers within a business continuity plan (BCP)? @

Options:

A.

Needs of the organization

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Information security policy

D.

Gap analysis

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Questions 91

During which of the following phases should an incident response team document actions required to remove the threat that caused the incident?

Options:

A.

Post-incident review

B.

Eradication

C.

Containment

D.

Identification

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Questions 92

Which of the following is MOST helpful for aligning security operations with the IT governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessment

B.

Security operations program

C.

Information security policy

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 93

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when performing triage of a malware incident?

Options:

A.

Containing the affected system

B.

Preserving the forensic image

C.

Comparing backup against production

D.

Removing the malware

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Questions 94

An incident response team has established that an application has been breached. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Maintain the affected systems in a forensically acceptable state

B.

Conduct a risk assessment on the affected application

C.

Inform senior management of the breach.

D.

Isolate the impacted systems from the rest of the network

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Questions 95

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when a newly introduced privacy regulation affects the business?

Options:

A.

Consult with IT staff and assess the risk based on their recommendations

B.

Update the security policy based on the regulatory requirements

C.

Propose relevant controls to ensure the business complies with the regulation

D.

Identify and assess the risk in the context of business objectives

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Questions 96

Which of the following is the BEST method to protect against emerging advanced persistent threat (APT) actors?

Options:

A.

Providing ongoing training to the incident response team

B.

Implementing proactive systems monitoring

C.

Implementing a honeypot environment

D.

Updating information security awareness materials

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Questions 97

Senior management wants to thoroughly test a disaster recovery plan (DRP) for a mission-critical system. Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable results?

Options:

A.

Full interruption test

B.

Parallel test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Structured walk-through

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Questions 98

An investigation of a recent security incident determined that the root cause was negligent handing of incident alerts by system admit manager to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment and share the result with senior management.

B.

Revise the incident response plan-to align with business processes.

C.

Provide incident response training to data custodians.

D.

Provide incident response training to data owners.

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Questions 99

A small organization has a contract with a multinational cloud computing vendor. Which of the following would present the GREATEST concern to an information security manager if omitted from the contract?

Options:

A.

Right of the subscriber to conduct onsite audits of the vendor

B.

Escrow of software code with conditions for code release

C.

Authority of the subscriber to approve access to its data

D.

Commingling of subscribers' data on the same physical server

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Questions 100

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a status report on the information security program to senior management?

Options:

A.

Providing evidence that resources are performing as expected

B.

Verifying security costs do not exceed the budget

C.

Demonstrating risk is managed at the desired level

D.

Confirming the organization complies with security policies

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Questions 101

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

perform a risk assessment.

B.

review the state of security awareness.

C.

review information security policies.

D.

perform a gap analysis.

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Questions 102

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing key performance indicators (KPIs) for the information security program?

Options:

A.

Alignment with financial reporting

B.

Alignment with business initiatives

C.

Alignment with industry frameworks

D.

Alignment with risk appetite

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Questions 103

The PRIMARY reason for creating a business case when proposing an information security project is to:

Options:

A.

articulate inherent risks.

B.

provide demonstrated return on investment (ROI).

C.

establish the value of the project in relation to business objectives.

D.

gain key business stakeholder engagement.

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Questions 104

Which of the following is the GREATEST challenge when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Limiting the number of KRIs

B.

Comprehensively reporting on KRIs

C.

Aggregating common KRIs

D.

Linking KRIs to specific risks

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Questions 105

While classifying information assets an information security manager notices that several production databases do not have owners assigned to them What is the BEST way to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA).

B.

Review the databases for sensitive content.

C.

Prepare a report of the databases for senior management.

D.

Assign the highest classification level to those databases.

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Questions 106

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Perform a gap analysis

C.

Review information security policies

D.

Review the state of security awareness

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Questions 107

Management of a financial institution accepted an operational risk that consequently led to the temporary deactivation to a critical monitoring process. Which of the following should be the information security manager's GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Impact on compliance risk.

B.

Inability to determine short-term impact.

C.

Impact on the risk culture.

D.

Deviation from risk management best practices

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Questions 108

What should an information security manager do FIRST when an organization is planning to use a third-party cloud computing service for a critical business process?

Options:

A.

Identify the data to be hosted.

B.

Perform a gap analysis.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Analyze the business requirements.

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Questions 109

Which of the following should be an information security manager's PRIMARY concern when an organization is expanding business to a new country?

Options:

A.

Compliance with local regulations

B.

Changes in IT infrastructure

C.

Cultural differences in the new country

D.

Ability to gather customer data

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Questions 110

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge when assessing the impact of emerging risk?

Options:

A.

Complexity of the emerging risk

B.

Insufficient data related to the emerging risk

C.

Outdated risk management strategy

D.

Lack of resources to perform risk assessments

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Questions 111

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective disaster recovery planning process?

Options:

A.

Hot sites are required for any declared disaster.

B.

Chain of custody is maintained throughout the disaster recovery process.

C.

Post-incident reviews are conducted after each event.

D.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are shorter than recovery point objectives (RPOs).

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Questions 112

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for a successful security program?

Options:

A.

Mapping security processes to baseline security standards

B.

Penetration testing on key systems

C.

Management decision on asset value

D.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDA) with employees

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Questions 113

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing a new data protection program that must comply with applicable data privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate privacy technologies required for data protection.

B.

Encrypt all personal data stored on systems and networks.

C.

Update disciplinary processes to address privacy violations.

D.

Create an inventory of systems where personal data is stored.

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Questions 114

Which of the following trends would be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the performance of an organization's intrusion detection systems (IDSs)?

Options:

A.

Decrease in false positives

B.

Increase in false positives

C.

Increase in false negatives

D.

Decrease in false negatives

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Questions 115

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an organization with immature incident detection capabilities?

Options:

A.

Performing penetration testing

B.

Improving user awareness

C.

Installing new firewalls

D.

Updating security policies

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Questions 116

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the criticality of an organization's business functions?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Security assessment report (SAR)

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Questions 117

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Review current recovery policies.

B.

Define the organizational strategy.

C.

Prioritize the critical processes.

D.

Review existing cyber insurance coverage.

