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CTPRP Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Minimum risk assessment standards for third party due diligence should be:

Options:

A.

Set by each business unit based on the number of vendors to be assessed

B.

Defined in the vendor/service provider contract or statement of work

C.

Established by the TPRM program based on the company’s risk tolerance and risk appetite

D.

Identified by procurement and required for all vendors and suppliers

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Questions 5

Which of the following is NOT an attribute in the vendor inventory used to assign risk rating and vendor classification?

Options:

A.

Type of data accessed, processed, or retained

B.

Type of systems accessed

C.

Type of contract addendum

D.

Type of network connectivity

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Questions 6

Which statement is TRUE regarding artifacts reviewed when assessing the Cardholder Data Environment (CDE) in payment card processing?

Options:

A.

The Data Security Standards (DSS) framework should be used to scope the assessment

B.

The Report on Compliance (ROC) provides the assessment results completed by a qualified security assessor that includes an onsite audit

C.

The Self-Assessment Questionnaire (SAQ) provides independent testing of controls

D.

A System and Organization Controls (SOC) report is sufficient if the report addresses the same location

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Questions 7

Which statement reflects a requirement that is NOT typically found in a formal Information Security Incident Management Program?

Options:

A.

The program includes the definition of internal escalation processes

B.

The program includes protocols for disclosure of information to external parties

C.

The program includes mechanisms for notification to clients

D.

The program includes processes in support of disaster recovery

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Questions 8

Which type of contract provision is MOST important in managing Fourth-Nth party risk after contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete?

Options:

A.

Subcontractor notice and approval

B.

Indemnification and liability

C.

Breach notification

D.

Right to audit

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Questions 9

Which type of contract termination is MOST likely to occur after failure to remediate assessment findings?

Options:

A.

Regulatory/supervisory termination

B.

Termination for convenience

C.

Normal termination

D.

Termination for cause

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Questions 10

Which set of procedures is typically NOT addressed within data privacy policies?

Options:

A.

Procedures to limit access and disclosure of personal information to third parties

B.

Procedures for handling data access requests from individuals

C.

Procedures for configuration settings in identity access management

D.

Procedures for incident reporting and notification

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Questions 11

An IT change management approval process includes all of the following components EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Application version control standards for software release updates

B.

Documented audit trail for all emergency changes

C.

Defined roles between business and IT functions

D.

Guidelines that restrict approval of changes to only authorized personnel

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Questions 12

When defining due diligence requirements for the set of vendors that host web applications which of the following is typically NOT part of evaluating the vendor's patch

management controls?

Options:

A.

The capability of the vendor to apply priority patching of high-risk systems

B.

Established procedures for testing of patches, service packs, and hot fixes prior to installation

C.

A documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications

D.

The existence of a formal process for evaluation and prioritization of known vulnerabilities

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Questions 13

Which requirement is the MOST important for managing risk when the vendor contract terminates?

Options:

A.

The responsibility to perform a financial review of outstanding invoices

B.

The commitment to perform a final assessment based upon due diligence standards

C.

The requirement to ensure secure data destruction and asset return

D.

The obligation to define contract terms for transition services

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Questions 14

All of the following processes are components of controls evaluation in the Third Party Risk Assessment process EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Reviewing compliance artifacts for the presence of control attributes

B.

Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit

C.

Analyzing assessment results to identify and report risk

D.

Scoping the assessment based on identified risk factors

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Questions 15

Upon completion of a third party assessment, a meeting should be scheduled with which

of the following resources prior to sharing findings with the vendor/service provider to

approve remediation plans:

Options:

A.

CISO/CIO

B.

Business Unit Relationship Owner

C.

internal Audit

D.

C&O

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Questions 16

Which statement is NOT an accurate reflection of an organizations requirements within an enterprise information security policy?

Options:

A.

Security policies should define the organizational structure and accountabilities for oversight

B.

Security policies should have an effective date and date of last review by management

C.

Security policies should be changed on an annual basis due to technology changes

D.

Security policies should be organized based upon an accepted control framework

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Questions 17

Which activity reflects the concept of vendor management?

Options:

A.

Managing service level agreements

B.

Scanning and collecting information from third party web sites

C.

Reviewing and analyzing external audit reports

D.

Receiving and analyzing a vendor's response to & questionnaire

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Questions 18

Which statement BEST describes the methods of performing due diligence during third party risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Inspecting physical and environmental security controls by conducting a facility tour

B.

Reviewing status of findings from the questionnaire and defining remediation plans

C.

interviewing subject matter experts or control owners, reviewing compliance artifacts, and validating controls

D.

Reviewing and assessing only the obligations that are specifically defined in the contract

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Questions 19

Which cloud deployment model is primarily focused on the application layer?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure as a Service

B.

Software as a Service

C.

Function a3 a Service

D.

Platform as a Service

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Questions 20

Which statement is FALSE regarding the different types of contracts and agreements between outsourcers and service providers?

Options:

A.

Contract addendums are not sufficient for addressing third party risk obligations as each requirement must be outlined in the Master Services Agreement (MSA)

B.

Evergreen contracts are automatically renewed for each party after the maturity period, unless terminated under existing contract provisions

C.

Requests for Proposals (RFPs) for outsourced services should include mandatory requirements based on an organization's TPRM program policies, standards and procedures

D.

Statements of Work (SOWs) define operational requirements and obligations for each party

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Questions 21

When evaluating compliance artifacts for change management, a robust process should include the following attributes:

Options:

A.

Approval, validation, auditable.

B.

Logging, approvals, validation, back-out and exception procedures

C.

Logging, approval, back-out.

D.

Communications, approval, auditable.

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Questions 22

When conducting an assessment of a third party's physical security controls, which of the following represents the innermost layer in a ‘Defense in Depth’ model?

