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CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

It is essential to identify any "family members" or "close associates" of politically exposed persons (PEPs) as part of the KYC/CDD process because they could be:

Options:

A.

executing cross-border transactions for their own business which is not commensurate to the PEP's wealth.

B.

in a position to provide more information regarding the PEP's whereabouts and hidden properties.

C.

travelling to offshore jurisdictions often on holiday which exposes them to higher risks for AML.

D.

used as intermediaries to facilitate bribery or corruption or to conceal the illicit wealth of the PEP.

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Questions 5

Which external data source is most reliable for verifying beneficial ownership during onboarding?

Options:

A.

Adverse media databases

B.

Publicly available information on non-government data repositories

C.

Credit reference agencies

D.

Beneficial ownership registers available in country of incorporation of entity

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Questions 6

A basic principle of the Egmont Group is to:

Options:

A.

Publish standards for reporting suspicions

B.

Facilitate the organization of regulatory authorities

C.

Publish decisions taken on international investigations

D.

Arrange information-sharing protocols between Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)

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Questions 7

Which step should financial institutions take when complying with sanctions requirements?

Options:

A.

Change the risk profile to "high-risk" if an existing customer becomes a sanctioned entity and continue monitoring further transactions.

B.

Adopt automatic screening systems to detect designated persons and entities.

C.

Conduct enhanced due diligence for prohibited entities on the sanctions list.

D.

Freeze the funds or assets of designated persons and entities once this decision is approved by the board.

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Questions 8

The UN Security Council's primary role in imposing sanctions is that it has the authority to:

Options:

A.

impose sanctions to maintain or restore international peace and security.

B.

impose sanctions on countries that lack AML/CFT controls.

C.

conduct research on and analyze the impacts of sanctions to improve the effectiveness of sanctions regimes.

D.

impose sanctions on economic targets to maintain or restore financial stability within a country.

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Questions 9

A Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) serves as a national center for the receipt and analysis of suspicious activity reports (SARs) and can obtain additional information from other reporting entities relevant to:

Options:

A.

public administration.

B.

legal assessment.

C.

law enforcement.

D.

legal activity.

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Questions 10

A bank organized under foreign law and located outside of the US maintains a correspondent banking relationship with a US-based bank to handle financial transactions in US dollars for its clients. In compliance with the USA PATRIOT Act of 2001, all US banks and broker-dealers in securities must obtain a signed certification from all non-US foreign bank clients conducting business with them.

What information does the USA PATRIOT Act of 2001 require the foreign bank to certify to the US bank? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

The foreign bank will not allow indirect use of the correspondent bank accounts by Politically Exposed Persons (PEPs)

B.

The jurisdictions in which the foreign bank maintains a physical presence

C.

The foreign bank's operations will be limited to the country of incorporation

D.

The ownership details of the foreign bank

E.

The foreign bank will not allow indirect use of the correspondent bank accounts by shell banks

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Questions 11

In which of the following situations would it be most crucial for the designated AML compliance officer of a company to perform a complete review of the company's AML program, including identifying the risks and commensurate controls?

Options:

A.

An external audit highlights several deficiencies

B.

The company is merging with or acquiring another entity

C.

Extensive AML legislation is proposed by a legislative body in the company's jurisdiction

D.

A high-profile money laundering case involving another industry is publicized

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Questions 12

According to the Basel Committee principles, which actions would make a customer identification program at a bank more robust? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Understanding why a customer has selected a particular financial institution for banking

B.

Verifying the identity of a customer with reputable online source documentation

C.

Limiting the online activities of a new customer during the first two months

D.

Understanding the nature and purpose behind a new business opening an account at the bank

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Questions 13

When a government imposes economic sanctions on a target the purpose is to:

Options:

A.

protect the rights of the citizens of the state target against their own government and improve financial stability in the region.

B.

indicate that the use of military force is likely unless the state or non-state target complies with the government's

C.

interests encourage non-governmental organizations to increase the provision of humanitarian and charitable aid to the target

D.

alter the behavior of the state or non-state target that threatens the interests of that government or violates international norms

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Questions 14

The United Nations Security Council’s sanctions are intended to be:

Options:

A.

Encompassing and broad, including the use of force if necessary

B.

Designed to maintain and restore international peace and security

C.

Indefinite to produce economic benefit for a group of states

D.

Punitive to influence foreign governments to change their behavior

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Questions 15

What is the first step in designing an effective controls framework using a risk-based approach?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk controls

B.

Assessing risk controls

C.

Ongoing risk monitoring

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Questions 16

Which of the following controls is typically implemented at customer onboarding to mitigate the risk of onboarding high-risk customers?

Options:

A.

Enhanced due diligence (EDD)

B.

Transaction monitoring

C.

Customer risk assessment

D.

Sanctions screening

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Questions 17

A customer frequently deposits large amounts of cash into an online gambling account and requests withdrawals shortly after with minimal gambling activity.

What is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the gambling and gaming industry?

Options:

A.

The customer is attempting to convert illicit funds into “clean” withdrawals

B.

The customer is attempting to avoid high fees by minimizing gambling activity

C.

The customer is testing the gaming platform’s payout system for potential fraud

D.

The customer is a high-risk gambler who regularly places large bets

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Questions 18

A company is rapidly expanding into several international markets, including jurisdictions considered high risk in terms of regulatory oversight. The board has requested the Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) to review and adjust the company’s anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance framework to align with the evolving regulatory landscape and expansion strategy. During this process, the MLRO identifies vulnerabilities, particularly in markets with AML deficiencies, and updates the framework to mitigate these risks.

Which element of the AFC compliance program does this process describe?

Options:

A.

Governance arrangements

B.

Transaction monitoring

C.

Training and awareness

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 19

What are the primary sources of reference besides AML laws and regulations when developing and maintaining the AML policies, standards, and procedures of a bank? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

National Risk Assessment

B.

