Weekend Special Limited Time 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: netbudy65

CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

When comparing different Cloud Service Providers (CSPs), what should a cybersecurity professional be mindful of regarding their organizational structures?

Options:

A.

All CSPs use the same organizational structure and terminology

B.

Different CSPs may have similar structures but use varying terminology

C.

CSPs have vastly different organizational structures and identical terminology

D.

Terminology difference in CSPs does not affect cybersecurity practices.

Buy Now
Questions 5

Which term describes the practice in cloud compliance where a customer acquires a set of pre-approved regulatory or standards-based controls from a compliant provider?

Options:

A.

Automated compliance

B.

Attestation inheritance

C.

Audit inheritance

D.

Compliance inheritance

Buy Now
Questions 6

In cloud environments, why are Management Plane Logs indispensable for security monitoring?

Options:

A.

They provide real-time threat detection and response

B.

They detail the network traffic between cloud services

C.

They track cloud administrative activities

D.

They report on user activities within applications

Buy Now
Questions 7

Which of the following best describes the advantage of custom application level encryption?

Options:

A.

It simplifies the encryption process by centralizing it at the network level

B.

It enables ownership and more granular control of encryption keys

C.

It reduces the need for encryption by enhancing network security

D.

It delegates the control of keys to third-party providers

Buy Now
Questions 8

CCM: A hypothetical start-up company called "ABC" provides a cloud based IT management solution. They are growing rapidly and therefore need to put controls in place in order to manage any changes in

their production environment. Which of the following Change Control & Configuration Management production environment specific control should they implement in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Policies and procedures shall be established for managing the risks associated with applying changes to business-critical or customer (tenant)-impacting (physical and virtual) applications and system-system interface (API) designs and configurations, infrastructure network and systems components.

B.

Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, to restrict the installation of unauthorized software on organizationally-owned ormanaged user end-point devices (e.g. issued workstations, laptops, and mobile devices) and IT infrastructure network and systems components.

C.

All cloud-based services used by the company's mobile devices or BYOD shall be pre-approved for usage and the storage of company business data.

D.

None of the above

Buy Now
Questions 9

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

Options:

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

Buy Now
Questions 10

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.

B.

Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.

C.

Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.

D.

Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.

E.

Both B and C.

Buy Now
Questions 11

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

Options:

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

Buy Now
Questions 12

Why is a service type of network typically isolated on different hardware?

Options:

A.

It requires distinct access controls

B.

It manages resource pools for cloud consumers

C.

It has distinct functions from other networks

D.

It manages the traffic between other networks

E.

It requires unique security

Buy Now
Questions 13

Why is it important to plan and coordinate response activities for incidents affecting the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

Options:

A.

It eliminates the need for monitoring systems

B.

It ensures a systematic approach, minimizing damage and recovery time

C.

It guarantees that no incidents will occur in the future

D.

It reduces the frequency of security audits required

Buy Now
Questions 14

Select the best definition of “compliance” from the options below.

Options:

A.

The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.

B.

The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

C.

The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

D.

The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.

E.

The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

Buy Now
Questions 15

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

Options:

A.

Implementing real-time visibility

B.

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.

Full packet network monitoring

Buy Now
Questions 16

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

Buy Now
Questions 17

Which of the following best describes a key aspect of cloud risk management?

Options:

A.

A structured approach for performance optimization of cloud services

B.

A structured approach to identifying, assessing, and addressing risks

C.

A structured approach to establishing the different what/if scenarios for cloud vs on-premise decisions

D.

A structured approach to SWOT analysis

Buy Now
Questions 18

Which approach is essential in identifying compromised identities in cloud environments where attackers utilize automated methods?

Options:

A.

Focusing exclusively on signature-based detection for known malware

B.

Deploying behavioral detectors for IAM and management plane activities

C.

Implementing full packet capture and monitoring

D.

Relying on IP address and connection header monitoring

Buy Now
Questions 19

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

Buy Now
Questions 20

In a cloud context, what does entitlement refer to in relation to a user's permissions?