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Questions 118

An organization's information security manager is performing a post-incident review of a security incident in which the following events occurred:

• A bad actor broke into a business-critical FTP server by brute forcing an administrative password

• The third-party service provider hosting the server sent an automated alert message to the help desk, but was ignored

• The bad actor could not access the administrator console, but was exposed to encrypted data transferred to the server

• After three hours, the bad actor deleted the FTP directory, causing incoming FTP attempts by legitimate customers to fail

Which of the following could have been prevented by conducting regular incident response testing?

Options:

A.

Ignored alert messages

B.

The server being compromised

C.

The brute force attack

D.

Stolen data

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Questions 119

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining whether new risks exist in legacy systems?

Options:

A.

Frequent updates to the risk register

B.

Regularly scheduled security audits

C.

Frequent security architecture reviews

D.

Regularly scheduled risk assessments

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Questions 120

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when a potential business breach is discovered in a critical business system?

Options:

A.

Implement mitigating actions immediately.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Inform senior management of the breach.

D.

Validate the breach.

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Questions 121

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a newly implemented security awareness program has been effective?

Options:

A.

Senior management supports funding for ongoing awareness training.

B.

Employees from each department have completed the required training.

C.

There has been an increase in the number of phishing attempts reported.

D.

There have been no reported successful phishing attempts since the training started.

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Questions 122

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager when evaluating a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Data retention policies are not documented

B.

There is no right to audit the security of the provider

C.

The provider is new to the market and lacks references

D.

Security controls offered by the provider are inadequate

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Questions 123

A global organization is planning to expand its operations into a new country with stricter data protection regulations than those in the headquarters' home country. Which of the following is the BEST approach for adopting these new requirements?

Options:

A.

Adjust organization-wide security polices to align with regulations of the new country.

B.

Ensure local operations comply with geographical data protection laws of the headquarters.

C.

Work with legal to interpret the local regulatory requirements and implement applicable controls.

D.

Procure cybersecurity insurance that covers potential breaches and incidents in the new country.

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Questions 124

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of information security governance into corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Well-decumented information security policies and standards

B.

An information security steering committee with business representation

C.

Clear lines of authority across the organization

D.

Senior management approval of the information security strategy

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Questions 125

An information security manager wants to document requirements detailing the minimum security controls required for user workstations. Which of the following resources would be MOST appropriate for this purposed?

Options:

A.

Guidelines

B.

Policies

C.

Procedures

D.

Standards

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Questions 126

Of the following, who is BEST suited to own the risk discovered in an application?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Senior management

C.

System owner

D.

Control owner

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Questions 127

Which of the following BEST supports effective communication during information security incidents7

Options:

A.

Frequent incident response training sessions

B.

Centralized control monitoring capabilities

C.

Responsibilities defined within role descriptions

D.

Predetermined service level agreements (SLAs)

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Questions 128

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization when information security program requirements are aligned with employment and staffing processes?

Options:

A.

Security incident reporting procedures are followed.

B.

Security staff turnover is reduced.

C.

Information assets are classified appropriately.

D.

Access is granted based on task requirements.

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Questions 129

Relationships between critical systems are BEST understood by

Options:

A.

evaluating key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

developing a system classification scheme

D.

evaluating the recovery time objectives (RTOs)

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Questions 130

Of the following, who is BEST positioned to be accountable for risk acceptance decisions based on risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Information security steering committee

D.

Risk owner

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Questions 131

An organization has implemented controls to mitigate risks resulting from identified vulnerabilities in an application. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify all weaknesses have been addressed?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability assessment

B.

Conduct an internal audit

C.

Conduct penetration testing

D.

Prepare compensating controls

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Questions 132

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for a severity hierarchy for information security incident classification?

Options:

A.

Availability of resources

B.

Root cause analysis results

C.

Adverse effects on the business

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

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Questions 133

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

risk management

B.

project management

C.

governance

D.

performance

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Questions 134

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The definition of an incident

B.

Compliance with regulations

C.

Management support

D.

Previously reported incidents

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Questions 135

An international organization with remote branches is implementing a corporate security policy for managing personally identifiable information (PII). Which of the following should be the information security manager's MAIN concern?

Options:

A.

Local regulations

B.

Data backup strategy

C.

Consistency in awareness programs

D.

Organizational reporting structure

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Questions 136

Identifying which of the following BEST enables a cyberattack to be contained?

Options:

A.

The vulnerability exploited by the attack

B.

The segment targeted by the attack

C.

The IP address of the computer that launched the attack

D.

The threat actor that initiated the attack

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Questions 137

An organization is implementing an information security governance framework. To communicate the program's effectiveness to stakeholders, it is MOST important to establish:

Options:

A.

a control self-assessment (CSA) process.

B.

automated reporting to stakeholders.

C.

a monitoring process for the security policy.

D.

metrics for each milestone.

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Questions 138

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern resulting from the lack of severity criteria in incident classification?

Options:

A.

Statistical reports will be incorrect.

B.

The service desk will be staffed incorrectly.

C.

Escalation procedures will be ineffective.

D.

Timely detection of attacks will be impossible.

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Questions 139

Which type of recovery site is MOST reliable and can support stringent recovery requirements?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Warm site

C.

Hot site

D.

Mobile site

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Questions 140

Which of the following desired outcomes BEST supports a decision to invest in a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Enhanced security monitoring and reporting

B.

Reduced control complexity

C.

Enhanced threat detection capability

D.

Reduction of organizational risk

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Questions 141

When management changes the enterprise business strategy which of the following processes should be used to evaluate the existing information security controls as well as to select new information security controls?

Options:

A.

Configuration management

B.

Risk management

C.

Access control management

D.

Change management

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Questions 142

An information security manager learns that a risk owner has approved exceptions to replace key controls with weaker compensating controls to improve process efficiency. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Risk levels may be elevated beyond acceptable limits.

B.

Security audits may report more high-risk findings.

C.

The compensating controls may not be cost efficient.

D.

Noncompliance with industry best practices may result.

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Questions 143

Which of the following is the BEST approach to make strategic information security decisions?

Options:

A.

Establish regular information security status reporting.

B.

Establish an information security steering committee.

C.

Establish business unit security working groups.

D.

