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CA0-001 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned combined projects of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite.

Resource B's role is that of a:

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

Portfolio manager

C.

Work breakdown manager

D.

Program manager

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Questions 5

Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict?

Options:

A.

Collaborating

B.

Issue log

C.

Leadership

D.

Motivation

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Questions 6

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

Options:

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

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Questions 7

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2.00

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

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Questions 8

What is an output of Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Work performance measurements

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 9

Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project closure?

Options:

A.

Resource leveling

B.

Parametric measuring

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Earned value

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Questions 10

Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?

Options:

A.

Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - D

B.

Begin - A - B - C - D - E - End

C.

Begin - A - B - D - E - End A - C - D

D.

Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - C

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Questions 11

What are the components of the "triple constraint"?

Options:

A.

Scope, time, requirements

B.

Resources, time, cost

C.

Scope, management, cost

D.

Scope, time, cost

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Questions 12

Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Monitor and Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 13

The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Perform Quality Control

D.

Identify Stakeholders

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Questions 14

The product scope description is used to:

Options:

A.

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B.

Document the characteristics of the product.

C.

Describe the project in great detail.

D.

Formally authorize the project.

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Questions 15

Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources process?

Options:

A.

Alternative analysis

B.

Bottom-up estimating

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 16

Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Report performance

C.

Communications requirements analysis

D.

Communication methods

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Questions 17

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Options:

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures.

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources.

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses.

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal.

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Questions 18

A Project Scope Management includes :

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Project Plan Execution

C.

Overall Change Control

D.

Report Performance

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Questions 19

A scope management plan In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared?

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Verify Scope

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Questions 20

Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process?

Options:

A.

Monitor implementation of approved changes

B.

Validate deliverables

C.

Staff, train, and manage the project team

D.

Manage cisks and implement risk responses

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Questions 21

A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Define Activities

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Questions 22

Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

Options:

A.

Gantt chart

B.

Milestone chart

C.

fishbone diagram

D.

network diagram

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Questions 23

Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks?

Options:

A.

Project Charter

B.

Stakeholder Register

C.

Pis'* Management Plan

D.

Activity Cost Estimates

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Questions 24

Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is useful in the Develop Human Resource Plan process:

Options:

A.

Risk Management activities

B.

Activity Resource requirements

C.

Budget Control activities

D.

Quality Assurance activities

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Questions 25

A Resource Leveling is a technique for:

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 26

Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?

Options:

A.

Unknown Unknowns

B.

Project Budget

C.

Known Unknowns

D.

Amount of work completed

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Questions 27

You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after the contract is signed is ___________.

Options:

A.

Bad practice

B.

Unprofessional practice

C.

Bacl f°r both tne buyer and seller

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 28

In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

Options:

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Balanced Matrix organization

C.

Strong Matrix

D.

Weak Matrix organization

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Questions 29

You are the project manager of a project and the project is a month into the executing phase. There are some cliques forming among the team members. Which leadership style you follow for best outcome?

Options:

A.

Supporting

B.

Delegating

C.

Coaching

D.

Directing

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Questions 30

Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?

Options:

A.

Executive Communication

B.

Risk Management

C.

Quality Management

D.

Scope Statement

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Questions 31

Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements

B.

Project performance

C.

Control Schedule

D.

Project controls

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Questions 32

Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Define Scope Process?

Options:

A.

Product analysis

B.

Expert Judgment

C.

Alternative Identification

D.

All of the above

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Questions 33

A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:

Options:

A.

Hierarchal

B.

Authoritarian

C.

Charismatic

D.

Associative

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Questions 34

What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts?

Options:

A.

CPF

B.

CPFF

C.

CPIF

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 35

Which of the following is not part of project scope management?

Options:

A.

Verify Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

None of the above

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Questions 36

A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.

Options:

A.

Project plan

B.

Process

C.

Schedule

D.

Flowchart

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Questions 37

You are the project manager for a Project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are working from US and some are from India. Client says budget should not cost more than $12 million. Because of the global concerns, the final budget must be in U.S. dollars. This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Internationalization

B.

Budget constraint

C.

Management constraint

D.

Quality constraint

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Questions 38

The planning processes are:

Options:

A.

Define Scope, Resource planning, Estimate Costs, Schedule development. Define Activities

B.

Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management

C.

Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control

D.

Define Scope, Team development, Control Schedule, Budget control, Contract administration

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Questions 39

You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract must have ________.

Options:

A.

Offer and consideration

B.

Start date and acceptance of start date

C.

Signatures and the stamp of a notary public

D.

Signatures of all stakeholders

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Questions 40

Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect project objectives.

Options:

A.

Likely events

B.

Complex activities

C.

Complex schedules

D.

Uncertain occurrences

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Questions 41

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 10 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

45

B.

12

C.

10

D.

5

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Questions 42

You are the project manager of a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have done project cost and time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (wooden coated). This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Assumption

C.

Constraint

D.