Options:

A.

Public internal

B.

Restricted entry

C.

Private internal

D.

Public external

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Questions 23

Which statement is TRUE regarding a vendor's approach to Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) programs?

Options:

A.

ESG expectations are driven by a company's executive team for internal commitments end not external entities

B.

ESG requirements and programs may be directed by regulatory obligations or in response to company commitments

C.

ESG commitments can only be measured qualitatively so it cannot be included in vendor due diligence standards

D.

ESG obligations only apply to a company with publicly traded stocks

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Questions 24

Tracking breach, credential exposure and insider fraud/theft alerts is an example of which continuous monitoring technique?

Options:

A.

Monitoring surface

B.

Vulnerabilities

C.

Passive and active indicators of compromise

D.

Business intelligence

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Questions 25

Which vendor statement provides the BEST description of the concept of least privilege?

Options:

A.

We require dual authorization for restricted areas

B.

We grant people access to the minimum necessary to do their job

C.

We require separation of duties for performance of high risk activities

D.

We limit root and administrator access to only a few personnel

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Questions 26

The following statements reflect user obligations defined in end-user device policies

EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

A statement specifying the owner of data on the end-user device

B.

A statement that defines the process to remove all organizational data, settings and accounts alt offboarding

C.

A statement detailing user responsibility in ensuring the security of the end-user device

D.

A statement that specifies the ability to synchronize mobile device data with enterprise systems

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Questions 27

Which TPRM risk assessment component would typically NOT be maintained in a Risk Register?

Options:

A.

An assessment of the impact and likelihood the risk will occur and the possible seriousness

B.

Vendor inventory of all suppliers, vendors, and service providers prioritized by contract value

C.

An outline of proposed mitigation actions and assignment of risk owner

D.

A grading of each risk according to a risk assessment table or hierarchy

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Questions 28

Which of the following topics is LEAST important when evaluating a service provider's Security and Privacy Awareness Program?

Options:

A.

Training on phishing and social engineering risks and expected actions for employees and contractors

B.

Training on whistleblower compliance issue reporting mechanisms

C.

Training that is designed based on role, job scope, or level of access

D.

Training on acceptable use and data safeguards based on organization's policies

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Questions 29

Which statement BEST represents the primary objective of a third party risk assessment:

Options:

A.

To assess the appropriateness of non-disclosure agreements regarding the organization's systems/data

B.

To validate that the vendor/service provider has adequate controls in place based on the organization's risk posture

C.

To determine the scope of the business relationship

D.

To evaluate the risk posture of all vendors/service providers in the vendor inventory

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Questions 30

Which factor describes the concept of criticality of a service provider relationship when determining vendor classification?

Options:

A.

Criticality is limited to only the set of vendors involved in providing disaster recovery services

B.

Criticality is determined as all high risk vendors with access to personal information

C.

Criticality is assigned to the subset of vendor relationships that pose the greatest impact due to their unavailability

D.

Criticality is described as the set of vendors with remote access or network connectivity to company systems

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Questions 31

Which statement BEST represents the roles and responsibilities for managing corrective actions upon completion of an onsite or virtual assessment?

Options:

A.

All findings and remediation plans should be reviewed with internal audit prior to issuing the assessment report

B.

All findings and remediation plans should be reviewed with the vendor prior to sharing results with the line of business

C.

All findings and need for remediation should be reviewed with the line of business for risk acceptance prior to sharing the remediation plan with the vendor

D.

All findings should be shared with the vendor as quickly as possible so that remediation steps can be taken as quickly as possible

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Questions 32

The BEST way to manage Fourth-Nth Party risk is:

Options:

A.

Include a provision in the vender contract requiring the vendor to provide notice and obtain written consent before outsourcing any service

B.

Include a provision in the contract prohibiting the vendor from outsourcing any service which includes access to confidential data or systems

C.

Incorporate notification and approval contract provisions for subcontracting that require evidence of due diligence as defined by a TPRM program

D.

Require the vendor to maintain a cyber-insurance policy for any service that is outsourced which includes access to confidential data or systems

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Questions 33

Which statement is FALSE regarding the primary factors in determining vendor risk classification?

Options:

A.

The geographic area where the vendor is located may trigger specific regulatory obligations

B.

The importance to the outsourcer's recovery objectives may trigger a higher risk tier

C.

The type and volume of personal data processed may trigger a higher risk rating based on the criticality of the systems

D.

Network connectivity or remote access may trigger a higher vendor risk classification only for third parties that process personal information

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Questions 34

Which example is typically NOT included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Including any contractual or legal/regulatory requirements

B.

Prioritization of business functions and processes

C.

Identifying the criticality of applications

D.

Requiring vendor participation in testing

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Questions 35

Which approach for managing end-user device security is typically used for lost or stolen company-owned devices?

Options:

A.

Remotely enable lost mode status on the device

B.

Deletion of data after a pre-defined number of failed login attempts

C.

Enterprise wipe of all company data and contacts

D.

Remote wipe of the device and restore to factory settings

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Questions 36

Which approach demonstrates GREATER maturity of physical security compliance?

Options:

A.

Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events

B.

Providing a checklist for self-assessment

C.

Maintaining a standardized scheduled for confirming controls to defined standards

D.

Conducting unannounced checks an an ac-hac basis

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Questions 37

Which of the following factors is MOST important when assessing the risk of shadow IT in organizational security?

Options:

A.

The organization maintains adequate policies and procedures that communicate required controls for security functions

B.

The organization requires security training and certification for security personnel

C.

The organization defines staffing levels to address impact of any turnover in security roles

D.

The organization's resources and investment are sufficient to meet security requirements

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Exam Code: CTPRP
Exam Name: Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP)
Last Update: Sep 11, 2025
Questions: 125

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