Establish periodic senior management meetings.

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Questions 144

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful implementation of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Adequate security resources are allocated to the program.

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are defined.

C.

A balanced scorecard is approved by the steering committee.

D.

The program is developed using global security standards.

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Questions 145

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are an output of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 146

Which of the following is PRIMARILY determined by asset classification?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage required for assets

B.

Level of protection required for assets

C.

Priority for asset replacement

D.

Replacement cost of assets

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Questions 147

Which of the following is MOST important when defining how an information security budget should be allocated?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance standards

B.

Information security strategy

C.

Information security policy

D.

Business impact assessment

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Questions 148

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider's incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

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Questions 149

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST recommendation to senior management following a breach at the organization's Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Update the vendor risk assessment.

B.

Engage legal counsel.

C.

Renegotiate the vendor contract.

D.

Terminate the relationship with the vendor.

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Questions 150

Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the information security goxernance function?

Options:

A.

Administering information security awareness training

B.

Defining security strategies to support organizational programs

C.

Ensuring adequate support for solutions using emerging technologies

D.

Advising senior management on optimal levels of risk appetite and tolerance

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Questions 151

Which of the following is the BEST source of information to support an organization's information security vision and strategy?

Options:

A.

Metrics dashboard

B.

Governance policies

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Enterprise information security architecture

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Questions 152

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk associated with the use of an automated security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Low number of false positives

B.

Low number of false negatives

C.

High number of false positives

D.

High number of false negatives

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Questions 153

Which of the following is MOST important when developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Engage stakeholders.

B.

Assign data ownership.

C.

Determine information types.

D.

Classify information assets.

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Questions 154

Prior to implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

select mobile device management (MDM) software.

B.

survey employees for requested applications.

C.

develop an acceptable use policy.

D.

review currently utilized applications.

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Questions 155

Which of the following would MOST effectively ensure that a new server is appropriately secured?

Options:

A.

Performing secure code reviews

B.

Enforcing technical security standards

C.

Conducting penetration testing

D.

Initiating security scanning

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Questions 156

An internal audit has revealed that a number of information assets have been inappropriately classified. To correct the classifications, the remediation accountability should be assigned to:

Options:

A.

the business users.

B.

the information owners.

C.

the system administrators.

D.

senior management.

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Questions 157

The categorization of incidents is MOST important for evaluating which of the following?

Options:

A.

Appropriate communication channels

B.

Allocation of needed resources

C.

Risk severity and incident priority

D.

Response and containment requirements

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Questions 158

After the occurrence of a major information security incident, which of the following will BEST help an information security manager determine corrective actions?

Options:

A.

Calculating cost of the incident

B.

Conducting a postmortem assessment

C.

Performing an impact analysis

D.

Preserving the evidence

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Questions 159

Which of the following is the BEST tool to monitor the effectiveness of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Balanced scorecard

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Risk profile

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Questions 160

Which of the following is MOST helpful in the development of a cost-effective information security strategy that is aligned with business requirements?

Options:

A.

Enforcing data retention

B.

Developing policy standards

C.

Benchmarking against industry peers

D.

Categorizing information assets

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Questions 161

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive understanding of an organization's information security posture?

Options:

A.

Security maturity assessment results

B.

Threat analysis of the organization's environment

C.

Results of vulnerability assessments

D.

External penetration test findings

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Questions 162

When testing an incident response plan for recovery from a ransomware attack, which of the following is MOST important to verify?

Options:

A.

Digital currency is immediately available.

B.

Network access requires two-factor authentication.

C.

Data backups are recoverable from an offsite location.

D.

An alternative network link is immediately available.

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Questions 163

Which of the following is MOST important for building 4 robust information security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Mature information security awareness training across the organization

B.

Strict enforcement of employee compliance with organizational security policies

C.

Security controls embedded within the development and operation of the IT environment

D.

Senior management approval of information security policies

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Questions 164

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor for information security program success?

Options:

A.

comprehensive risk assessment program for information security

B.

The information security manager's knowledge of the business

C.

Security staff with appropriate training and adequate resources

D.

Ongoing audits and addressing open items

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Questions 165

An organization has recently purchased cybersecurity insurance after the board voiced concern about the potential for a security breach. With this response to the perceived risk, the organization:

Options:

A.

Has avoided the risk associated with a security breach

B.

Can safely reduce its internal security expenditure

C.

Remains ultimately accountable for the impact of a breach

D.

Has implemented redundant controls against a breach

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Questions 166

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is not co-mingled or exposed when using a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Obtain an independent audit report.

B.

Require the provider to follow stringent data classification procedures.

C.

Include high penalties for security breaches in the contract.

D.

Review the provider's information security policies.

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Questions 167

An organization's information security team presented the risk register at a recent information security steering committee meeting. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the committee?

Options:

A.

No owners were identified for some risks.

B.

Business applications had the highest number of risks.

C.

Risk mitigation action plans had no timelines.

D.

Risk mitigation action plan milestones were delayed.

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Questions 168

Which of the following is the MOST important security consideration when planning to use a cloud service provider in a different country?

Options:

A.

Ability to logically separate client data

B.

Ability to meet service level agreements (SLAs)

C.

Ability to meet business resiliency requirements

D.

Ability to enforce contractual obligations

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Questions 169

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to determine the comprehensiveness of an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Internal security audit

B.

External security audit

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 170

When evaluating cloud storage solutions, the FIRST consideration should be:

Options:

A.

The service level agreement (SLA) for encryption keys

B.

Alignment with the organization’s data classification policy

C.

How the organization’s sensitive data will be transferred

D.

The volume of data to be stored in the cloud

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Questions 171

Which of the following is the BEST option to lower the cost to implement application security controls?

Options:

A.

Perform security tests in the development environment.

B.

Integrate security activities within the development process

C.

Perform a risk analysis after project completion.

D.

Include standard application security requirements

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Questions 172

The BEST way to ensure that frequently encountered incidents are reflected in the user security awareness training program is to include:

Options:

A.

results of exit interviews.

B.

previous training sessions.

C.

examples of help desk requests.

D.

responses to security questionnaires.

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Questions 173

Who is BEST positioned to take ownership of critical IT security risks identified in an application?