Regulatory guidance or publications

C.

Government or state-run newspapers

D.

Guidance issued by international bodies

E.

Policies and procedures developed by other banks

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Questions 20

Which key performance indicators (KPIs) should be considered in the context of ML/TF transaction monitoring? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Number of days required to hire new staff

B.

Number of alerts raised for review or reporting

C.

Number of alerts by region

D.

Number of transactions by top customers

E.

Average time to review an alert

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Questions 21

Tax evasion is:

Options:

A.

The practice of minimizing tax liability by exploiting loopholes or unintended interpretations of tax law

B.

A provision that reduces taxable income as an itemized or standard deduction

C.

A specialized accounting discipline focused on lawful tax planning

D.

The non-payment or under-payment of taxes, usually by deliberately making a false declaration or no declaration to tax authorities

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Questions 22

Which scenario indicates potential money laundering activity by a lawyer?

Options:

A.

A lawyer located in a higher risk country deposits their firm's bank draft issued from their trust account to another lawyer's trust account located in a low-risk country for legal services rendered.

B.

A lawyer's trust account regularly receives wire transfers from unknown remitters from a higher risk country and immediately transfers the same amount of funds received to a known beneficiary's account in a low-risk country.

C.

A lawyer's trust account receives a large-value wire transfer from a regulated insurance company and immediately transfers the same amount of funds received to the beneficiary's bank account located in a low-risk country.

D.

A lawyer's trust account receives a large wire transfer deposit from a client that wanted to purchase a piece of property and then transfers the same amount to the property seller's lawyer's trust account.

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Questions 23

Which operational situation might indicate that money laundering is occurring at or through a deposit-taking financial institution?

Options:

A.

The institution has observed an increase in customer demand for large-denomination banknotes.

B.

The institution maintains a sequentially numbered log of the monetary instruments it sells.

C.

The institution has observed a reduced settlement time in the transaction services that support the rapid movement or remittance of funds.

D.

The institution has observed an increase in the adoption of its digital products and services.

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Questions 24

How can public-private partnerships (PPPs) foster collaboration in the fight against financial crime? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Developing a culture of compliance

B.

Improving governance in the public sector by requesting feedback from financial institutions

C.

Reducing transaction monitoring false positives for all financial institutions

D.

Improving the quality and quantity of data available for analysis by sharing information

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Questions 25

A bank in the Netherlands has been requested to share information about a series of transactions and related customers with a bank in Italy. Both banks are subject to European Union jurisdiction.

Which factor is the most important to consider before the Dutch bank shares the requested information with the Italian bank?

Options:

A.

The Dutch bank should limit any information sharing to what is necessary, reasonable, and proportionate, in line with applicable laws and regulations

B.

The Dutch bank's legal obligations to protect customer privacy and bank secrecy prohibit it from sharing any such information

C.

The Dutch bank should require a production order from the Italian bank and receive approval from its legal department before sharing the requested information

D.

The need to fight financial crime outweighs the EU's data protection and privacy regulations

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Questions 26

Which of the following is among the sanctions tools the United Nations Security Council could use that minimize negative effects on innocent civilian populations?

Options:

A.

Travel bans

B.

Comprehensive targeted sanctions

C.

Comprehensive sanctions

D.

Targeted sanctions

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Questions 27

The new KYC lead at a bank is particularly focused on enhancing the risk management component of its KYC program and refers to the Basel Committee's customer due diligence (CDD) principles.

Which of the following describe key improvements to a KYC program established in the Basel Committee's CDD principles? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Implementation of a blacklist of correspondent customers with previously detected and investigated suspicious activity

B.

Enhancement of a customer acceptance policy to more clearly identify high-risk customers

C.

Increased frequency of training provided to front office employees

D.

Enhancement of customer identification procedures to appropriately identify trust, nominee, and fiduciary accounts

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Questions 28

One key aspect of promoting an enterprise-wide compliance culture within a financial institution is that the:

Options:

A.

Relevant information should be shared throughout the organization.

B.

Revenue-generating business sectors should have precedence over compliance.

C.

First line of defense should establish its own policies independently.

D.

Cost of compliance should increase proportionately to revenues.

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Questions 29

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) report on terrorism financing, charities and nonprofit organizations are often vulnerable to terrorist financing because they: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Collect donations from various sources, and their primary objective is philanthropy and social wellbeing

B.

Are usually legitimate establishments and will not use the funds collected through donation for the profit of individuals or entities

C.

Have a global presence that provides a framework for national and international operations and financial transactions that are often in or near areas most exposed to terrorist activity

D.

Enjoy the public trust and have access to considerable sources of funds, and their activities are often cash intensive

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Questions 30

Which of the following scenarios warrants enhanced due diligence (EDD)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

An existing local league footballer trying to open a bank account with a bank in their local jurisdiction

B.

The current prime minister of a country trying to open a bank account in another country

C.

The former personal secretary to the minister of transport in a low-risk country 25 years ago opening a bank account at a bank in a neighboring low-risk country

D.

A bank located in a higher risk country trying to establish a correspondent-respondent banking relationship with a bank in a lower-risk country

E.

An individual with a current bank account who resides in one country becoming the ambassador of another country

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Questions 31

Which should be provided to the board of directors or designated specialized committee when preparing suspicious activity reports (SARs)?

Options:

A.

Statistical data regarding SARs filed during the reported period

B.

All possible details of SARs filed during the reported period

C.

Copies of all SARs filed during the reported period

D.

Names of all customers subject to SARs filed during the reported period

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Questions 32

Which of the following statements is true regarding Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Sanctions can only be placed on certain individuals in foreign countries as designated by OFAC

B.

Blocked funds must be placed into an interest-bearing account on a financial institution's books

C.

Sanctions can be either comprehensive or selective using the blocking of assets and trade restrictions to accomplish foreign policy and national security goals

D.

