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APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project team members?

Options:

A.

To establish formal reporting procedures for project progress.

B.

To assess the progress of their work against the strategic objectives.

C.

To ensure that work assigned to them by the Project Manager is performed.

D.

To identify and resolve project issues affecting the work delegated to them

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Questions 5

Which one of the following best describes the purpose of a project's business case?

Options:

A.

A statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/deliverables and satisfaction.

B.

The reasons why the project sponsor wants their project to proceed.

C.

A statement on how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor.

D.

Provides justification for undertaking the project, in terms of evaluating the benefits, cost and risks

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Questions 6

Project success criteria are best defined as:

Options:

A.

the qualitative or quantitative measures by which the success of the project is judged.

B.

the factors that, when present in the project are most conducive to a successful outcome.

C.

the measures that establish if project activities are ahead or behind schedule.

D.

the activities or elements of the project which are considered to be critical to success

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Questions 7

Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

Options:

A.

The project team.

B.

The chief executive.

C.

The project manager.

D.

The project support office

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Questions 8

Which of the following is the purpose of an estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Keeping resource usage to a minimum to help reduce costs.

B.

Supporting the production of comparative estimates.

C.

Identifying where costs can be minimised when preparing a budget.

D.

Representing increasing levels of estimating accuracy achieved through the life cycle

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Questions 9

How can the project manager ensure a sound stakeholder environment?

Options:

A.

Ensure that stakeholders who oppose the project are not involved

B.

Develop an environment where all stakeholder's needs are satisfied.

C.

Develop ways of understanding the needs of stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that the influence stakeholders have is reduced.

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Questions 10

What action can lead to more consistent communication in the project?

Options:

A.

Only transmitting information that stakeholders have requested, ensuring that any excess information is kept to a minimum.

B.

Communication is carried out en-masse ensuring that all stakeholders get all information.

C.

Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework.

D.

Communicating information on a one-way basis reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time providing feedback

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Questions 11

The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:

Options:

A.

quality assurance.

B.

quality planning.

C.

quality control.

D.

quality audit.

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Questions 12

Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?

Options:

A.

A target for the project to receive zero change requests.

B.

The date by which the project is to be completed.

C.

Delivery of products that meet required specifications.

D.

The awarding of bonuses to senior management.

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Questions 13

What is the term given to the senior management team that set the strategic. direction for a project?

Options:

A.

Project management office.

B.

Change control board.

C.

Project steering group.

D.

Programme director.

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Questions 14

The post project review report should be:

Options:

A.

included in the project plan for the next similar project.

B.

restricted in circulation in case it contains critical information.

C.

archived for use in a future audit of project management processes.

D.

available to all project managers within the organisation

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Questions 15

Which one of the following is a valid description of the phases of a complete project lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Start-up, feasibility, planning, execution and roll-out.

B.

Concept, screening, implementation, handover and closeout.

C.

Concept, definition, implementation, handover and closeout.

D.

Start-up, definition, development and production closedown.

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Questions 16

A procurement strategy is a:

Options:

A.

technical specification.

B.

day-to-day requirement.

C.

detailed timetable.

D.

high-level approach.

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Questions 17

You have been asked to assist in the development of a project management plan for the project. As A. minimum, what should this plan include?

Options:

A.

A. summary of the project acceptance criteria.

B.

CVs of all the team members.

C.

Details Of previous similar projects.

D.

Resourcing details for quality reviews.

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Questions 18

Which one of the following statements about the project life cycle is true?

Options:

A.

The phases in the project life cycle are always the same size.

B.

The same processes are used in each of the project life cycle phases.

C.

The project life cycle has a number of distinct phases.

D.

The project budget is divided equally between each phase of the project life cycle.

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Questions 19

What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to the project?

Options:

A.

They have a lack of interest in what the project is they feel it doesn't really affect them.

B.

They haven't been involved in project manager from the candidates available

C.

They have misunderstood what the project is trying to achieve and have had very little communication from the project.

D.

They are a in another project and time to perform the stakeholder role

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Questions 20

Which one of the following is NOT a project change?

Options:

A.