Options:

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

C.

Business application owner

D.

Lead application developer

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Questions 174

An organization wants to integrate information security into its HR management processes. Which of the following should be the FIRST step?

Options:

A.

Benchmark the processes with best practice to identify gaps.

B.

Calculate the return on investment (ROI).

C.

Provide security awareness training to HR.

D.

Assess the business objectives of the processes.

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Questions 175

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure appropriate security controls are built into software?

Options:

A.

Integrating security throughout the development process

B.

Performing security testing prior to deployment

C.

Providing standards for implementation during development activities

D.

Providing security training to the software development team

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Questions 176

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when aligning a security awareness program with the organization's business strategy?

Options:

A.

Regulations and standards

B.

People and culture

C.

Executive and board directives

D.

Processes and technology

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Questions 177

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of conducting an organization-wide security awareness program?

Options:

A.

The security strategy is promoted.

B.

Fewer security incidents are reported.

C.

Security behavior is improved.

D.

More security incidents are detected.

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Questions 178

The effectiveness of an information security governance framework will BEST be enhanced if:

Options:

A.

consultants review the information security governance framework.

B.

a culture of legal and regulatory compliance is promoted by management.

C.

risk management is built into operational and strategic activities.

D.

IS auditors are empowered to evaluate governance activities

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Questions 179

Of the following, who is BEST positioned to approve specific information security risk treatment options?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Information security manager

C.

Head of risk management

D.

Senior management

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Questions 180

An organization engages a third-party vendor to monitor and support a financial application under scrutiny by regulators. Which of the following controls would MOST effectively manage risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing separation of duties between systems and data

B.

Including penalty clauses for noncompliance in the vendor contract

C.

Disabling vendor access and only re-enabling when access is needed

D.

Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 181

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to demonstrate that an information security program provides appropriate coverage?

Options:

A.

Security risk analysis

B.

Gap assessment

C.

Maturity assessment

D.

Vulnerability scan report

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Questions 182

The MOST important reason for having an information security manager serve on the change management committee is to:

Options:

A.

identify changes to the information security policy.

B.

ensure that changes are tested.

C.

ensure changes are properly documented.

D.

advise on change-related risk.

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Questions 183

Which of the following is a PRIMARY function of an incident response team?

Options:

A.

To provide effective incident mitigation

B.

To provide a risk assessment for zero-day vulnerabilities

C.

To provide a single point of contact for critical incidents

D.

To provide a business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 184

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to increase security awareness in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implement regularly scheduled information security audits.

B.

Require signed acknowledgment of information security policies.

C.

Conduct periodic simulated phishing exercises.

D.

Include information security requirements in job descriptions.

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Questions 185

An information security manager is concerned with continued security policy violations in a particular business unit despite recent efforts to rectify the situation. What is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy to accommodate the business unit.

B.

Report the business unit for policy noncompliance.

C.

Review the business unit’s function against the policy.

D.

Enforce sanctions on the business unit.

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Questions 186

A recent audit found that an organization's new user accounts are not set up uniformly. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to review?

Options:

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

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Questions 187

During which of the following development phases is it MOST challenging to implement security controls?

Options:

A.

Post-implementation phase

B.

Implementation phase

C.

Development phase

D.

Design phase

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Questions 188

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider?

Options:

A.

Existence of a right-to-audit clause

B.

Results of the provider's business continuity tests

C.

Technical capabilities of the provider

D.

Existence of the provider's incident response plan

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Questions 189

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an organization's information security status?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection log analysis

B.

Controls audit

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Penetration test

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Questions 190

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

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Questions 191

Which of the following is established during the preparation phase of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Chain of custody procedures

C.

Stakeholder communication plan

D.

Mean time to respond (MTTR)

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Questions 192

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk is treated to an acceptable level.

B.

The number of security incidents reported by staff has increased.

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are established.

D.

Policies are reviewed and approved by senior management.

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Questions 193

An anomaly-based intrusion detection system (IDS) operates by gathering data on:

Options:

A.

normal network behavior and using it as a baseline lor measuring abnormal activity

B.

abnormal network behavior and issuing instructions to the firewall to drop rogue connections

C.

abnormal network behavior and using it as a baseline for measuring normal activity

D.

attack pattern signatures from historical data

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Questions 194

Which of the following should have the MOST influence on an organization's response to a new industry regulation?

Options:

A.

The organization's control objectives

B.

The organization's risk management framework

C.

The organization's risk appetite

D.

The organization's risk control baselines

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Questions 195

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

Identify mitigating controls.

B.

Assess the costs of the incident.

C.

Perform root cause analysis.

D.

Assign responsibility for corrective actions.

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Questions 196

Application data integrity risk is MOST directly addressed by a design that includes:

Options:

A.

reconciliation routines such as checksums, hash totals, and record counts.

B.

strict application of an authorized data dictionary.

C.

application log requirements such as field-level audit trails and user activity logs.

D.

access control technologies such as role-based entitlements.

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Questions 197

Which of the following would be MOST useful to a newly hired information security manager who has been tasked with developing and implementing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The capabilities and expertise of the information security team

B.

The organization's mission statement and roadmap

C.

A prior successful information security strategy

D.

The organization's information technology (IT) strategy

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Questions 198

Management has announced the acquisition of a new company. The information security manager of the parent company is concerned that conflicting access rights may cause critical information to be exposed during the integration of the two companies. To BEST address this concern, the information security manager should:

Options:

A.

review access rights as the acquisition integration occurs.

B.

perform a risk assessment of the access rights.

C.

escalate concerns for conflicting access rights to management.

D.

implement consistent access control standards.

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Questions 199

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the information security function when an organization adopts emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Developing security training for the new technologies

B.

Designing new security controls

C.

Creating an acceptable use policy for the technologies

D.

Assessing the potential security risk

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Questions 200

Network isolation techniques are immediately implemented after a security breach to:

Options:

A.

preserve evidence as required for forensics

B.

reduce the extent of further damage.

C.

allow time for key stakeholder decision making.

D.

enforce zero trust architecture principles.

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Questions 201

An incident response team has been assembled from a group of experienced individuals, Which type of exercise would be MOST beneficial for the team at the first drill?