OFAC sanctions automatically expire after five years unless renewed by Congress

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Questions 33

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence

B.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed Instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes Procedures are an overarching framework Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

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Questions 34

When applying new technologies to AML, application programming interfaces (APIs) allow for:

Options:

A.

Digital identification on mobile devices

B.

Different applications to connect and communicate

C.

Authentication via artificial intelligence (AI) and biometrics

D.

Quick CDD and client traits analysis during onboarding

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Questions 35

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele’s high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

B.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

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Questions 36

Which of the following is a benefit of public-private partnerships (PPP)?

Options:

A.

Sourcing of key resources

B.

Rapid exchange of information on risks and high-risk activities or persons

C.

Ensuring understanding of politically exposed persons (PEPs)

D.

Obtaining salaries in the financial industry

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Questions 37

A law enforcement agency submits several requests to a financial institution.

Which request is legitimate and requires the bank to respond?

Options:

A.

Keep an account open upon verbal request

B.

Produce documents and testimony without a subpoena

C.

Seize privileged documents upon written request

D.

Freeze an account in terms of a court order

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Questions 38

A long-term client of an insurance company makes changes to a policy that require payment of an additional lump sum. The amount payable is high, though within the client's means based on the KYC information collected. The payment is made via a company in another jurisdiction that is known to have lax AML controls.

Which indicator of suspicious activity is present?

Options:

A.

A long-term client wants a change to a policy that is already in force

B.

The payment was made via a company that appears to be owned and controlled by the client being insured

C.

The additional premium payable appears to be within the client's means based on the KYC information collected

D.

The payment was made via a company in a jurisdiction known to have lax AML controls

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Questions 39

Which of the following attributes would enhance an AML program's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Providing basic AML training to all employees

B.

An AML officer being appointed to the board as a working member of management with increased authority

C.

Auditors providing prescriptive guidance and support to the program following a less than satisfactory audit

D.

Providing effective challenge with AML staff and continuous cross-training

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Questions 40

Which of the following measures can help maintain the independence of BSA/AML compliance staff to ensure effective compliance controls?

Options:

A.

Establishing BSA/AML compliance staff reporting to the management of the business line in the first line of defense

B.

Ensuring BSA/AML compliance staff is primarily outsourced

C.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff a reporting line to compliance or other second line of defense internal control function

D.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff with a reporting line to the chief financial officer

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Questions 41

A global financial institution is conducting a comprehensive review of its due diligence processes to strengthen its defenses against financial crime. Recent incidents have highlighted vulnerabilities related to employee misconduct, including unauthorized transactions and sharing of sensitive customer information. Additionally, the FI has faced issues with third-party vendors who failed to meet compliance standards, leading to increased regulatory scrutiny.

Which of the following measures would be most effective in addressing the bank's due diligence needs for employees, vendors, and third parties to mitigate insider threats and ensure compliance with AML regulations?

Options:

A.

Relying on self-reported compliance certifications from vendors and employees to confirm adherence to AML standards on a periodic basis

B.

Establishing a surveillance program for employees, vendors, and third parties, including periodic risk assessments, access controls, and regular reviews of their compliance with AML policies

C.

Implementing background checks for employees and vendors prior to onboarding or the start of engagement to identify any red flags

D.

Limiting the number of vendors and third parties in high-risk jurisdictions in order to reduce exposure to compliance risks

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Questions 42

Which of the following indicators of potentially suspicious activity are commonly associated with high-risk business sectors and structures such as shell companies? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Knowing the goods or services, if identified, do not match the profile of the company or the nature of the financial activity

B.

All payments are in smaller amounts below reporting thresholds but are high when aggregated while still being consistent with standard business practices

C.

A company regularly conducts large-volume transactions in a medium-risk jurisdiction with longstanding business partners and provides complete documentation and audit trails

D.

Insufficient or no information is available to identify originators or beneficiaries of funds transfers through searches or direct inquiries

E.

Payments have no stated purpose, do not reference goods or services, or only reference a contract or invoice number

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Questions 43

An agent of a wealthy individual residing in Country A, which is on the EU list of high-risk third jurisdictions, approaches a notary in Country B, which is in the EU. The agent wants to complete a disposal of assets recently acquired at auction by the wealthy individual through an offshore company. The agent also has a power of attorney to act on behalf of the offshore company issued by a respectable law firm from Country C, which is also in the EU. The agent asks the notary to proceed with the disposal as quickly as possible without paying any specific attention to related costs or taxes to be paid as a result of this transaction. The notary notices the intended transfer price is significantly lower than the one recorded at auction, but the agent does not want to discuss this matter and claims that it is not covered by the power of attorney.

Which red flags should the notary consider? (Select Two)

Options:

A.

The agent requested a disposal of assets at a lower price than recently acquired.

B.

The assets acquired through an auction were put in the name of an offshore company

C.

The agent acted on behalf of an individual residing in a country which is on the EU's list of high-risk jurisdictions

D.

The power of attorney was issued by a law firm in a different EU country from where the transaction took place.

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Questions 44

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) routinely publishes a catalogue of jurisdictions requiring enhanced monitoring which is commonly called the:

Options:

A.

red notice

B.

white list

C.

yellow notice

D.

grey list

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Questions 45

The Wolfsberg Group's AML Principles on Private Banking:

Options:

A.

Assist financial institutions conducting business in jurisdictions with high data privacy standards in working with industries susceptible to money laundering

B.

Advise banks to accept only those clients whose source of funds and beneficial ownership is understood

C.

Establish rules for private bankers on how to deal with politically exposed persons (PEPs) and persons residing in high-risk countries

D.

Require banks to better manage reputational risk and protect the privacy of wealthy clients

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Questions 46

Which types of external data sources are expected to be used for screening customers as part of customer due diligence (CDD)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Customer feedback and online review platforms

B.