An approved omission from the agreed project scope.

B.

The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project.

C.

A. requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs.

D.

The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope.

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Questions 21

The main purpose of configuration management is to:

Options:

A.

minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project.

B.

ensure that the final product meets the strategic needs of the business.

C.

provide control of the deliverables and avoid mistakes or misunderstandings.

D.

maximise the impact of agreed enhancements on the project deliverables.

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Questions 22

What must happen when an issue is likely to result in a change of scope?

Options:

A.

The issue owner is consulted,

B.

A decision regarding the issue is deferred.

C.

The issue is rejected and the owner is informed.

D.

The issue needs to be progressed through change control.

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Questions 23

Which one of the following best describes stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Anyone who has heard about the project.

B.

Anyone who has an opinion about how the project should be managed.

C.

People wanting to be members of the project team.

D.

People who are affected by the project in some way.

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Questions 24

Three general categories for interpretation of communication could be described as:

Options:

A.

email, paper, Voice.

B.

tactile/visual, auditory, written.

C.

telephone, computer. microphone.

D.

reception, transmission, interruption.

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Questions 25

What is the main benefit of using prototyping. time boxing or iterative thinking?

Options:

A.

They offer tested methods for experimentation and risk reduction

B.

They reduce stakeholders' expectations of how they benefit from the project.

C.

Try allow the project to develop an extended life cycle.

D.

They always deliver the project quicker than planned

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Questions 26

Options:

A.

Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

B.

individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

C.

individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

D.

individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

E.

individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

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Questions 27

Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?

Options:

A.

Recommendation.

B.

Justification.

C.

Planning.

D.

Continuous improvement

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Questions 28

To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needsto consider which type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Budget.

B.

Stakeholder.

C.

Resource.

D.

Schedule

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Questions 29

A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows the project manager to cross reference:

Options:

A.

the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) to match resources to the tasks.

B.

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the cost breakdown structure (CBS) to assign A. cost to each resource.

C.

the product breakdown structure (PBS) with the work breakdown structure (WBS) to assign activities to the products.

D.

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the product breakdown structure (PBS) to assign resources to deliverables.

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Questions 30

Which one of the following takes place during closeout?

Options:

A.

Benefits realisation review.

B.

Final project review.

C.

Deliverables accepted by sponsor.

D.

Handover of relevant documentation

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Questions 31

Quality control verifies that:

Options:

A.

the project follows appropriate processes.

B.

project outputs are delivered on time.

C.

the project follows appropriate governance.

D.

project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

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Questions 32

To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

ensure that everyone is copied On all emails.

B.

insist on a lower level of paper documents.

C.

train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques

D.

develop a communication plan.

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Questions 33

While carrying out quality management for the project, you have been assigned the task of determining the quality standards that are applicable and how they should apply. Which part of quality management would best describe this activity?

Options:

A.

Quality planning.

B.

Quality assurance.

C.

Total quality.

D.

Quality control.

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Questions 34

Configuration management can be used to control documents, information and:

Options:

A.

users.

B.

audits.

C.

stakeholders.

D.

assets.

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Questions 35

What action is essential after a change has been approved?

Options:

A.

The highlights of the change are communicated directly to the sponsor.

B.

The actual impact of the change is assessed.

C.

The next change requested should be reviewed as quickly as possible.

D.

The related plans must be updated to reflect the change.

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Questions 36

What is the main reason for an initial high-level review of a change request?

Options:

A.

To consider if the change is feasible to evaluate at this stage.

B.

To establish who might be the best stakeholders to be involved in the change.

C.

To ensure that the change request is considered as soon as possible.

D.

To implement the necessary actions to ensure the change has a smooth implementation.

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Questions 37

What is the estimating method that uses data from a similar project as the basis for the estimate?

Options:

A.

Evaluative estimating.

B.

Risk based estimating.

C.

Analogous estimating.

D.

Analytical estimating.

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Questions 38

Project reporting can best be defined as:

Options:

A.

informing stakeholders about the project.

B.

storing and archiving of project information.

C.

gathering stakeholder feedback.

D.

collecting project information.