Options:

A.

Red team exercise

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Disaster recovery exercise

D.

Tabletop exercise

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Questions 202

An information security team has started work to mitigate findings from a recent penetration test. Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Some findings were reclassified to low risk after evaluation

B.

Not all findings from the penetration test report were fixed

C.

The penetration testing report did not contain any high-risk findings

D.

Risk classification of penetration test findings was not performed

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Questions 203

When multiple Internet intrusions on a server are detected, the PRIMARY concern of the information security manager should be to ensure:

Options:

A.

the integrity of evidence is preserved.

B.

forensic investigation software is loaded on the server.

C.

the incident is reported to senior management.

D.

the server is unplugged from power.

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Questions 204

An information security manager has discovered a new technique that cybercriminals are exploiting. Which of the following has the manager identified?

Options:

A.

A risk

B.

A threat

C.

An incident

D.

An event

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Questions 205

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a vulnerability has been disclosed?

Options:

A.

Perform a patch update.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment.

C.

Perform a penetration test.

D.

Conduct an impact assessment.

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Questions 206

Which of the following will BEST enable an organization to meet incident response requirements when outsourcing its incident response function?

Options:

A.

Including response times in service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Including a right-to-audit clause in service level agreements (SLAs)

C.

Contracting with a well-known incident response provider

D.

Requiring comprehensive response applications and tools

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Questions 207

In a cloud technology environment, which of the following would pose the GREATEST challenge to the investigation of security incidents?

Options:

A.

Access to the hardware

B.

Data encryption

C.

Non-standard event logs

D.

Compressed customer data

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Questions 208

Which of the following BEST determines an information asset's classification?

Options:

A.

Value of the information asset in the marketplace

B.

Criticality to a business process

C.

Risk assessment from the data owner

D.

Cost of producing the information asset

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Questions 209

Which of the following should an information security manager do NEXT after creating a roadmap to execute the strategy for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Obtain consensus on the strategy from the executive board.

B.

Review alignment with business goals.

C.

Define organizational risk tolerance.

D.

Develop a project plan to implement the strategy.

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Questions 210

An employee clicked on a malicious link in an email that resulted in compromising company data. What is the BEST way to mitigate this risk in the future?

Options:

A.

Conduct phishing awareness training.

B.

Implement disciplinary procedures.

C.

Establish an acceptable use policy.

D.

Assess and update spam filtering rules.

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Questions 211

Which of the following would be MOST useful to help senior management understand the status of information security compliance?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Risk assessment results

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Questions 212

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to document information security incidents that are reported across the organization?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security posture of the organization.

B.

Identify unmitigated risk.

C.

Prevent incident recurrence.

D.

Support business investments in security.

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Questions 213

A newly appointed information security manager has been asked to update all security-related policies and procedures that have been static for five years or more. What should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Update in accordance with the best business practices.

B.

Perform a risk assessment of the current IT environment.

C.

Gain an understanding of the current business direction.

D.

Inventory and review current security policies.

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Questions 214

Which of the following would BEST address the risk of a system failing to detect a breach?

Options:

A.

User access reviews

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Vulnerability scanning

D.

Security control testing

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Questions 215

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of the vendor risk management process?

Options:

A.

Increase in the percentage of vendors certified to a globally recognized security standard

B.

Increase in the percentage of vendors with a completed due diligence review

C.

Increase in the percentage of vendors conducting mandatory security training

D.

Increase in the percentage of vendors that have reported security breaches

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Questions 216

Which of the following metrics would provide an accurate measure of an information security program's performance?

Options:

A.

A collection of qualitative indicators that accurately measure security exceptions

B.

A combination of qualitative and quantitative trends that enable decision making

C.

A collection of quantitative indicators that are compared against industry benchmarks

D.

A single numeric score derived from various measures assigned to the security program

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Questions 217

Which of the following is MOST important to convey to employees in building a security risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Personal information requires different security controls than sensitive information.

B.

Employee access should be based on the principle of least privilege.

C.

Understanding an information asset's value is critical to risk management.

D.

The responsibility for security rests with all employees.

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Questions 218

Following a risk assessment, an organization has made the decision to adopt a bring your own device (BYOD) strategy. What should the information security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Develop a personal device policy

B.

Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution

C.

Develop training specific to BYOD awareness

D.

Define control requirements

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Questions 219

An organization is experiencing a sharp increase in incidents related to phishing messages. The root cause is an outdated email filtering system that is no longer supported by the vendor. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reinforce security awareness practices for end users.

B.

Temporarily outsource the email system to a cloud provider.

C.

Develop a business case to replace the system.

D.

Monitor outgoing traffic on the firewall.

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Questions 220

When establishing an information security governance framework, it is MOST important for an information security manager to understand:

Options:

A.

information security best practices.

B.

risk management techniques.

C.

the threat environment.

D.

the corporate culture.

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Questions 221

Which of the following is MOST important to emphasize when presenting information to gain senior management support for control enhancements?

Options:

A.

Residual risk exposure

B.

Threats against internal systems

C.

Control gaps within defense-in-depth architecture

D.

Recent data breaches in the same industry sector

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Questions 222

An information security manager has identified that privileged employee access requests to production servers are approved; but user actions are not logged. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Lack of availability

B.

Lack of accountability

C.

Improper authorization

D.

Inadequate authentication

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Questions 223

Which of the following BEST describes a buffer overflow?

Options:

A.

A function is carried out with more data than the function can handle

B.

A program contains a hidden and unintended function that presents a security risk

C.

Malicious code designed to interfere with normal operations

D.

A type of covert channel that captures data

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Questions 224

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents.

B.

identify vulnerabilities.

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

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Questions 225

To help ensure that an information security training program is MOST effective its contents should be

Options:

A.

focused on information security policy.

B.

aligned to business processes

C.

based on employees' roles

D.

based on recent incidents

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Questions 226

The PRIMARY purpose of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is to determine the:

Options:

A.

scope of the business continuity program.

B.

resources needed for business recovery.

C.

recovery time objective (RTO).

D.

scope of the incident response plan.

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Questions 227

Which of the following BEST indicates that an information security governance framework has been successfully implemented?

Options:

A.

The framework aligns internal and external resources.