Social media profiles to assess lifestyle and spending habits

C.

Sanctions lists, including those issued by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC)

D.

Registers of stolen or forged documents (where available)

E.

Beneficial ownership registers and adverse media sources

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Questions 47

Which measures should be implemented to facilitate collaboration among different risk management functions to enhance an organization’s anti-financial crime (AFC) program? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Establish a robust framework for continuous threat intelligence sharing

B.

Have senior management accountability for AFC failures

C.

Establish a reward program among risk management functions to encourage proactive controls

D.

Develop cross-functional training programs on AFC risks, management strategies, and related technologies

E.

Develop common metrics and key performance indicators

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Questions 48

Which is a key goal of the EU's Directives on money laundering?

Options:

A.

Address control of payments in EU countries to reduce money laundering.

B.

Build a network of financial institutions that work together to prevent money laundering across the EU.

C.

Establish a consistent regulatory environment across the EU to prevent money laundering.

D.

Allow member states to discuss the draft legislation with the cooperation of the EU financial intelligence units.

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Questions 49

A large international bank is conducting a comprehensive review of its risk management framework to ensure it effectively addresses various financial crime risks, including AML, CFT,

sanctions, fraud, anti-bribery and corruption (ABC), and tax evasion.

The bank’s compliance team is responsible for evaluating the current risk assessment processes, identifying potential gaps, and recommending enhancements to better mitigate these risks. During this review, the team needs to consider the different types of risk assessments and how to integrate findings into the overall risk management strategy.

Which approach should the compliance team prioritize to enhance the bank’s ability to identify, assess, and mitigate the identified risks?

Options:

A.

Use a static risk assessment model that remains unchanged until a significant regulatory update occurs to ensure consistency in the evaluation process over time

B.

Delegate the risk assessment process to individual business units to conduct independently and allow for specialized assessments tailored to each unit's specific activities

C.

Conduct a periodic enterprise-wide risk assessment that includes identifying inherent risks, evaluating the effectiveness of existing controls, and determining residual risks

D.

Focus primarily on AML risk assessments, as these are typically the most scrutinized by regulators, while addressing other financial crime risks only when issues are identified

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Questions 50

At a high level, the risk assessment process involves identifying and rating the inherent risks associated with customers, products, countries, and delivery channels, and then:

Options:

A.

comparing these risks with industry benchmarks to determine the residual risk.

B.

implementing new controls to eliminate all risks

C.

rating the effectiveness of the related controls in order to calculate the residual risk.

D.

documenting the historical risk incidents for future reference.

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Questions 51

Risks associated with real estate transactions include (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

cross-border purchases.

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person.

C.

paying true market price for a property.

D.

non-financed purchases.

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Questions 52

According to Basel Committee guidelines, which level of the organization should determine whether or not to enter business relationships with higher risk customers?

Options:

A.

Account opening staff

B.

Middle management

C.

Senior management

D.

First-level management

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Questions 53

When selecting an anti-financial crime (AFC) tool for an organization, the most important factor to consider is whether the tool:

Options:

A.

integrates seamlessly with existing systems and processes.

B.

meets budget and cost requirements.

C.

automates all regulatory reporting requirements.

D.

replaces manual compliance training for employees.

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Questions 54

Which of the following statements best describes the financial crime risk associated with gatekeepers?

Options:

A.

Gatekeepers have specialized knowledge that can be abused to facilitate the movement of illicit funds and conceal the Involvement of their clients in illicit schemes.

B.

Gatekeeper positions ate of a secretive nature, often making it difficult to verify (heir source of wealth.

C.

Gatekeepers have unique relationship structures, making it difficult to determine beneficial ownership

D.

Gatekeepers are entrusted with prominent functions and code of conduct that can assist laundering Illicit funds.

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Questions 55

Fuzzy logic or fuzzy matching in the context of name screening is a method that:

Options:

A.

Uses machine learning to predict names based on historical data

B.

Matches names on screening lists to names with similar spellings, patterns, or sounds

C.

Matches names with the same length and characters

D.

Relies exclusively on exact string matches

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Questions 56

Which statement about the extraterritorial reach of US laws and legislation is accurate?

Options:

A.

The Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) extraterritorial reach requires that the Travel Rule be applied to all financial institutions globally, including all USD transactions

B.

The Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 (AML Act) extraterritorial reach covers all USD transactions throughout the global economy

C.

The Office of Foreign Assets Control's (OFAC's) economic and trade sanctions may pose extraterritorial risks for financial institutions and businesses outside of the US

D.

Section 319(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act extraterritorial reach permits the seizure of funds from a correspondent bank account in the US that have been opened and maintained for the foreign bank

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Questions 57

The degree of attraction that a company holds to criminal organizations is influenced by the (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

amount of annual fees associated with the jurisdiction.

B.

permissibility of bearer shares.

C.

rules governing the disclosure of beneficial ownership by the jurisdiction.

D.

ease of travel to the jurisdiction.

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Questions 58

The relationship manager in the corporate banking department at a bank is required to take specialized AML training tailored to the risks the department is most likely to encounter.

Which types of content are most appropriate for this training? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Money laundering typologies applicable to monetary instrument reporting

B.

Applicable AML laws and regulations

C.

Regulatory exam best practices

D.

Money laundering typologies applicable to corporate loans

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Questions 59

Which measures help ensure that the name screening process is effective in identifying potential risk? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Define in policies and procedures the screening scope, frequency, and alert adjudication process

B.

Identify the most commonly used name screening database in the industry

C.

Assign a designated person to ensure consistent implementation of screening controls

D.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine which data attributes to screen, screening frequency, and database selection

E.

Conduct regular testing to validate that the screening system is performing as expected

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Questions 60

The financial industry relies heavily on rules-based approaches to transaction monitoring to detect suspicious activities.