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Questions 39

Which technique could be used by a project manager when resources are limited?

Options:

A.

Resource aggregation.

B.

Resource estimation.

C.

Resource levelling.

D.

Resource expansion

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Questions 40

Portfolio management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the co-ordinated management of related projects, including related business-as-usual activities.

B.

the formal process through which changes to the project plan are approved and introduced.

C.

the identification of the benefits (of A. project or programme) at an organisational level and the tracking and realisation of those benefits.

D.

the selection and management of all of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities, taking into account resource constraints.

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Questions 41

Which of the following BEST describes a project issue?

Options:

A.

An event that may or may not occur

B.

An opportunity that occurs through change control

C.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis

D.

A problem that must be escalated to the appropriate level of management for resolution

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Questions 42

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

Options:

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

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Questions 43

In developing a network the first task after listing the activities is to...

Options:

A.

Define activity durations

B.

Determine float

C.

Determine the interdependencies of activities

D.

Harmonise the activity to a calendar

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Questions 44

The implementation of risk management on A. project requires a cost allocation from the project budget. Which statement describes the most representative return from such an investment?

Options:

A.

A benefit to the project if potential opportunities are realised

B.

The cost of dealing with a risk should it occur is usually greater than the cost of managing that risk.

C.

Risk management in the project facilitates team building.

D.

It allows the organisation to assure stakeholders of project compliance with regard to risk management.

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Questions 45

The purpose of project progress reporting is to:

Options:

A.

ensure a simpler critical path.

B.

enable the tracking of project deliverables.

C.

ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

D.

provide an increased total float.

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Questions 46

How is the deployment baseline used throughout the project?

Options:

A.

Progress monitoring and implementation of change control.

B.

Benefits realisation.

C.

Identify options for deployment.

D.

Prepare users for delivery of the output into operation.

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Questions 47

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A. project is always the starting point for operational refinement.

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Questions 48

Which project management process is NOT likely to be used when resolving an issue?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Change control

C.

Scope management

D.

Team building

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Questions 49

What would be a most likely result for an organisation following a PESTLE analysis?

Options:

A.

The organisation would know what political change is most likely and therefore the impacts on objectives considered.

B.

The organisation would most likely have a number of options available as to how the desired objectives could be achieved.

C.

The organisation would have an understanding of the necessary skills required to deliver the objectives required.

D The organisation would be able to develop an accurate estimate of the costs and time frame forthe objectives to be achieved.

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Questions 50

What rule of thumb. can be used for ensuring that key stakeholders have been included in the process?

Options:

A.

Make use Of widely available templates and predefined structures to ensure a complete spectrum of stakeholders are identified.

B.

Ask the most influential stakeholders to identify who else they think Should be involved in the project.

C.

Analyse Other projects and who their stakeholders are and include them by default.

D.

Question whose support or lack of it might significantly influence the success of the project

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Questions 51

Which of the following is a definition of project management?

Options:

A.

A complex process of supervising and managing the delivery of any time-bound deliverable.

B.

Any change in management techniques in a company that achieves strategic objectives.

C.

The application of processes, methods, knowledge, skills and experience to achieve specificobjectives for change.

D.

The coordination of several projects alongside business as usual.

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Questions 52

The project manager's prime responsibility is to:

Options:

A.

deliver the benefits.

B.

define the requirements.

C.

sign off the business case.

D.

implement the project plan

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Questions 53

A key aspect of managing a project involves:

Options:

A.

defining which operational systems to put in place.

B.

identifying routine tasks.

C.

ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.

D.

planning to achieve defined objectives.

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Questions 54

You have been asked to review the project's quality management plan and in particular the elements of the plan most relevant to quality control. Which one of the following will be your primary focus for consideration?

Options:

A.

The development of a. strategy for the management of quality in the project.

B.

Supplying the client with evidence of control to ISO 9000:2000.

C.

A. review of whether underlying processes and way of working are leading towards product deliverables of the right quality.

D.

The agreed methods of inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria defined during quality planning.

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Questions 55

The main objective of stakeholder management is to establish stakeholder:

Options:

A.

interests.

