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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

When designing an encryption system, you should start with a threat model.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 5

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

Options:

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

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Questions 6

Which approach is commonly used by organizations to manage identities in the cloud due to the complexity of scaling across providers?

Options:

A.

Decentralization

B.

Centralization

C.

Federation

D.

Outsourcing

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Questions 7

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

Options:

A.

Provider documentation

B.

Provider run audits and reports

C.

Third-party attestations

D.

Provider and consumer contracts

E.

EDiscovery tools

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Questions 8

How can web security as a service be deployed for a cloud consumer?

Options:

A.

By proxying or redirecting web traffic to the cloud provider

B.

By utilizing a partitioned network drive

C.

On the premise through a software or appliance installation

D.

Both A and C

E.

None of the above

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Questions 9

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Questions 10

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 11

How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

Options:

A.

It consolidates logs into a single location.

B.

It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.

C.

It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.

D.

It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

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Questions 12

Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools?

Options:

A.

Virtualization

B.

Applistructure

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Metastructure

E.

Orchestration

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Questions 13

Which of the following enhances Platform as a Service (PaaS) security by regulating traffic into PaaS components?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection Systems

B.

Hardware Security Modules

C.

Network Access Control Lists

D.

API Gateways

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Questions 14

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

Options:

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

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Questions 15

REST APIs are the standard for web-based services because they run over HTTPS and work well across diverse environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 16

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

Options:

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

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Questions 17

When deploying Security as a Service in a highly regulated industry or environment, what should both parties agree on in advance and include in the SLA?

Options:

A.

The metrics defining the service level required to achieve regulatory objectives.

B.

The duration of time that a security violation can occur before the client begins assessing regulatory fines.

C.

The cost per incident for security breaches of regulated information.

D.

The regulations that are pertinent to the contract and how to circumvent them.

E.

The type of security software which meets regulations and the number of licenses that will be needed.

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Questions 18

What is an important step in conducting forensics on containerized and serverless environments?

Options:

A.

Implementing endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions

B.

Isolating network traffic and analyzing network packets frequently

C.

Regularly updating antivirus and anti-malware software

D.

Capturing container logs and snapshots, and leveraging serverless execution logs

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Questions 19

Which of the following best describes the primary function of Cloud Detection and Response (CDR) in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Detect and respond to security threats in the cloud

B.

Manage cloud-based applications

C.

Provide cost management for cloud services

D.

Optimize cloud storage performance

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Questions 20

In the initial stage of implementing centralized identity management, what is the primary focus of cybersecurity measures?

Options:

A.

Developing incident response plans

B.

Integrating identity management and securing devices

C.

Implementing advanced threat detection systems

D.

Deploying network segmentation

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Questions 21

Which method is considered best practice for creating secure virtual machine (VM) images?

Options:

A.

Downloading images from random online repositories

B.

Using image factories and trusted sources

C.

Cloning existing, running VMs

D.

Manually configuring each VM image

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Questions 22

Why is it important for Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) to document security controls?

Options:

A.

It allows CSPs to reduce operational costs and increase security efficiency

B.

It ensures transparency and accountability for security measures

C.

It reduces the frequency for regular independent audits

D.

It helps CSPs enhance their marketing strategies and relationship with policymakers

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Questions 23

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

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Questions 24

What does it mean if the system or environment is built automatically from a template?

Options:

A.

Nothing.

B.

It depends on how the automation is configured.

C.

Changes made in production are overwritten by the next code or template change.

D.

Changes made in test are overwritten by the next code or template change.

E.

Changes made in production are untouched by the next code or template change.

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Questions 25

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

Options:

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

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Questions 26

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.

Regular software updates and patch management

D.

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

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Questions 27

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

Options:

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

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Questions 28

Which AI workload mitigation strategy best addresses model inversion attacks that threaten data confidentiality?

Options:

A.

Secure multi-party computation

B.

Differential privacy

C.

Encryption

D.

Model hardening

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Questions 29

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

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Questions 30

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

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Questions 31

How is encryption managed on multi-tenant storage?

Options:

A.

Single key for all data owners

B.

One key per data owner

C.

Multiple keys per data owner

D.

The answer could be A, B, or C depending on the provider

E.

C for data subject to the EU Data Protection Directive; B for all others

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Questions 32

What is true of a workload?