Scenario-based systems use technology and algorithms to identify: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

fraudulent identities involving stolen or manufactured identification.

B.

suspicious behavior involving a transaction that occurs at an unusual time of day.

C.

hidden beneficial owners.

D.

transaction patterns involving transactions that exceed a certain dollar amount.

E.

anomalies involving a transaction that occurs in a location far away from the customer's usual spending patterns.

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Questions 61

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities, Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

B.

Exchange strategic information between FIUs and obliged entities

C.

Exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

Create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

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Questions 62

From an international standards perspective both the EU and Financial Action Task Force (FATF) consider data sharing a crucial component of effective anti-money laundenng measures because data sharing:

Options:

A.

allows Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) to enact sanctions against perpetrators of financial crime

B.

promotes financial transparency and protects the integrity of the financial systems

C.

needs to be approved by the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) before sharing between financial institutions

D.

helps financial institutions to be more effective in fighting crime with data analysis

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Questions 63

A key advantage of privacy enhancing technologies (PETs) in anti-money laundering is that they offer:

Options:

A.

simultaneous encryption and decryption for underlying data.

B.

full access to underlying data with full and uninterrupted calculations made on the data.

C.

secure processing of data while it remains encrypted.

D.

transfer, decryption and storage of data by the data processor.

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Questions 64

Which money laundering risks are posed by the misuse of trust and asset management services? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Concealing sources of funds

B.

Allowing for third-party custody safekeeping of funds

C.

Adding a layer of anonymity to transactions

D.

Concealing true legal and beneficial owners

E.

Establishing escrow accounts for real estate transactions

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Questions 65

Which of the following actions is specifically permitted or required under FinCEN section 314(b) for financial institutions (FIs) to enhance their efforts in combating money laundering and terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

FIs may disclose customer information to any third party

B.

FIs may provide information about their internal compliance programs to law enforcement agencies without any limitations

C.

FIs are required to report all transactions involving foreign entities to FinCEN so that FinCEN can share this information with other financial institutions

D.

FIs may share information about suspected money laundering activities with other FIs to aid in identifying and reporting suspicious transactions

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Questions 66

A large financial institution (FI) is considering expanding business to an area of the world with weak AML laws. The risk-based assessment indicates that the location will increase the FI's risk appetite beyond the stated acceptable amount.

Which risk factors should be used to identify the priority of the FI?

Options:

A.

Cash-intensive businesses risks

B.

Unknown third-party risks

C.

Geographic risks

D.

Anonymous transactions risks

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Questions 67

There are three types of factors that can be used to authenticate someone ownership, knowledge, and inherent factors.

Which of the following factors falls under inherent factors?

Options:

A.

Challenge-response

B.

Fingerprint

C.

Security token

D.

Passphrase

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Questions 68

A bank notices inconsistent flagging of blockchain transactions due to the lack of standardized payment message formats.

What feature should be prioritized in the transaction screening tool to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Enhanced sanctions screening for traditional payment messages

B.

Periodic manual review of blockchain-related transactions

C.

Integration with blockchain analytics providers

D.

Rule-based systems focusing only on known wallet addresses

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Questions 69

According to PinCEN. when a financial institution (PI) identities a suspicious activity that necessitates suspicious activity report (SAR) filing, the SAR supporting documentation should (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

include all documents or records that assisted the Fl in making the determination that the activity required a filing.

B.

always be limited to account name, account details, and transaction records.

C.

have written policies and procedures to maintain supporting documentation.

D.

be saved in a single separate file with hard copies stored in a fireproof cabinet.

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Questions 70

Using artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning-based techniques tn adverse media screening can: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

ensure that all adverse media sources are comprehensively analyzed without the need for human review.

B.

significantly reduce human errors arising from repetitive tasks by delivering consistent and highly accurate analysis.

C.

instantly identify intent behind media articles, allowing for more effective risk scoring.

D.

automate the process of identifying new information and distinguishing it from previously encountered data.

E.

cover multiple languages and scripts, surpassing the limitations of human linguistics.

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Questions 71

When assessing and managing money laundering risks while operating in foreign jurisdictions different from that of the head office, an effective AML monitoring program should:

Options:

A.

Be consistent with the head office audits

B.

Be tailored to the higher of standards between the jurisdictions.

C.

Conform to the foreign jurisdiction policies to align with the head office policies.

D.

Provide all foreign jurisdiction reports to the head office for approval.

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Questions 72

When making an independent determination on whether to close an account based on an internal Investigation, a financial institution (F1) should consider. (Select Five.)

Options:

A.

reputational risk.

B.

the customers personal relationships.

C.

the frequency of account activity

D.

the Fl's policies and procedures.

E.

the seriousness of the underlying conduct.

F.

correspondence with law enforcement

G.

the legal basis for closing the account.

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Questions 73

A robust transaction monitoring system includes the capability to:

Options:

A.

Monitor transactions and identify anomalies that might indicate suspicious activity

B.

Automatically translate documents

C.

Integrate social media profiles

D.

File Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs), Currency Transaction Reports (CTRs), and other regulatory reports

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Questions 74

A law enforcement action alleged that on several trading days over the course of two months, defendants engaged in a series of copper gold, crude oil. and natural gas futures transactions on an electronic trading platform One defendant repeatedly bought future contracts at low prices from the other, and then immediately sold them back at higher prices. As a result, one defendant effectively pocketed the same amount as the other lost even though there were no changes in the open positions held by either defendant.

What is a name for this typology?

Options:

A.

Short position

B.

Reverse flip

C.

Bid-ask spread

D.

Wash trading

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Questions 75

Risks associated with real estate transactions include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

cross-border purchases

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person

C.

paying true market price for a property

D.

non-financed purchases

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Questions 76

Which of the following risk factors are considered by many supervisory authorities as representing a higher inherent risk associated with MSBs? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The use of new technologies to facilitate the onboarding of customers remotely

B.