B.

expectations.

C.

influence.

D.

engagement.

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Questions 56

When an item goes through change control, which of the following must happen as part of a robust configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Costs associated with the change are evaluated and documented.

B.

Risks associated with the change are monitored to avoid delays to the project.

C.

The item is approved or declined in line with stakeholder expectations.

D.

Documents are updated to include any approved changes.

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Questions 57

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

Options:

A.

It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted.

B.

It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed.

C.

It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place.

D.

It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted.

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Questions 58

Which of the following are not considered by quality planning?

Options:

A.

Contingency budget for remedial work.

B.

Equipment required for quality testing.

C.

Staff qualified to undertake inspections.

D.

Processes to obtain stakeholder approvals.

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Questions 59

Which one of the following would best describe a post project review?

Options:

A.

It is a personal appraisal for each team member on completion Of the project.

B.

It appraises the products of the project.

C.

It considers all aspects of the management of the project.

D It involves only the project implementation team.

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Questions 60

Which one of the following statements best describes resource scheduling?

Options:

A.

A. process which identifies activities that will need project resources.

B.

A. process to assign roles to project resources.

C.

A. process that identifies when resources are needed.

D.

A. process to estimate the project resources.

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Questions 61

Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process?

Options:

A.

Verification.

B.

Request.

C.

Closure.

D.

Justification

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Questions 62

The phases of a project life cycle are:

Options:

A.

starting, planning, control and closing.

B.

concept, definition, development, handover and closure.

C.

initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.

D.

concept, definition, implementation and operations.

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Questions 63

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

Options:

A.

to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.

B.

to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.

C.

to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.

D.

to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders

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Questions 64

Risk management should be initiated...

Options:

A.

when the Project Management Plan is initiated.

B.

at the time the Work Breakdown Structure is developed.

C.

at the start of the project.

D.

once the project concept is understood.

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Questions 65

What role does the project manager have in the writing of the business case? The project manager:

Options:

A.

works with the project sponsor.

B.

has no involvement.

C.

must develop it themself.

D.

works with the end user.

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Questions 66

What could be considered a significant barrier to communication?

Options:

A.

Use of body language.

B.

Having formal meetings.

C.

Attitudes, emotions and prejudices.

D.

Use of informal communication channels

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Questions 67

A project stakeholder could best be described as:

Options:

A.

A member of the sponsoring organisation's board of directors.

B.

A key player who is seeking to maximize control over the project

C.

A person or group who has an interest in or is impacted by the project.

D.

A project team member who has the skills necessary to deliver the project

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Questions 68

When in the project life cycle should the deployment baseline be formed?

Options:

A.

Deployment phase.

B.

Concept phase.

C.

Definition phase.

D.

Transition phase.

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Questions 69

What is the likely decision to arise from the response stage of the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Whether to proceed with the project or recommend termination.

B.

Whether the process being used is robust enough for the project being undertaken.

C.

Whether to proactively invest to bring the exposure to risk within tolerable levels.

D.

Whether to use brainstorming or a workshop to decide on the best response.

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Questions 70

Which key questions should be asked before a decision gate occurs?

1) Is the business case viable?

2) What has been achieved?

3) What is required for the next stage?

4) Are stakeholders properly engaged?

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3 and 4

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Questions 71

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the post project review?

Options:

A.

Evaluation of the benefits of the project.

B.

Identification of the problems that arose and their likely causes.

C.

Review of the project's performance against the success criteria.

D.

Review of how the team worked together to solve problems and issues.

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Questions 72

Which one Of the following statements about project risk is true?

Options:

A.

Risk is always beneficial to the project.

B.

Risk is neither beneficial or detrimental to the project

C.

Risk can be beneficial or detrimental to the project.

D.

Risk is always detrimental to the project.

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Questions 73

Where in the project life cycle would the project manager typically be appointed?

Options:

A.

At the start of the concept phase.

B.

At the start of the definition phase.

C.

At the start of the development phase.

D.

At the end of the handover stage.

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Questions 74

What is likely to be a benefit to a project of having a communication plan?

Options:

A.

