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CCDS-O Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A CDI specialist manager is reviewing the productivity metrics of the outpatient team and notes that one of the CDI specialists has a high query rate and a good physician response, but a low physician agree rate compared to the rest of the team. This likely indicates which of the following?

Options:

A.

The data is not stratified enough to show a true picture of the productivity.

B.

The CDI specialist is writing leading queries.

C.

The CDI specialist is creating poor quality queries.

D.

The cases the CDI specialist is reviewing are more complex than other clinics.

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Questions 5

What is the goal of an MSSP program?

Options:

A.

Optimize risk score

B.

Share in savings

C.

Improve transitions of care

D.

Increase fee schedule payment

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Questions 6

A patient is seen at the clinic for a fever, and the provider documents possible Zika virus. A CDI specialist reviews the record and notes that a positive serology test indicates the Zika virus. Which of the following should the CDI specialist do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Code the Zika virus as the reason for the visit.

B.

Query the provider to code the result of the serology test.

C.

Query the provider to confirm the diagnosis of Zika.

D.

Code the fever as the first-listed diagnosis and Zika virus as secondary.

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Questions 7

Which of the following BEST defines a risk score under the CMS-HCC model?

Options:

A.

Beneficiary's demographics and social determinants

B.

Beneficiary and family demographics

C.

Beneficiary's individual demographic and health status

D.

Beneficiary's health status and risk of mortality

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Questions 8

A patient with a PMH of DM, GERD, and HTN is seen in the clinic with complaints of stuffy nose, fever, and feeling tired for the past four days. The patient’s medication list includes SSI, Prilosec, and Diovan. The provider documented: “Congestion, fever, malaise, DM, GERD, HTN. Continue OTC medications for congestion and fever. Rest. Return to the clinic in one week if symptoms persist.” Which of the following ICD-10-CM guidelines BEST applies to how this scenario should be coded?

Options:

A.

Selection of first-listed condition

B.

Codes that describe symptoms and signs

C.

Uncertain diagnoses

D.

Encounters for general medical examination with abnormal finding

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Questions 9

Which of the following therapies is MOST likely to be recommended?

Options:

A.

Ensure for morbid obesity

B.

Metoprolol for atrial fibrillation

C.

Xarelto for hematemesis

D.

Tamoxifen for chronic congestive heart failure

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Questions 10

When should the assignment of a not elsewhere classified (NEC)/other specified code be reported?

Options:

A.

When the information in the medical record is insufficient to assign a more specific code

B.

When the information in the medical record provides detail for when a specific code does not exist

C.

When two conditions cannot occur together

D.

When two codes may be required to fully describe a condition

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Questions 11

When a CDI specialist identifies a discrepancy in documentation, the next step is to:

Options:

A.

Change the record

B.

Query the provider for clarification

C.

Escalate to compliance

D.

Code the record as is

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Questions 12

Which of the following lab values, when trended for greater than 3 months, indicates an objective measure of chronic kidney damage?

Options:

A.

BNP >1000 pg/mL

B.

GFR <60 ml/min

C.

BUN <12 mg/dL

D.

Glucose >100 mg/dL

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Questions 13

A patient is seen in the office for a persistent cough. Provider documentation states: “History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, and hypertension. Hypertension treated with Enalapril. Cough an adverse effect of the ACE inhibitor; discontinue Enalapril. COPD stable. Instructed to continue meds for COPD/asthma.” Which of the following diagnoses should be reported for this encounter?

Options:

A.

COPD, unspecified; asthma, unspecified, uncomplicated; hypertension

B.

Cough; adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor; COPD, unspecified; hypertension

C.

COPD, unspecified; hypertension

D.

Cough; adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor; COPD, unspecified; asthma, unspecified, uncomplicated; hypertension

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Questions 14

A CDI specialist is writing a query and including information from another facility’s EHR via shared notes. Understanding that the ability to view shared notes may be revoked by the patient at any time, and to ensure HIPAA guidelines are followed, which of the following elements are BEST to include when sending the query?

Options:

A.

Location of shared note, date of shared note, provider name, and specific documentation

B.

Location of shared note, provider name, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

C.

Provider name, date of shared note, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

D.

Provider name, date of shared note, follow-up procedure, and date of review

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Questions 15

CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology seeks to measure

Options:

A.

an individual’s anticipated cost of care.

B.

a beneficiary’s risk of mortality.

C.

group beneficiary costs.

D.

physician cost of care provision.

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Questions 16

Based on previous documentation, which of the following diagnoses would a CDI specialist be MOST likely to bring to the provider’s attention in preparation for an upcoming visit of a 70-year-old patient?

Options:

A.

Epilepsy, chronic heart failure, and Crohn’s disease

B.

Chronic obstructive lung disease, T3 compression fracture, and s/p kidney transplant

C.

Family history of lung cancer, atrial fibrillation, and sickle cell

D.

Diabetes mellitus, syncopal episode, and pharyngitis

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Questions 17

Documentation from which of the following facility settings contributes to the CMS-HCC risk score?