The prevalence of international wire transfers

C.

Domestic business with small and medium-sized enterprises

D.

The cash-intensive nature of the services offered

E.

The use of digital channels and traceable payment methods

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Questions 77

The compliance officer at a casino in Taiwan discovers that the casino received multiple cash deposits from a customer just below the Large-Amount Transaction Report (LTR) limit on consecutive days. The customer used three different betting accounts.

What is the appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Make a note in the customer's account that the customer's gambling activities are frequently conducted below the reporting limit

B.

Follow internal reporting procedures to escalate the activity as suspicious and report to appropriate authorities

C.

Inform the customer their activity Is suspicious and request an explanation

D.

Contact law enforcement to launch an Investigation into the customer's financial activities

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Questions 78

Which section of the USA PATRIOT Act relates to forfeiture of funds and allows for extraterritorial reach?

Options:

A.

Section 319(b)

B.

Section 314(b)

C.

Section 314(a)

D.

Section 319(a)

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Questions 79

In the context of terrorist financing, which of the following are potential indicators of the abuse of non-profit organizations (NPOs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Involvement in community development and humanitarian aid projects

B.

Large and unaccounted cash donations from anonymous sources

C.

Operating in high-risk jurisdictions with limited oversight

D.

Frequent changes in leadership and mission statements

E.

Extensive transparency in financial reporting and governance practices

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Questions 80

Which of the following describes a role of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?

Options:

A.

Oversight of the Financial Intelligence Units in FATF Member countries

B.

Providing a unique platform for information exchange regarding anti-money laundering efforts

C.

Regulation of financial markets through directives and executive orders

D.

Enhancement of international cooperation to foster anti-money laundering efforts via recommendations and guidance

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Questions 81

An AML compliance officer is drafting plans to address deficiencies identified in an independent audit.

Which approach is the best option?

Options:

A.

Only commit to action plans that require no new investment to maximize shareholder value

B.

Draft action plans in consultation with the jurisdiction's FIU to remain aligned with other similar companies

C.

Only commit to action plans that can be implemented and closed within the three-month management reporting cycle

D.

Draft action plans to address the root cause of the deficiencies, regardless of how long they will take to fully implement

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Questions 82

A committee should have a clear and precise definition of its mandate to ensure effective function and governance, set out in a document often referred to as the Terms of Reference (ToR).

Which key features are generally included in the Terms of Reference? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Organization chart of the attendees

B.

Extent of power and decision-making abilities

C.

Company culture and values

D.

Composition and structure

E.

Delegation of authority

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Questions 83

Which control would be most effective as part of a risk-based approach (RBA) to managing AML/CFT risk for a bank established in the EU that also has a branch in a high-risk third country outside of the EU?

Options:

A.

Fully rely on central beneficial owner registry records in the high-risk third country to determine the ultimate beneficial owners of all customers

B.

Apply tailored due diligence measures, based on the level of risk posed by each customer following risk assessment

C.

Monitor every cross-border transaction in real time, flagging all for enhanced scrutiny due to the country risk level

D.

Automatically apply enhanced customer due diligence measures to all customers in the high-risk third-country branch regardless of risk level

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Questions 84

Which of the following conditions contribute to a politically exposed person (PEP) posing greater risk than a typical high-risk bank customer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The family members and close associates of PEPs may be involved in illicit activities.

B.

PEPs are granted unlimited credit and financial immunity under international banking regulations.

C.

PEPs may exploit embassy activities to conceal bribery and corruption transactions.

D.

PEPs can have illegitimate fund sources but are legally protected from having their accounts closed for activities outside a bank's risk appetite.

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Questions 85

A bank is using a network analysis tool to identify links between its customers and criminal entities. The system identifies potential indirect relationships but is unable to prioritize them. What should the compliance officer do to enhance the tool’s effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Manually review all flagged relationships for accuracy

B.

Implement risk-scoring algorithms for indirect connections

C.

Integrate external databases and social media profiles to cross-check flagged entities

D.

Focus on direct connections between customers and criminal entities

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Questions 86

Customer segmentation is important for effective transaction monitoring because:

Options:

A.

All customers transact in the same way, allowing patterns to be easily spotted

B.

Customer behavior can be compared and analyzed most effectively among similar peer groups

C.

It allows a broad range of customer types to be compared in one large group

D.

It is recommended by regulators solely to prevent sanctions risk

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Questions 87

A compliance officer at a large bank has been tasked with investigating a series of unusual transactions involving a long-time customer. The customer has made several large cash deposits into multiple accounts within a short period, raising red flags. After gathering and analyzing transaction data, reviewing customer records, and cross-referencing external sources, the compliance officer determines that there is a reasonable suspicion of money laundering. As part of documenting this investigation, the compliance officer must decide how and when to escalate the matter internally and whether to file a suspicious activity report (SAR).

What is the next critical step in this process?

Options:

A.

Document the customer's transaction history and keep the investigation confidential until further suspicious activity is detected.

B.

Immediately escalate the case to senior management, recommending the closure of the customer's accounts due to potential reputational risk.

C.

Report the investigation to external auditors and await further guidance before taking any action.

D.

Draft a SAR that includes a detailed chronology of the transactions, customer background and the rationale for suspicion, and submit it to the relevant financial intelligence unit (FIU) within the regulatory timelines.

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Questions 88

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

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Questions 89

What are the primary advantages of using open-source tools in financial crime investigations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Partial automation of data collection and analysis

B.

Cost-effective access to a wide range of data

C.

Real-time monitoring of selected transactions and data sources

D.

Ability to conduct investigations with minimal human oversight

E.