Options:

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

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Questions 33

All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 34

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

Options:

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

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Questions 35

What is one primary operational challenge associated with using cloud-agnostic container strategies?

Options:

A.

Limiting deployment to a single cloud service

B.

Establishing identity and access management protocols

C.

Reducing the amount of cloud storage used

D.

Management plane compatibility and consistent controls

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Questions 36

What is a common characteristic of default encryption provided by cloud providers for data at rest?

Options:

A.

It is not available without an additional premium service

B.

It always requires the customer's own encryption keys

C.

It uses the cloud provider's keys, often at no additional cost

D.

It does not support encryption for data at rest

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Questions 37

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.

B.

Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.

C.

Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.

D.

Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.

E.

Both B and C.

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Questions 38

What mechanism does passwordless authentication primarily use for login?

Options:

A.

SMS-based codes

B.

Biometric data

C.

Local tokens or certificates

D.

OAuth tokens

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Questions 39

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

Options:

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

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Questions 40

What is the primary purpose of volume storage encryption in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

To simplify data backup procedures

B.

To secure data on virtual disks

C.

To improve virtual disk performance

D.

To reduce storage costs

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Questions 41

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 42

Which factor is typically considered in data classification?

Options:

A.

CI/CD step

B.

Storage capacity requirements

C.

Sensitivity of data

D.

Data controller

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Questions 43

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

Options:

A.

The hypervisor

B.

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.

All of the above

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Questions 44

What is the newer application development methodology and philosophy focused on automation of application development and deployment?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

BusOps

C.

DevOps

D.

SecDevOps

E.

Scrum

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Questions 45

Containers are highly portable code execution environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 46

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal

security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

Options:

A.

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

B.

Infrastructure Security

C.

Compliance and Audit Management

D.

Information Governance

E.

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

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Questions 47

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

Options:

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

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Questions 48

What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?

Options:

A.

AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.

B.

AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.

C.

AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.

D.

Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.

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Questions 49

How does Infrastructure as Code (IaC) facilitate rapid recovery in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

IaC is primarily used for designing network security policies

B.

IaC enables automated and consistent deployment of recovery environments

C.

IaC provides encryption and secure key management during recovery

D.

IaC automates incident detection and alerting mechanisms

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Questions 50

CCM: In the CCM tool, “Encryption and Key Management” is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

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Questions 51

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

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Questions 52

ENISA: Which is not one of the five key legal issues common across all scenarios:

Options:

A.

Data protection

B.

Professional negligence

C.

Globalization

D.

Intellectual property

E.

Outsourcing services and changes in control

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Questions 53

Which aspect of cybersecurity can AI enhance by reducing false positive alerts?

Options:

A.

Anomaly detection

B.

Assisting analysts

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Automated responses

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Questions 54

The containment phase of the incident response lifecycle requires taking systems offline.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 55

Sending data to a provider’s storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 56

What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

Options:

A.

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

B.

Increases the speed of deployment to production

C.

Improves runtime performance of the application

D.

Enhances the user interface of the application

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Questions 57

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

Options:

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

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Questions 58

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

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Questions 59

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

Options:

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

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Questions 60

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

Options:

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Authentication

C.

Provisioning

D.

Web filtering

E.

Intrusion detection

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Questions 61

How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?

Options:

A.

It reduces hardware costs

B.

It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead

C.

It locks down access and provides stronger data security

D.

It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system

E.

It enables you to configure applications around business groups

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Questions 62

Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?

Options:

A.

The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.

B.

Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.

C.

The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.

D.

Object-based storage in a private cloud.

E.

The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.

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Questions 63

Which of the following best describes a key benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

SDN is a hardware-based solution for optimizing network performance

B.

SDN eliminates the need for physical network devices and cabling

C.

SDN allows networks to be dynamically configured and managed through software

D.

SDN is primarily focused on improving network security through advanced firewalls

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Questions 64

A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 65

Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?

Options:

A.

Local backup

B.

Multi-region resiliency

C.

Single-region resiliency

D.

High Availability within one data center

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Questions 66

Which of the following information security policies defines the use of an organization's IT resources?

Options:

A.

Acceptable Use Policy

B.

Remote Work Policy

C.

Data Handling Policy

D.

Use of Cloud Services Policy

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Questions 67

What is an essential security characteristic required when using multi-tenanttechnologies?

Options:

A.

Segmented and segregated customer environments

B.