Options:

A.

Freestanding ambulatory surgical center

B.

Hospital ambulatory clinic

C.

Hospice care

D.

Renal dialysis center

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Questions 18

Which of the following diabetic complications requires the assignment of a combination code plus the code for the specific complication?

Options:

A.

Nephropathy

B.

Retinopathy

C.

Dermatitis

D.

Osteomyelitis

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Questions 19

A patient presents to the clinic with indwelling Foley catheter, symptoms of fatigue, and low back pain with BPH. Labs reveal WBC 20, and the urine culture is positive for E. coli. Prescription antibiotics are ordered for a UTI. Which of the following is the BEST query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Etiology of BPH

B.

UTI related to catheter

C.

Etiology of low back pain

D.

Leukocytosis

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Questions 20

A morbidly obese patient with a BMI of 45 who is reliant on CPAP at night is likely to have which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Heart failure

B.

Essential hypertension

C.

Alveolar hypoventilation

D.

Pulmonary edema

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Questions 21

The primary purpose of clinical documentation improvement (CDI) is to:

Options:

A.

Increase hospital reimbursement

B.

Ensure accurate and complete documentation reflecting patient severity and care provided

C.

Simplify the physician’s workflow

D.

Reduce coding workload

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Questions 22

Which performance metric is MOST appropriate for an outpatient program to share with providers?

Options:

A.

APC payment rates

B.

RAF scores

C.

HCC per member per month payments

D.

Major complication comorbidity (MCC) rates

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Questions 23

Which of the following illustrates an example of a compliant, prospective query?

Options:

A.

“Dr.: Your patient has a past medical history of CHF noted in her problem list. A review of her medication list shows Lasix 20 mg QD. Please review this diagnosis for pertinence and relevance during her upcoming visit and specify the type and acuity of the CHF if the diagnosis is still being addressed.”

B.

“Dr.: Your patient was ordered an echocardiogram at her last visit. Can you please document that the CHF was addressed as the basis for the study?”

C.

“Dr.: Your patient has chronic diastolic heart failure documented in her problem list. Can you please add this diagnosis to your progress note from her office visit?”

D.

“Dr.: Your patient was here for her Annual Wellness Visit. A review of her medication list shows a new order for Lasix 20mg QD. A review of your progress note from that visit notes 2+ pitting edema bilaterally and that the patient complains of shortness of breath at night requiring her to sleep on 2 pillows. Please add CHF to the problem list if this is the diagnosis you are treating with the Lasix.”

E.
F.
G.
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Questions 24

Progress note states: “Recent EGD identified severe hyperplasia, without obstruction. Follow-up today for Barrett’s. Complains of chest pain, difficulty swallowing, 15-pound weight loss in last 12 weeks. Diagnoses—significant weight loss, cachexia, anorexia, Barrett’s esophagus, and chest pain. Plan short term tube feeding—consult home health and dietitian for management.” Which of the following diagnoses will trigger an HCC assignment?

Options:

A.

Barrett’s esophagus

B.

Anorexia

C.

Significant weight loss

D.

Cachexia

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Questions 25

A patient returns to a PCP for follow-up care related to a UTI. The provider documents “stage 3 CKD” as determined by a single eGFR of 52 mL/min. Which of the following actions should the CDI specialist take?

Options:

A.

Add diagnosis of CKD stage 3 to claim, as it is reportable.

B.

Review CKD staging criteria with provider.

C.

Delete CKD diagnosis from claim as it was not treated during this encounter.

D.

Query for stage 4 CKD.

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Questions 26

For outpatient/provider services, the primary sources of coding authority include the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, AHA’s Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS, as well as which of the following?

Options:

A.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS and AMA’s CPT Assistant

B.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS and ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting

C.

ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting and DRG Expert

D.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS, ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, and DRG Expert

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Questions 27

Which of the following tools or processes is MOST appropriate to share with providers and administrators during a department meeting when demonstrating documentation and coding patterns?

Options:

A.

Spaghetti diagram

B.

PDSA cycle

C.

Bar graph

D.

Donabedian Model

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Questions 28

A CDI specialist identifies an opportunity to clarify a patient’s BMI. The CDI specialist leaves a query within the medical record for the ancillary support team to address during the patient’s visit. Which of the following BEST describes this type of query?

Options:

A.

Retrospective

B.

Concurrent

C.

Prospective

D.

Prebill

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Questions 29

Which of the following adds weight to the risk score over and above the CMS-HCC weights for individual conditions?

Options:

A.

Hierarchies

B.

Disease interactions

C.

Resource-based relative values

D.

Conversion factors

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Questions 30

Which of the following payment models enables Medicare to forecast costs for Medicare Advantage members for the coming year?

Options:

A.

Ambulatory Payment Classification

B.

Relative Value Scale

C.

Geographic Practice Cost Indexes

D.

Hierarchical Condition Categories

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Questions 31

A patient is scheduled to see his PCP in 3 days. A CDI specialist notes that during the patient's last visit earlier this year, the problem list shows both DM 2 associated erectile dysfunction and DM 2 without complications. The last clinic note states that DM 2 with autonomic neuropathy was addressed. The CDI specialist should do which of the following FIRST?