Options:

A.

The authentication methods a user is required to use when accessing the cloud environment.

B.

The level of technical support a user is entitled to from the cloud service provider.

C.

The resources or services a user is granted permission to access in the cloud environment.

D.

The ability for a user to grant access permissions to other users in the cloud environment.

Buy Now
Questions 21

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

Options:

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

Buy Now
Questions 22

What is the primary purpose of virtual machine (VM) image sources?

Options:

A.

To back up data within the VM

B.

To provide core components for VM images

C.

To optimize VM performance

D.

To secure the VM against unauthorized access

Buy Now
Questions 23

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

Options:

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

Buy Now
Questions 24

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

Buy Now
Questions 25

Which of the following best describes an authoritative source in the context of identity management?

Options:

A.

A list of permissions assigned to different users

B.

A network resource that handles authorization requests

C.

A database containing all entitlements

D.

A trusted system holding accurate identity information

Buy Now
Questions 26

Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?

Options:

A.

Local backup

B.

Multi-region resiliency

C.

Single-region resiliency

D.

High Availability within one data center

Buy Now
Questions 27

Why is it essential to embed cloud decisions within organizational governance?

Options:

A.

Speeds up cloud service adoption significantly

B.

Reduces the complexity of implementing cloud solutions

C.

Gives IT department autonomous control over cloud resources

D.

Ensures alignment with business objectives and risk management

Buy Now
Questions 28

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

Options:

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

Buy Now
Questions 29

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

Options:

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

Buy Now
Questions 30

Which type of AI workload typically requires large data sets and substantial computing resources?

Options:

A.

Evaluation

B.

Data Preparation

C.

Training

D.

Inference

Buy Now
Questions 31

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

Buy Now
Questions 32

What is the primary purpose of secrets management in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Optimizing cloud infrastructure performance

B.

Managing user authentication for human access

C.

Securely handling stored authentication credentials

D.

Monitoring network traffic for security threats

Buy Now
Questions 33

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

Options:

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

Buy Now
Questions 34

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

Options:

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

Buy Now
Questions 35

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

Options:

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

Buy Now
Questions 36

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

Options:

A.

Implementation guidance

B.

Control objectives

C.

Policies

D.

Control specifications

Buy Now
Questions 37

Which of the following best describes an aspect of PaaS services in relation to network security controls within a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

They override the VNet/VPC's network security controls by default

B.

They do not interact with the VNet/VPC’s network security controls

C.

They require manual configuration of network security controls, separate from the VNet/VPC

D.

They often inherit the network security controls of the underlying VNet/VPC

Buy Now
Questions 38

Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

C.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Buy Now
Questions 39

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 40

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

Options:

A.

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

Buy Now
Questions 41

How does cloud adoption impact incident response processes in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

It only affects data storage and not incident response

B.

It has no significant impact on incident response processes

C.

It simplifies incident response by consolidating processes

D.

It introduces different processes, technologies, and governance models

Buy Now
Questions 42

In the context of cloud security, what is the primary benefit of implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) with attributes and user context for access decisions?

Options:

A.

Enhances security by supporting authorizations based on the current context and status

B.

Reduces log analysis requirements

C.

Simplifies regulatory compliance by using a single sign-on mechanism

D.

These are required for proper implementation of RBAC

Buy Now
Questions 43

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

Options:

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

Buy Now
Questions 44

In which type of environment is it impractical to allow the customer to conduct their own audit, making it important that the data center operators are required to provide auditing for the customers?

Options:

A.

Multi-application, single tenant environments

B.

Long distance relationships

C.

Multi-tenant environments

D.

Distributed computing arrangements

E.

Single tenant environments

Buy Now
Questions 45

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

Options:

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

Buy Now
Questions 46

Which term describes any situation where the cloud consumer does

not manage any of the underlying hardware or virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Serverless computing

B.