Enhanced ability to identity connections across various data sets

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Questions 90

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

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Questions 91

What are the most effective measures to boost risk appetite awareness across an organization after a risk appetite has been set and a risk appetite statement (RAS) has been drafted? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Provide training to staff so they understand the role risk appetite and its limits play in the safe conduct of business

B.

Train all managers on the importance and benefits of “good” risk-taking

C.

Embed the risk appetite into everyday processes and governance

D.

Describe risk controls for business colleagues

E.

Integrate misalignment with risk appetite into internal reporting procedures

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Questions 92

The effectiveness of AML/CFT measures can be best measured by the extent to which systems and controls:

Options:

A.

Comply with relevant laws and regulations

B.

Minimize operational burden placed on the financial institution

C.

Mitigate the risks and threats of financial crime

D.

Are implemented in a cost-effective way

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Questions 93

One of the basic elements of an effective AML/CFT compliance program is:

Options:

A.

A system of enterprise risk management

B.

An artificial intelligence-based transaction monitoring system

C.

An independent and skilled audit function

D.

An artificial intelligence-based enhanced due diligence system

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Questions 94

To provide aid in investigating a cross-border money laundering case, a Financial Intelligence Unit (PIU) that is a member of the Egmont Group can:

Options:

A.

directly contact financial institutions in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

B.

directly contact other FlUs in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

C.

deputize its law enforcement investigators to assist in a material ongoing investigation in another country

D.

assist law enforcement in another country with a material ongoing investigation.

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Questions 95

Which suspicious activity may be the strongest indicator of money laundering through a casino?

Options:

A.

A privately held company originates funds transfers through the casino into the betting accounts of multiple patrons

B.

A patron requests the casino to transfer their winnings to another gambling operator

C.

A patron purchases a large amount of chips at a blackjack table using cash

D.

A patron routinely places multiple bets on the same sporting events

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Questions 96

Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Utilizing a flexible communication style that adapts to different customer situations during the termination process

B.

Implementing a standardized procedure for customer termination that includes risk assessments and necessary documentation

C.

Performing a final review of a customer's transaction history and records to address any unresolved issues prior to termination

D.

Keeping records of the termination process, including the justification for the decision and any correspondence with the customer

E.

Notifying the customer of the termination decision only after completing the termination process to prevent possible disputes

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Questions 97

Which of the following is a crucial step for a financial institution when leveraging regulatory reports to improve transaction monitoring? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Comparing internal data across all sectors and products referenced in the reports

B.

Systematically incorporating risks identified in the reports into the internal risk assessment

C.

Comparing regulatory reports with peer data

D.

Building or enhancing monitoring scenarios based on reported crime typologies

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Questions 98

Which of the following is a critical consideration for private sector firms when sharing data and intelligence to combat financial crime?

Options:

A.

The preference of upper management regarding which teams should participate in the data-sharing initiative

B.

The cost of the data-sharing system and whether it its within the existing IT budget

C.

The potential return on investment (ROI) from the data shared versus the financial crime prevention effort

D.

Ensuring that the shared data complies with applicable data protection regulations while maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the information

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Questions 99

A bank has been fined for failing to take reasonable care to establish and maintain effective systems and controls for high-risk customers, including politically exposed persons (PEPs).

Which typical financial crime risks should the bank have addressed? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Gathering sufficient information to establish the source of funds and source of wealth

B.

Assessing the level of money laundering risk posed by prospective and existing high-risk customers

C.

Assessing and reviewing the minutes of the relevant committee responsible for onboarding customers

D.

Ensuring an employee is responsible for liaison with the authorities on matters related to countering the finance of terrorism

E.

Ensuring that resources in its compliance and AML areas kept pace with the bank's growth

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Questions 100

Which of the following scenarios exhibit classic indicators of suspicious transactions? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A business owner mortgages his home with a financial institution that was recently fined for AML violations

B.

A customer regularly invests in equity funds using her spouse’s bank account where she is a second account holder

C.

An individual who is the secretary to a government official frequently accesses the bank’s safe deposit vault to withdraw cash

D.

An individual regularly imports sophisticated electronic items for civil use and pays all applicable customs duties

E.

An individual wants to execute wire transfers to a person in a FATF grey-listed jurisdiction and asks a close friend to send the money on his behalf, citing financial difficulties

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Questions 101

Which characteristics of trust and company service providers (TCSPs) can potentially make them vulnerable to financial crime? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

They may market themselves specifically to criminals

B.

Offering nominee directors may increase anonymity by concealing true ownership

C.

They do not have to comply with AML regulations in most jurisdictions

D.

Selling ready-made, off-the-shelf companies to offshore intermediaries

E.

Having minimal face-to-face contact with customers, particularly in offshore arrangements

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Questions 102

Which characteristic of accountants is most attractive to those looking to launder funds using an accountant or accountancy firm?

Options:

A.

Accountants can prepare ledgers and spreadsheets, draft annual returns and make payments to government offices

B.

Accountants can advise on the structuring of companies as well as ensure compliance with local tax regulations

C.

Accountants are knowledgeable about financial management, including what to record over the course of the accounting year

D.

Accountants are able to create and structure companies, falsify accounts and manipulate financial statements

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Questions 103

The compliance department of a casino is reviewing recent transactions and has identified activities that may require further scrutiny.

Which transaction would require further investigation?

Options:

A.

A patron who regularly visits the casino, deposits small amounts of cash, and consistently requests to cash out winnings in high-value checks

B.

A group of tourists who buy chips with credit cards and engage in high-stakes games before cashing out

C.

A player who purchases USD 50,000 in chips using a combination of cash and a wire transfer from an international account, does not gamble, and then cashes out

D.

An occasional visitor who plays low-stakes games using a prepaid debit card linked to a foreign account

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Questions 104

When under a regulator's consent order or similar action, who at an organization is ultimately accountable for the remediation of any violations of applicable AML/CFT laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Designated AML compliance officer

B.