B.

The framework aligns security processes with industry best practices.

C.

The framework aligns management and other functions within the security organization.

D.

The framework includes commercial off-the-shelf security solutions.

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Questions 228

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of an acceptable use policy?

Options:

A.

To provide steps for carrying out security-related procedures

B.

To facilitate enforcement of security process workflows

C.

To protect the organization from misuse of information assets

D.

To provide minimum security baselines for information assets

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Questions 229

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to identify and contain security incidents?

Options:

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Threat modeling

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Tabletop exercises

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Questions 230

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to demonstrate the effectiveness of the information security and risk program to senior management?

Options:

A.

Updated risk assessments

B.

Counts of information security incidents

C.

Audit reports

D.

Monthly metrics

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Questions 231

An organization has been penalized by regulatory authorities for failing to notify them of a major security breach that may have compromised customer data. Which of the following is MOST likely in need of review and updating to prevent similar penalties in the future?

Options:

A.

Information security policies and procedures

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Incident communication plan

D.

Incident response training program

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Questions 232

Which of the following incident response phases involves actions to help safeguard critical systems while maintaining business operations?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Identification

C.

Containment

D.

Preparation

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Questions 233

Which of the following is a viable containment strategy for a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?

Options:

A.

Block IP addresses used by the attacker

B.

Redirect the attacker's traffic

C.

Disable firewall ports exploited by the attacker.

D.

Power off affected servers

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Questions 234

To inform a risk treatment decision, which of the following should the information security manager compare with the organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis results

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Level of risk treatment

D.

Configuration parameters

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Questions 235

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when confidential information is inadvertently disseminated outside the organization?

Options:

A.

Review compliance requirements.

B.

Communicate the exposure.

C.

Declare an incident.

D.

Change the encryption keys.

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Questions 236

Which of the following business units should own the data that populates an identity management system?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR)

B.

Legal

C.

Information technology

D.

Information security

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Questions 237

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the information security investment process?

Options:

A.

IT governance framework

B.

Information security policy

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 238

Labeling information according to its security classification:

Options:

A.

enhances the likelihood of people handling information securely.

B.

reduces the number and type of countermeasures required.

C.

reduces the need to identify baseline controls for each classification.

D.

affects the consequences if information is handled insecurely.

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Questions 239

Following a successful attack, an information security manager should be confident the malware @ continued to spread at the completion of which incident response phase?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Eradication

D.

Identification

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Questions 240

The executive management of a domestic organization has announced plans to expand operations to multiple international locations. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST step upon learning of these plans?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis against international information security standards

B.

Update security training and awareness resources accordingly

C.

Research legal and regulatory requirements impacting the new locations

D.

Prepare localized information security policies for each new location

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Questions 241

An information security manager is working to incorporate media communication procedures into the security incident communication plan. It would be MOST important to include:

Options:

A.

a directory of approved local media contacts

B.

pre-prepared media statements

C.

procedures to contact law enforcement

D.

a single point of contact within the organization

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Questions 242

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to obtain organizational support for the implementation of security controls?

Options:

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability assessments

B.

Communicating business impact analysis (BIA) results

C.

Establishing effective stakeholder relationships

D.

Defining the organization's risk management framework

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Questions 243

Which of the following should be the FIRST step to gain approval for outsourcing to address a security gap?

Options:

A.

Collect additional metrics.

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Submit funding request to senior management.

D.

Begin due diligence on the outsourcing company.

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Questions 244

Which of the following eradication methods is MOST appropriate when responding to an incident resulting in malware on an application server?

Options:

A.

Disconnect the system from the network.

B.

Change passwords on the compromised system.

C.

Restore the system from a known good backup.

D.

Perform operation system hardening.

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Questions 245

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing an organization's information security governance committee?

Options:

A.

Members have knowledge of information security controls.

B.

Members are business risk owners.

C.

Members are rotated periodically.

D.

Members represent functions across the organization.

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Questions 246

Detailed business continuity plans (BCPs) should be PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

strategies validated by senior management.

B.

capabilities of available local vendors.

C.

strategies that cover all applications.

D.

cost and resources needed to execute.

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Questions 247

Which of the following is ESSENTIAL to ensuring effective incident response?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Classification scheme

D.

Senior management support

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Questions 248

Which of the following BEST helps to enable the desired information security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Information security awareness training and campaigns

B.

Effective information security policies and procedures

C.

Delegation of information security roles and responsibilities

D.

Incentives for appropriate information security-related behavior

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Questions 249

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to address an organizations security concerns during contract negotiations with a third party?

Options:

A.

Ensure security is involved in the procurement process.

B.

Review the third-party contract with the organization's legal department.

C.

Conduct an information security audit on the third-party vendor.

D.

Communicate security policy with the third-party vendor.

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Questions 250

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

To aid in future risk assessments

B.

To improve the response process

C.

To determine whether digital evidence is admissible

D.

To notify regulatory authorities

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Questions 251

An organization is planning to engage a third-party service provider to develop custom software. Which of the following would help to provide the GREATEST assurance of software security?

Options:

A.

Security training for the service provider’s software development staff

B.

Independent assessment against a relevant standard

C.

Verification of certifications held by the individual developers

D.

Review of the service provider’s software development policies

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Questions 252

Which of the following factors has the GREATEST influence on the successful implementation of information security strategy goals?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Compliance acceptance

C.

Management support

D.

Budgetary approval

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Questions 253

Which of the following is a prerequisite for formulating a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) for the business processes

B.

Process maps for production applications

C.

System recovery procedures for alternate-site processing

D.

Comprehensive property inventory

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Questions 254

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to enhance its incident response plan processes and procedures?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessments

B.

Lessons learned analysis

C.

Information security audits

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 255

A risk owner has accepted a large amount of risk due to the high cost of controls. Which of the following should be the information security manager's PRIMARY focus in this situation?

Options:

A.

Establishing a strong ongoing risk monitoring process

B.

Presenting the risk profile for approval by the risk owner

C.

Conducting an independent review of risk responses

D.

Updating the information security standards to include the accepted risk

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Questions 256

An organization needs to comply with new security incident response requirements. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a business case for a new incident response plan.

B.