The project is more likely to finish on time.

B.

There will be greater adherence to the organisation's governance and standards.

C.

The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled change.

D.

There will be more focus on what benefits the project will be delivering.

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Questions 75

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

Options:

A.

Steering group.

B.

Risk owner.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Project manager

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Questions 76

Once a proposed change is logged it should then be:

Options:

A.

accepted, rejected or deferred.

B.

accepted and the project plan updated.

C.

sent to the project sponsor for approval.

D.

assessed to determine its potential impact.

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Questions 77

Which management skill aligns and influences others towards a common purpose and empowers and inspires a team to achieve success?

Options:

A.

Social sensitivity.

B.

Leadership.

C.

Communication.

D.

Drive.

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Questions 78

Which of the following is not a benefit to using a hybrid project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Provides a framework that is universally applicable.

B.

Speeds up deployment and benefits realization.

C.

Focuses on the most useful interim deliverables.

D.

Augments and strengthens predictive deployment.

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Questions 79

Which of the following statements explain the importance of clearly defined success criteria at handover?

1) Deliverables are more likely to satisfy the client

2) The project can be effectively evaluated

3) Work can be effectively planned

4) Change can generally be avoided

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 80

What information would you not expect to see in a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Quality management plan.

B.

Financial feasibility analysis.

C.

Risk management plan.

D.

Details of scope.

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Questions 81

How many dimensions are included in the business case?

Options:

A.

Five

B.

One

C.

Three

D.

Four

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Questions 82

Which one of the following best describes project management?

Options:

A.

Using APM's Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.

B.

Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.

C.

Utilising team members who can work on a project full time.

D.

Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.

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Questions 83

One difference between an issue and a risk is an issue:

Options:

A.

must be recorded but a risk does not.

B.

is an uncertain event but a risk is not.

C.

is a certain event but a risk is not.

D.

always affects scope but a risk does not

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Questions 84

Which of these statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders may be for the change or against

B.

Stakeholders may have little influence or lots

C.

Stakeholders may be internal or external to your organisation

D.

Stakeholders with high influence always have high interest in the project

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Questions 85

A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?

Options:

A.

Benefits.

B.

Quality.

C.

Tolerance.

D.

Controls.

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Questions 86

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines, is referred to as the:

Options:

A.

change management committee,

B.

change authority,

C.

change control board.

D.

change implementation group.

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Questions 87

Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor?

Options:

A.

Creating a project cost breakdown structure.

B.

Authoring the project management plan.

C.

Creating a project work breakdown structure.

D.

Owning the project business case.

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Questions 88

Which one of the following is an example of a project issue?

Options:

A.

There are no suppliers that can meet our specification.

B.

We may not be able to finish on time.

C.

The project is going to be late.

D.

A key phase of the project is taking longer than expected

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Questions 89

The main aim of quality management is to:

Options:

A.

prepare a high-quality management plan.

B.

ensure that deliverables meet appropriate standards.

C.

validate the use of consistent standards.

D.

determine whether to accept change requests.

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Questions 90

Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?

Options:

A.

A. summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.

B.

A. summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.

C.

A. tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.

D.

A. tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

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Questions 91

What is defined as "the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose"?

Options:

A.

Teamwork.

B.

Motivation.

C.

Management.

D.

Leadership

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Questions 92

Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

Options:

A.

External stakeholders.

B.

The end users.

C.

The finance director.

D.

The project manager

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Questions 93

What is a likely benefit of re-estimating throughout the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

The project will be much more economically viable.

B.

The business case is justified to a greater degree.

C.

Overall project duration is reduced.

D.

Reduction in contingency reserves are achieved.

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Questions 94

Which of the following statements about the role of project sponsor is false?

Options:

A.

A. project sponsor is an advocate for the project and the change it brings about.

B.

A. project sponsor writes and owns the project management plan.

C.

A. project sponsor is able to work across functional boundaries within an organisation.

D A. project sponsor is prepared to commit sufficient time and effort to support the project.

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Questions 95

The project team comprises:

Options:

A.

all those responsible to the project manager who are working towards the project objectives.