Chief executive officer

C.

Chief operating officer

D.

Board of directors

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Questions 105

What are the roles of a government Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Disseminate analysis of suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports to foreign judicial systems to enhance their anti-money laundering and terrorist financing investigations and prosecutions

B.

Receive reports of suspicious transactions and suspicious activities from reporting institutions or obliged institutions

C.

Disseminate the analysis of suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports to local law enforcement agencies and foreign FIUs to combat money laundering

D.

Investigate and where appropriate prosecute all suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports received from reporting institutions or obliged institutions

E.

Analyze all suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports received from reporting institutions or obliged institutions

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Questions 106

A compliance analyst has recently investigated an account where money was deposited in amounts below the reporting limit and almost entirely withdrawn in a foreign country.

Which type of money laundering is the compliance analyst potentially identifying?

Options:

A.

Trade-based

B.

Check Kiting

C.

Microstructuring

D.

Structuring

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Questions 107

The chief compliance officer (CCO) at a bank approved offering trade finance services to a company which is established within a country with a weak democratic system routinely reviews news on upcoming targeted economic sanction regulations in the EU, a major import partner for the country's production of crude oil.

Which of the following pieces of news would be of greatest concern?

Options:

A.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on refined oil products.

B.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on oil extraction equipment

C.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new export control regime for electronic equipment

D.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new import restriction regime for goods coming from countries that do not respect human rights

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Questions 108

When services are provided by a trust and company service provider (TCSP) connected to a high-risk country, which of the following may present an immediate financial crime risk concern?

Options:

A.

Management structure

B.

Governance framework

C.

Asset structure

D.

Origin of the funds

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Questions 109

The key strengths of public-private partnerships (PPP) in anti-financial crime efforts include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Improving the speed of action in identifying and mitigating financial crime risks

B.

Enhancing information-sharing capabilities between governments and financial institutions

C.

Providing a legal framework for financial institutions to avoid liability when sharing information

D.

Eliminating the need for organizations to conduct their own due diligence

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Questions 110

Which of the following are considered best practices for effective AML/CFT training programs? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Training should cover practical examples, use case studies, and provide information on how to comply with policies.

B.

Up-to-date records including logs of training and completion dates should be maintained.

C.

Training should be broad, high level, and not role-specific in order to reach the largest audience.

D.

Training should cover the consequences of not complying with policies and procedures.

E.

Training should always be provided by an independent third party.

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Questions 111

Which key metric would provide the most valuable data to the senior management of a financial institution about the effectiveness of its AML controls?

Options:

A.

The ratio of true positives to false positives generated by the automated monitoring system

B.

The number of money laundering alerts generated by the watchlist screening system

C.

The number of high-risk customers onboarded each month

D.

The number of clients exited for commercial reasons

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Questions 112

Which payment type presents the highest financial crime risk?

Options:

A.

A check returning a mortgage overpayment made in error

B.

A payment made to a mixer platform

C.

A regular standing order to a high-interest savings account

D.

A bill payment made to a friend after splitting a dinner bill

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Questions 113

An AML/CFT unit often compiles information about customer activity and product usage that might be of interest to other parts of the organization.

Before allowing the unit to communicate such information internally, the organization must review:

Options:

A.

Enterprise-wide risk assessments and the employee handbook for any limitations on sharing commercially sensitive customer data

B.

The risk rating of the customers to avoid sharing data relating to higher risk customers

C.

The organization's AML compliance policies to ensure that customer data can be easily shared internally and internationally

D.

Applicable data privacy laws in relevant jurisdictions and the organization's data security and privacy policies for any limitations

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Questions 114

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation 22. when involved in customer transactions that include the buying and selling of real estate, real estate professionals are required to apply which customer due diligence (CDD) measures? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Obtaining prior senior manager approval for all related transactions

B.

Understanding the purpose of the business relationship

C.

Performing adverse media searches on the customer

D.

Identifying and verifying the customer's identity

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Questions 115

Business entities established in offshore financial centers (OFCs) pose unique risks for money laundering because they often:

Options:

A.

have informal business arrangements between persons or entities.

B.

are located in geographies that are not accountable to US laws.

C.

include trusts, investment funds, and insurance companies.

D.

have limited organizational disclosure and recordkeeping requirements for establishing these business entities.

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Questions 116

When considering purchasing AFC tools from a vendor to implement into the customer lifecycle, which of the following measures should be taken during the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Ensuring the tools are compatible and integration with current systems is possible

B.

Assessing whether internal staff members can provide training on the tools

C.

Assessing the cost of implementation and cost of maintaining the tools

D.

Basing business requirements on the features offered by the vendor's tools

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Questions 117

News published in Country A reports that a politically exposed person (PEP) had received a bribe from a transnational company headquartered in a developing country of approximately USS1.5 million deposited into on account at a financial institution (Fl> located in Country B Both countries are members of the Egmont Group The account where the money was deposited belongs to the PEP's immediate family member. To corroborate the facts, the PIU of Country A sent a formal request via secure communication channels for further information from its counterpart FIU in Country B.

According to Egmont principles, the FIU of Country B can:

Options:

A.

provide the information available to them because the exchange is between two FlUs that are members of the Egmont Group, and the formal request was made using secure communication channels.

B.

provide the requested information only if a memorandum of understanding (MoU) is signed between Country A and Country

C.

direct the FIU of Country A to the Fl where the account was opened for further information.

D.

deny the request if the FIU of Country B has not received a suspicious activity report (SAR) from the Fl where the account was opened.

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Questions 118

Which line of defense would be tasked with interpreting new AML regulations and revising training for client-facing relationship managers?

Options:

A.

The first line

B.

The second line

C.

Senior management

D.

The third line

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Exam Code: CAMS
Exam Name: Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition)
Last Update: Feb 21, 2026
Questions: 395

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