Revise the existing incident response plan.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Assess the impact to the budget,

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Questions 257

Which of the following should be done NEXT following senior management's decision to comply with new personal data regulations that are much more stringent than those currently followed to avoid massive fines?

Options:

A.

Encrypt data in transit and at rest.

B.

Complete a return on investment (ROI) analysis.

C.

Create and implement a data minimization plan.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis.

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Questions 258

A proposal designed to gain buy-in from senior management for a new security project will be MOST effective if it includes:

Options:

A.

analysis of current threat landscape.

B.

historical data of reported incidents.

C.

projected return on investment (ROI).

D.

industry benchmarking gap analysis.

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Questions 259

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine the costs of downtime for a critical application?

Options:

A.

Fault tree analysis

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Return on investment (ROI) analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 260

Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority during an information security post-incident review?

Options:

A.

Documenting actions taken in sufficient detail

B.

Updating key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Evaluating the performance of incident response team members

D.

Evaluating incident response effectiveness

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Questions 261

Which of the following should be done FIRST once a cybersecurity attack has been confirmed?

Options:

A.

Isolate the affected system.

B.

Notify senior management.

C.

Power down the system.

D.

Contact legal authorities.

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Questions 262

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure the alignment of an information security program with the organizational strategy?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking against industry peers

B.

Adoption of an industry recognized framework

C.

Approval from senior management

D.

Identification of business-specific risk factors

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Questions 263

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an incident response plan to ensure incidents are responded to by the appropriate individuals?

Options:

A.

Skills required for the incident response team

B.

A list of external resources to assist with incidents

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A detailed incident notification process

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Questions 264

Which of the following BEST indicates that information assets are classified accurately?

Options:

A.

Appropriate prioritization of information risk treatment

B.

Increased compliance with information security policy

C.

Appropriate assignment of information asset owners

D.

An accurate and complete information asset catalog

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Questions 265

An online bank identifies a successful network attack in progress. The bank should FIRST:

Options:

A.

isolate the affected network segment.

B.

report the root cause to the board of directors.

C.

assess whether personally identifiable information (Pll) is compromised.

D.

shut down the entire network.

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Questions 266

Which of the following is CRITICAL to ensure the appropriate stakeholder makes decisions during a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder plan

B.

Escalation plan

C.

Up-to-date risk register

D.

Asset classification

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Questions 267

Following an information security risk assessment of a critical system, several significant issues have been identified. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to confirm?

Options:

A.

The risks are reported to the business unit’s senior management

B.

The risks are escalated to the IT department for remediation

C.

The risks are communicated to the central risk function

D.

The risks are entered in the organization's risk register

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Questions 268

The information security manager of a multinational organization has been asked to consolidate the information security policies of its regional locations. Which of the following would be of

GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Varying threat environments

B.

Disparate reporting lines

C.

Conflicting legal requirements

D.

Differences in work culture

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Questions 269

Which type of plan is PRIMARILY intended to reduce the potential impact of security events that may occur?

Options:

A.

Security awareness plan

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Incident response plan

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Questions 270

Which of the following tasks would provide a newly appointed information security manager with the BEST view of the organization's existing security posture?

Options:

A.

Reviewing policies and procedures

B.

Performing a risk assessment

C.

Interviewing business managers and employees

D.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 271

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure risk appetite is considered during the risk treatment process?

Options:

A.

Formalized risk management framework

B.

Organization-wide risk awareness and training programs

C.

Use of a quantitative risk measurement approach

D.

Automated monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 272

An organization implemented a number of technical and administrative controls to mitigate risk associated with ransomware. Which of the following is MOST important to present to senior management when reporting on the performance of this initiative?

Options:

A.

The total cost of the investment

B.

The cost and associated risk reduction

C.

The number and severity of ransomware incidents

D.

Benchmarks of industry peers impacted by ransomware

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Questions 273

A business continuity plan (BCP) should contain:

Options:

A.

information about eradication activities.

B.

hardware and software inventories.

C.

data restoration procedures.

D.

criteria for activation.

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Questions 274

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an information security manager identifies that systems are vulnerable to emerging threats?

Options:

A.

Frequently update systems and monitor the threat landscape.

B.

Monitor the network containing the affected systems for malicious traffic.

C.

Increase awareness of the threats among employees who work with the systems.

D.

Notify senior management and key stakeholders of the threats.

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Questions 275

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an information security status report to senior management?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Review of information security policies

C.

Information security budget requests

D.

List of recent security events

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Questions 276

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of implementing information security standards?

Options:

A.

To provide management direction with a specific security objective

B.

To provide a basis for developing information security policies

C.

To provide step-by-step instructions for performing security-related tasks

D.

To establish a minimum acceptable security baseline

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Questions 277

Unintentional behavior by an employee caused a major data loss incident. Which of the following is the BEST way for the information security manager to prevent recurrence within the organization?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls.

B.

Communicate consequences for future instances.

C.

Enhance the data loss prevention (DLP) solution.

D.

Improve the security awareness training program.

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Questions 278

Which of the following is the FIRST step in developing a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Determine the business recovery strategy

B.

Determine available resources.

C.

Identify the applications with the shortest recovery time objectives (RTOs).

D.

Identify critical business processes.

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Questions 279

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Residual risk

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

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Questions 280

An organization's security policy is to disable access to USB storage devices on laptops and desktops. Which of the following is the STRONGEST justification for granting an exception to the policy?

Options:

A.

The benefit is greater than the potential risk.

B.

USB storage devices are enabled based on user roles.

C.

Users accept the risk of noncompliance.

D.

Access is restricted to read-only.

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Questions 281

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for identifying security control gaps on an application server?

Options:

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Threat models

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Internal audit reports

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Questions 282

Which of the following BEST illustrates residual risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Heat map

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Balanced scorecard

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Questions 283

A department has reported that a security control is no longer effective. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Replace the control

B.

Check for defense in depth

C.

Assess the control state

D.

Report the failure to management

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Questions 284

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after identifying suspicious activity on a PC that is not in the organization's IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Isolate the PC from the network

B.

Perform a vulnerability scan

C.

Determine why the PC is not included in the inventory

D.