Options:

A.

Remove DM 2 without complications from the problem list

B.

Query if the DM 2 is with or without complications

C.

Ask the patient if he still has DM 2 with autonomic neuropathy

D.

Query the provider for the link between erectile dysfunction and DM 2

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Questions 32

A patient presents to the PCP’s office with LLE edema and pain for 3 days. The problem list indicates morbid obesity and a history of DVT. Vital signs are T 37.9, P 76, R 12, BP 142/88, BMI 46. Documentation states: “Patient presents with LLE edema, increased pain, and hx of DVT. Sedentary lifestyle and contraindications to anticoagulation therapy. LLE warm to touch, 3+ edema from ankle to knee. Pedal pulses 2+ on L and 3+ on R.” Doppler exam indicates DVT. The PCP should be queried for which of the following diagnoses?

Options:

A.

Morbid obesity and status of the DVT

B.

Hypercoagulability and hypertensive urgency

C.

Hypertensive urgency and status of the DVT

D.

Hypercoagulability and morbid obesity

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Questions 33

Which of the following section(s) of the Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting are applicable to outpatient settings?

Options:

A.

Section I, Conventions, General Coding Guidelines, and Chapter Specific Guidelines

B.

Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

C.

Section III, Reporting Additional Diagnoses; and Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

D.

Section I, Conventions, General Coding Guidelines and Chapter Specific Guidelines; and Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

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Questions 34

In review of a clinic record, a CDI specialist notes the provider has directly copied and pasted a previous inpatient problem list into the current ambulatory visit note. Which of the following is the CDI specialist’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Do not code conditions that were pasted from the problem list.

B.

Query the provider for each of the conditions on the problem list.

C.

Educate the provider regarding the concerns with copying and pasting this list.

D.

Assume the conditions are all relevant for this visit.

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Questions 35

Which of the following coding guidelines is MOST important for a provider to understand when selecting diagnosis codes for an office visit as opposed to an inpatient stay?

Options:

A.

Chronic conditions only have to be coded once a year even if relevant to multiple encounters.

B.

First-listed diagnosis and principal diagnosis are synonymous terms.

C.

Documentation of uncertain diagnoses may not be assigned ICD-10-CM codes.

D.

Documentation is only required for the main reason of the office visit.

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Questions 36

Upon retrospective review of a patient visit 2 weeks prior, a CDI specialist notes physician documentation stating the following: “Sick Sinus Syndrome in 2016 s/p pacemaker placement. Latest EKG shows normal paced rhythm.” There are no codes noted for Sick Sinus Syndrome or the pacemaker. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?

Options:

A.

Capture code for pacemaker status only.

B.

Request the provider amend the codes to reflect the Sick Sinus Syndrome and pacemaker status.

C.

Educate the provider that a pacemaker status code as well as a Sick Sinus Syndrome code should be assigned.

D.

Ask the coder to re-bill based upon the documentation.

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Questions 37

Which of the following statements is true regarding RADV reviews?

Options:

A.

Diagnoses assigned by a diagnostic radiologist are considered during RADV reviews.

B.

Conditions reported must be documented in the final visit diagnoses or facesheet of the medical record.

C.

Acceptable physician authentication includes hand-written or electronic signatures.

D.

Diagnoses assigned by technicians are considered during RADV reviews.

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Questions 38

Which of the following acronyms is often used in considering reportability of conditions?

Options:

A.

OPPS

B.

MEAT

C.

MACRA

D.

RADV

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Questions 39

When reviewing physician metrics, a CDI specialist notes upward trends in the use of unspecified diagnoses. Which of the following diagnoses provides the BEST opportunity to positively influence the providers’ RAF score in the CMS-HCC model?

Options:

A.

Cystic fibrosis, unspecified

B.

Kaposi’s sarcoma, unspecified

C.

Arthropathic psoriasis, unspecified

D.

Angina pectoris, unspecified

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Questions 40

A CDI specialist is following up on a query while the provider is seeing patients in the clinic. The BEST action that will support a quick and compliant response to the query is to

Options:

A.

wait to speak with the provider during the next scheduled meeting.

B.

catch the provider in the hallway between patients.

C.

discuss in a private room with the door closed.

D.

leave a sticky note on the chart of the next patient.

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Questions 41

Which of the following is a provider benefit of a prospective query?

Options:

A.

Instructs the provider to the best diagnosis to use

B.

Guarantees risk adjusted diagnosis capture

C.

Addresses the query topic during the actual patient encounter

D.

Defines the purpose of the encounter

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Questions 42

Which diagnosis and treatment plan may generate a query?

Options:

A.

Prostate carcinoma and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone

B.

Atrial fibrillation and amiodarone

C.

Malnutrition and parenteral nutrition

D.

Severe major depressive disorder and immunotherapy

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Exam Code: CCDS-O
Exam Name: Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O)
Last Update: Apr 6, 2026
Questions: 140

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