Budget

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Questions 43

Another term for top down estimating is:.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Bottom up estimating

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Questions 44

Who is responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Sender

C.

Project coordinator

D.

Sponsor

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Questions 45

You are creating your WBS and keep decomposing tasks into smaller units. How can you tell when you are done?

Options:

A.

Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably estimate required resources and duration.

B.

Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to keep the WBS balanced.

C.

Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one DAY.

D.

Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one WEEK.

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Questions 46

If a project with a CPI of 1.2, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated

B.

The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.

C.

The project is falling behind.

D.

The project is running ahead of schedule.

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Questions 47

A Risk Register is a part of the ________.

Options:

A.

Project Scope Statement

B.

Project Management plan

C.

Project Scheduling plan

D.

Project Charter

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Questions 48

Acceptance of the product should be ________.

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Consistent

C.

Personal

D.

Verbal

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Questions 49

Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Requirements document created in collect requirements process

B.

Project files from previous projects

C.

Project Charter

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 50

The product description of a project can help to create procurement details. Which one of the following best describes product description?

Options:

A.

The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the project customer

B.

The product description defines the contracted work

C.

The product description defines the requirements for the contract work

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 51

You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original scope, what you do with the old original scope?

Options:

A.

Save the old versions

B.

No need to save old version

C.

Scrap the old version

D.

Old version is not required

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Questions 52

Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?

Options:

A.

Rough order of magnitude

B.

Budget estimate

C.

WBS estimate

D.

Definitive estimate

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Questions 53

You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two project team members have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving the issues. You immediately set up a meeting that includes the functional manager. After the meeting you and the functional manager discuss the issues and agree on a solution. What type of organizational structure you are working in?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Balanced matrix

C.

Piojectized

D.

Strong Matrix

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Questions 54

What is the communication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased from 5 to 10?

Options:

A.

35

B.

5

C.

15

D.

75

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Questions 55

Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating?

Options:

A.

Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total.

B.

Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.

C.

Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs.

D.

Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.

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Questions 56

The work breakdown structure is ________.

Options:

A.

Used to break down the project into manageable pieces

B.

Set and does not change throughout the project

C.

Needed as part of the project charter

D.

[Needed as part of the project scope statement

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Questions 57

Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the __________.

Options:

A.

Work Breakdown Structure

B.

sow

C.

Project Charter

D.

Project Scope Statement

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Questions 58

Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?

Options:

A.

Direct ar|d Indirect

B.

Tactical and Strategic

C.

Management and Project

D.

0n|y Tactical

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Questions 59

Which document formally authorizes a project?

Options:

A.

The project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

The P'oject contract

D.

Project closing document

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Questions 60

You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM failing to live up to the CAPM Code. What you should do?

Options:

A.

You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding

B.

Confront the person immediately

C.

Ignore the rumours

D.

^ass the rumours along

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Questions 61

A requirement document is an input of __________ process?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Define Scope

C.

Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Questions 62

Administrative Closure should occur ___________.

Options:

A.

At the end of each phase of the project

B.

At the end of the whole project

C.

At the end of 50% of the project

D.

At the end of 100% of the project

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Questions 63

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

4

D.

5

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Questions 64

A contract cannot contain _____________.

Options:

A.

Illegal activities

B.

deadline for the completion of the work

C.

Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 65

What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?

Options:

A.

Project task

B.

w°rl< package

C.

sow

D.

None

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Questions 66

The project baseline is _______.

Options:

A.

Original plans plus the approved changes

B.

Important in the project initiation phase

C.

Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization

D.

Original plans and the approved major changes

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Questions 67

Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________.

Options:

A.

Has become part of the business processes

B.

Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

C.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

D.

None of the above

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Questions 68

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

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Questions 69

Project success can be achieved only if:

Options:

A.

There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.

B.

The project sponsor leads the initiatives.

C.

The project manager is an expert in managing resources.

D.

Team members like project manager.

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Questions 70

Which process group can be performed outside the project's scope of control?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Monitoring and Control

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 71

Final product transition is an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Close Project or Phase

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Questions 72

What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed?

Options:

A.

Work product

B.

Work package

C.

Project deliverable

D.

Scope baseline

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Questions 73

Which of the following will be required to perform simula-tion for schedule risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Activity list and activity attributes

B.

Schedule network diagram and duration estimates

C.

Schedule data and activity resource requirements

D.

Milestone list and resource breakdown structure

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Questions 74

Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?

Options:

A.

Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B.

Force of nature, such as a flood

C.

Risk threshold target

D.

Crashing front loading or fast tracking

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Questions 75

Who authorizes a project?

Options:

A.

Sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Project team

D.

Buyer

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Questions 76

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

Options:

A.

Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available.

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Questions 77

A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

Options:

A.

Risk monitoring and controlling

B.

Risk response planning

C.

Qualitative risk analysis

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

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Questions 78

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Exam Code: CA0-001
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification
Last Update: May 19, 2024
Questions: 525

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