Virtual machineless

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Provider managed

Buy Now
Questions 47

Vulnerability assessments cannot be easily integrated into CI/CD pipelines because of provider restrictions.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 48

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

Buy Now
Questions 49

Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

Options:

A.

Firewalls

B.

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Buy Now
Questions 50

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) principle focuses on implementing multiple security layers to dilute access power, thereby averting a misuse or compromise?

Options:

A.

Continuous Monitoring

B.

Federation

C.

Segregation of Duties

D.

Principle of Least Privilege

Buy Now
Questions 51

Why is it important to capture and centralize workload logs promptly in a cybersecurity environment?

Options:

A.

To simplify application debugging processesB Primarily to reduce data storage costs

B.

Logs may be lost during a scaling event

C.

To comply with data privacy regulations

Buy Now
Questions 52

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

Buy Now
Questions 53

What is a core tenant of risk management?

Options:

A.

The provider is accountable for all risk management.

B.

You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.

C.

The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.

D.

If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are inplace, you must accept the risk.

E.

Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss ofcustomers.

Buy Now
Questions 54

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

Options:

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

Buy Now
Questions 55

What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment

B.

To reduce the cost of cloud services

C.

To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization's goals

D.

To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers

Buy Now
Questions 56

In the context of FaaS, what is primarily defined in addition to functions?

Options:

A.

Data storage

B.

Network configurations

C.

User permissions

D.

Trigger events

Buy Now
Questions 57

ENISA: “VM hopping” is:

Options:

A.

Improper management of VM instances, causing customer VMs to be commingled with other customer systems.

B.

Looping within virtualized routing systems.

C.

Lack of vulnerability management standards.

D.

Using a compromised VM to exploit a hypervisor, used to take control of other VMs.

E.

Instability in VM patch management causing VM routing errors.

Buy Now
Questions 58

What Identity and Access Management (IAM) process decides to permit or deny a subject access to system objects like networks, data, or applications?

Options:

A.

Authorization

B.

Federation

C.

Authentication

D.

Provisioning

Buy Now
Questions 59

REST APIs are the standard for web-based services because they run over HTTPS and work well across diverse environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 60

What is one significant way Artificial Intelligence, particularly Large Language Models, is impacting IT and security?

Options:

A.

Eliminating the need for encryption

B.

Replacing all IT personnel

C.

Automating threat detection and response

D.

Standardizing software development languages

Buy Now
Questions 61

What type of logs record interactions with specific services in a system?

Options:

A.

(Service and Application Logs

B.

Security Logs

C.

Network Logs

D.

Debug Logs

Buy Now
Questions 62

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

Options:

A.

Client, Controller, and Gateway

B.

Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

C.

Client, Firewall, and Gateway

D.

Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

E.

Client, Controller, and Firewall

Buy Now
Questions 63

What is true of a workload?

Options:

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

Buy Now
Questions 64

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

Options:

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

Buy Now
Questions 65

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

Options:

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

Buy Now
Questions 66

Which practice best helps mitigate security risks by minimizing root/core access and restricting deployment creation?

Options:

A.

Enforcing the principle of trust and eventually verily on demand'

B.

Disabling multi-factor authentication for staff and focusing on decision makers' accounts

C.

Deploying applications with full access and applying restrictions based on the need to object

D.

Enforcing the principle of least privilege

Buy Now
Questions 67

In securing virtual machines (VMs), what is the primary role of using an “image factory" in VM deployment?

Options:

A.

To encrypt data within VMs for secure storage

B.

To facilitate direct manual intervention in VM deployments

C.

To enable rapid scaling of virtual machines on demand

D.

To ensure consistency, security, and efficiency in VM image creation

Buy Now
Questions 68

What is a primary benefit of implementing micro-segmentation within a Zero Trust Architecture?

Options:

A.

Simplifies network design and maintenance

B.

Enhances security by isolating workloads from each other

C.

Increases the overall performance of network traffic

D.