Limited resource allocation

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Abstraction and automation

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Questions 68

Why is governance crucial in balancing the speed of adoption with risk control in cybersecurity initiatives?

Options:

A.

Only involves senior management in decision-making

B.

Speeds up project execution irrespective of and focuses on systemic risk

C.

Ensures adequate risk management while allowing innovation

D.

Ensures alignment between global compliance standards

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Questions 69

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

Options:

A.

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

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Questions 70

Which strategy is critical for securing containers at the image creation stage?

Options:

A.

Implementing network segmentation

B.

Using secure, approved base images

C.

Regularly updating repository software

D.

Enforcing runtime protection measures

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Questions 71

What are the encryption options available for SaaS consumers?

Options:

A.

Any encryption option that is available for volume storage, object storage, or PaaS

B.

Provider-managed and (sometimes) proxy encryption

C.

Client/application and file/folder encryption

D.

Object encryption Volume storage encryption

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Questions 72

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

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Questions 73

Which aspect of cloud architecture ensures that a system can handle growing amounts of work efficiently?

Options:

A.

Reliability

B.

Security

C.

Performance

D.

Scalability

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Questions 74

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

Options:

A.

Management Console

B.

Management plane

C.

Orchestrators

D.

Abstraction layer

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Questions 75

What technology is commonly used to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user's device and a private network over the public Internet?

Options:

A.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

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Questions 76

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

Options:

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

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Questions 77

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

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Questions 78

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

Options:

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

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Questions 79

Which of the following is a common security issue associated with serverless computing environments?

Options:

A.

High operational costs

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Limited scalability

D.

Complex deployment pipelines

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Questions 80

Which of the following is a common exploitation factor associated with serverless and container workloads?

Options:

A.

Poor Documentation

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

Insufficient Redundancy

D.

Low Availability

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Questions 81

A company plans to shift its data processing tasks to the cloud. Which type of cloud workload best describes the use of software emulations of physical computers?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Serverless Functions (FaaS)

C.

Containers

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

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Questions 82

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

Options:

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

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Questions 83

Which of the following statements best defines the "authorization" as a component of identity, entitlement, and access management?

Options:

A.

The process of specifying and maintaining access policies

B.

Checking data storage to make sure it meets compliance requirements

C.

Giving a third party vendor permission to work on your cloud solution

D.

Establishing/asserting the identity to the application

E.

Enforcing the rules by which access is granted to the resources

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Questions 84

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

Options:

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

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Questions 85

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

Options:

A.

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

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Questions 86

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Intrusion detection options

C.

Secondary authentication factors

D.

Network access points

E.

Mobile security configuration options

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Questions 87

Which practice ensures container security by preventing post-deployment modifications?

Options:

A.

Implementing dynamic network segmentation policies

B.

Employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) for container access

C.

Regular vulnerability scanning of deployed containers

D.

Use of immutable containers

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Questions 88

When leveraging a cloud provider, what should be considered to ensure application security requirements are met?

Options:

A.

Fully rely on cloud provider's security features

B.

Cloud providers guarantee complete security compliance

C.

Assume default settings are adequate for all applications

D.

Customize additional security measures to address gaps

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Questions 89

Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?

Options:

A.

Code Review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Unit Testing

D.

Functional Testing

E.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

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Questions 90

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

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Questions 91

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

Options:

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

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Questions 92

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 93

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

Options:

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

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Questions 94

Which of the following best describes the concept of AI as a Service (AIaaS)?

Options:

A.

Selling Al hardware to enterprises for internal use

B.

Hosting and running Al models with customer-built solutions

C.

Offering pre-built Al models to third-party vendors

D.

Providing software as an Al model with no customization options

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Questions 95

An organization deploys an AI application for fraud detection. Which threat is MOST likely to affect its AI model’s accuracy?

Options:

A.

Adversarial attacks

B.

DDoS attacks

C.

Third-party services

D.

Jailbreak attack

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Questions 96

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

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Questions 97

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

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Questions 98

Why is a service type of network typically isolated on different hardware?

Options:

A.

It requires distinct access controls

B.

It manages resource pools for cloud consumers

C.

It has distinct functions from other networks

D.

It manages the traffic between other networks

E.

It requires unique security

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Questions 99

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Exam Code: CCSK
Exam Name: Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0)
Last Update: Dec 5, 2025
Questions: 332

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