Reinforce information security training

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Questions 285

Which of the following should be the KEY consideration when creating an information security communication plan with industry peers?

Options:

A.

Balancing the benefits of information sharing with the drawbacks of sharing sensitive information

B.

Reducing the costs associated with information sharing by automating the process

C.

Ensuring information is detailed enough to be of use to other organizations

D.

Notifying the legal department whenever incident-related information is shared

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Questions 286

Which of the following BEST determines the data retention strategy and subsequent policy for an organization?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business requirements

C.

Supplier requirements

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 287

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to a large multinational organization using an automated identity and access management (1AM) system?

Options:

A.

Staff turnover rates that significantly exceed industry averages

B.

Large number of applications in the organization

C.

Inaccurate workforce data from human resources (HR)

D.

Frequent changes to user roles during employment

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Questions 288

The department head of application development has decided to accept the risks identified in a recent assessment. No recommendations will be implemented, even though the recommendations are required by regulatory oversight. What should the information security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Review the risk monitoring plan.

B.

Formally document the decision.

C.

Review the regulations.

D.

Advise the risk management team.

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Questions 289

Management has expressed concerns to the information security manager that shadow IT may be a risk to the organization. What is the FIRST step the information security manager should take?

Options:

A.

Determine the extent of shadow IT usage

B.

Update the security policy to address shadow IT

C.

Block the end user’s ability to use shadow IT

D.

Determine the value of shadow IT projects

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Questions 290

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an organization to communicate to affected parties that a security incident has occurred?

Options:

A.

To improve awareness of information security

B.

To disclose the root cause of the incident

C.

To increase goodwill toward the organization

D.

To comply with regulations regarding notification

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Questions 291

An organization is transitioning to a Zero Trust architecture. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST approach for communicating the implications of this transition to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Present a diagram of core Zero Trust logical components to help visualize the architectural changes

B.

Summarize the training plan and end user feedback in an internal portal and send the link to the board

C.

Prepare a report on the Zero Trust implementation that includes a status dashboard and timeline

D.

Provide an outline of the business impact in terms of risk reduction and changes in user experience

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Questions 292

When developing security processes for handling credit card data on the business unit's information system, the information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

ensure alignment with industry encryption standards.

B.

ensure that systems that handle credit card data are segmented.

C.

review industry best practices for handling secure payments.

D.

review corporate policies regarding credit card information.

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Questions 293

When establishing classifications of security incidents for the development of an incident response plan, which of the following provides the MOST valuable input?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Vulnerability assessment results

C.

The business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Recommendations from senior management

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Questions 294

Which of the following elements of a service contract would BEST enable an organization to monitor the information security risk associated with a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Indemnification clause

B.

Breach detection and notification

C.

Compliance status reporting

D.

Physical access to service provider premises

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Questions 295

What is the PRIMARY objective of performing a vulnerability assessment following a business system update?

Options:

A.

Determine operational losses.

B.

Improve the change control process.

C.

Update the threat landscape.

D.

Review the effectiveness of controls

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Questions 296

During the initiation phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) for a software project, information security activities should address:

Options:

A.

baseline security controls.

B.

benchmarking security metrics.

C.

security objectives.

D.

cost-benefit analyses.

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Questions 297

Data entry functions for a web-based application have been outsourced to a third-party service provider who will work from a remote site Which of the following issues would be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager?

Options:

A.

The application does not use a secure communications protocol

B.

The application is configured with restrictive access controls

C.

The business process has only one level of error checking

D.

Server-based malware protection is not enforced

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Questions 298

When taking a risk-based approach to vulnerability management, which of the following is MOST important to consider when prioritizing a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

The information available about the vulnerability

B.

The sensitivity of the asset and the data it contains

C.

IT resource availability and constraints

D.

Whether patches have been developed and tested

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Questions 299

For the information security manager, integrating the various assurance functions of an organization is important PRIMARILY to enable:

Options:

A.

consistent security.

B.

comprehensive audits

C.

a security-aware culture

D.

compliance with policy

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Questions 300

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure incident management readiness?

Options:

A.

The plan is compliant with industry standards.

B.

The plan is regularly tested.

C.

The plan is updated annually.

D.

The plan is concise and includes a checklist.

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Questions 301

Which of the following BEST determines the allocation of resources during a security incident response?

Options:

A.

Senior management commitment

B.

A business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

An established escalation process

D.

Defined levels of severity

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Questions 302

Which of the following will BEST facilitate timely and effective incident response?

Options:

A.

Including penetration test results in incident response planning

B.

Assessing the risk of compromised assets

C.

Classifying the severity of an incident

D.

Notifying stakeholders when invoking the incident response plan

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Questions 303

When developing a categorization method for security incidents, the categories MUST:

Options:

A.

align with industry standards.

B.

be created by the incident handler.

C.

have agreed-upon definitions.

D.

align with reporting requirements.

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Questions 304

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an information security manager to archive and retain the organization's electronic communication and email data?

Options:

A.

To track personal use of electronic communication by users

B.

To provide as evidence in legal proceedings when required

C.

To meet the requirements of global security standards

D.

To identify and scan attachments for malware

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Questions 305

Meeting which of the following security objectives BEST ensures that information is protected against unauthorized disclosure?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Questions 306

Management would like to understand the risk associated with engaging an Infrastructure-as-a-Service (laaS) provider compared to hosting internally. Which of the following would provide the BEST method of comparing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Mapping risk scenarios according to sensitivity of data

B.

Reviewing mitigating and compensating controls for each risk scenario

C.

Mapping the risk scenarios by likelihood and impact on a chart

D.

Performing a risk assessment on the laaS provider

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Questions 307

Which of the following activities is MOST appropriate to conduct during the eradication phase of a cyber incident response?

Options:

A.

Restore affected systems for normal operations.

B.

Mitigate exploited vulnerabilities to stop future incidents.

C.

Estimate the amount of damage caused by the incident.

D.

Isolate affected systems to prevent further damage

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Questions 308

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to present quarterly reports to the board on the status of the information security program?

Options:

A.

A capability and maturity assessment

B.

Detailed analysis of security program KPIs

C.

An information security dashboard

D.

An information security risk register

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager
Last Update: Apr 19, 2026
Questions: 1044

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