Reduces the need for encryption across the network

Buy Now
Questions 69

A cloud deployment of two or more unique clouds is known as:

Options:

A.

Infrastructures as a Service

B.

A Private Cloud

C.

A Community Cloud

D.

A Hybrid Cloud

E.

Jericho Cloud Cube Model

Buy Now
Questions 70

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 71

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

Buy Now
Questions 72

In a cloud computing incident, what should be the initial focus of analysis due to the ephemeral nature of resources and centralized control mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Management plane activity logs

B.

Network perimeter monitoring

C.

Endpoint protection status

D.

Physical hardware access

Buy Now
Questions 73

What is the primary benefit of Federated Identity Management in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

It allows single set credential access to multiple systems and services

B.

It encrypts data between multiple systems and services

C.

It segregates user permissions across different systems and services

D.

It enhances multi-factor authentication across all systems and services

Buy Now
Questions 74

In the context of cloud security, which approach prioritizes incoming data logsfor threat detection by applying multiple sequential filters?

Options:

A.

Cascade-and-filter approach

B.

Parallel processing approach

C.

Streamlined single-filter method

D.

Unfiltered bulk analysis

Buy Now
Questions 75

In the IaaS shared responsibility model, which responsibility typically falls on the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

Options:

A.

Encrypting data at rest

B.

Ensuring physical security of data centers

C.

Managing application code

D.

Configuring firewall rules

Buy Now
Questions 76

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

Buy Now
Questions 77

An organization deploys an AI application for fraud detection. Which threat is MOST likely to affect its AI model’s accuracy?

Options:

A.

Adversarial attacks

B.

DDoS attacks

C.

Third-party services

D.

Jailbreak attack

Buy Now
Questions 78

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

Buy Now
Questions 79

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

Options:

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

Buy Now
Questions 80

In the context of incident response, which phase involves alerts validation to reduce false positives and estimates the incident's scope?

Options:

A.

Preparation

B.

Post-Incident Analysis

C.

Detection & Analysis

D.

Containment, Eradication, & Recovery

Buy Now
Questions 81

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is it crucial to establish a cloud deployment registry?

Options:

A.

To maintain a log of all incident response activities and have efficient reporting

B.

To document all cloud services APIs

C.

To list all cloud-compliant software

D.

To track incident support options, know account details, and contact information

Buy Now
Questions 82

In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

Options:

A.

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

B.

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

C.

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

D.

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

Buy Now
Questions 83

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

Options:

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

Buy Now
Questions 84

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

Buy Now
Questions 85

Which cloud deployment model involves a cloud and a datacenter, bound together by technology to enable data and application portability?

Options:

A.

Hybrid cloud

B.

Public cloud

C.

Multi-cloud

D.

Private cloud

Buy Now
Questions 86

What mechanism does passwordless authentication primarily use for login?

Options:

A.

SMS-based codes

B.

Biometric data

C.

Local tokens or certificates

D.

OAuth tokens

Buy Now
Questions 87

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) component verifies the identity of a user, process, or device, as a prerequisite to allowing access?

Options:

A.

Assertion

B.

Entitlement

C.

Authorization

D.

Authentication

Buy Now
Questions 88

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

Options:

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

Buy Now
Questions 89

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.

Regular software updates and patch management

D.

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

Buy Now
Questions 90

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

Buy Now
Questions 91

Sending data to a provider’s storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 92

If the management plane has been breached, you should confirm the templates/configurations for your infrastructure or applications have not also been compromised.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 93

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

Options:

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

Buy Now
Questions 94

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Buy Now
Questions 95

Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 96

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

Options:

A.

Management Console

B.

Management plane

C.

Orchestrators

D.

Abstraction layer

Buy Now
Questions 97

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

Options:

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

Buy Now
Exam Code: CCSK
Exam Name: Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0)
Last Update: Oct 16, 2025
Questions: 326

PDF + Testing Engine

$134.99

Testing Engine

$99.99

PDF (Q&A)

$84.99