B.

the members of staff who are allocated full time to the project.

C.

the members of staff who report to the project manager and who carry out work on the project.

D.

all project stakeholders.

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Questions 96

Which one of the following best describes a project issue?

Options:

A.

A major problem that requires formal escalation.

B.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

C.

An uncertain event that may or may not occur.

D.

An opportunity that occurs through change control.

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Questions 97

Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation?

Options:

A.

It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.

B.

It advocates employing A. consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.

C.

It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.

D.

It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

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Questions 98

An important aim of a post-project review is to:

Options:

A.

validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.

B.

capture learning and document it for future usage.

C.

ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.

D.

establish that project benefits have been identified.

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Questions 99

A typical risk management process would follow the steps:

Options:

A.

identification. analysis, response. closure.

B.

assessment, analysis. closure. response.

C.

assessment, planning, managing. response.

D.

identification, planning, response. closure

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Questions 100

Configuration management is best described as:

Options:

A.

control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.

B.

an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.

C.

quality control of project deliverables and documentation.

D.

creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

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Questions 101

What factor creates the effect of the estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Project team getting to know each other better.

B.

utilization of learning and experience.

C.

Project scope increasing in cost.

D.

use of a linear life cycle

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Questions 102

Which one of these categories would best represent project issues?

Options:

A.

Uncertain events that may or may not occur.

B.

Opportunities that occur through change control.

C.

Problems that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

D.

Threats to the project which cannot be resolved by the project manager.

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Questions 103

Who is primarily responsible for ensuring the implementation of formal change control?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders.

B.

The Project Manager.

C.

The project sponsor.

D.

The project team.

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Questions 104

A project manager would use a cost breakdown structure to produce:

Options:

A.

the cost of a do-nothing option.

B.

an analytical estimate.

C.

high-level project costs.

D.

a comparative estimate.

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Questions 105

Who is best placed in the project to manage sponsor and user expectations?

Options:

A.

The senior management team.

B.

The project manager.

C.

The project management office.

D The project team.

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Questions 106

Which of the following is a project?

Options:

A.

Introducing a new information technology system.

B.

Operating a national rail network.

C.

Organising ongoing catering in the armed forces.

D.

Managing day-to-day security for senior politicians

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Questions 107

Resource levelling seeks:

Options:

A.

to schedule activities within the limits of their float.

B.

to minimise the use of overtime and weekend working.

C.

not to exceed the limits of resource available.

D.

to increase the resource availability

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Questions 108

Which one of the following best describes the entire project reporting process?

Options:

A.

Producing an exception report to communicate A. project issue to the project board.

B.

Publicising the project benefits to the business organisation.

C.

Notifying team members of the project's progress at the weekly team meeting.

D.

Formally notifying the status of the project to the project's stakeholders.

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Questions 109

Programme Management can BEST be described as...

Options:

A.

the management of multiple projects by one project manager.

B.

the management of very large, complex projects.

C.

the means of linking business strategy to projects within an organisation.

D.

a fashionable term which means the same as Project Management.

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Questions 110

The deployment baseline is the ______ for progress monitoring.

Options:

A.

decision gate.

B.

starting point.

C.

end point.

D.

outline schedule.

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Questions 111

Inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria is an example of quality:

Options:

A.

reporting.

B.

control.

C.

assurance.

D.

planning.

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Questions 112

Which one of the following best describes users?

Options:

A.

Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.

B.

Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.

C.

Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.

D.

Those providing full-time commitment to the project.

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Questions 113

How should issues be prioritised?

Options:

A.

The time order in which the issues occurred.

B.

The impact on success criteria and benefits.

C.

The relative seniority of the issue owner.

D.

The relationship with A. relevant risk.

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Questions 114

Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

Options:

A.

Staff appraisals.

B.

Management buy in.

C.

Milestone achievement.

D.

Master schedule.

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Questions 115

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.

B.

Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.

C.

Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.

D.

Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

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Questions 116

Critical path analysis places emphasis upon:

Options:

A.

risks

B.

resources

C.

milestones

D.

activities

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Questions 117

A work breakdown structure shows the levels of work required to produce the deliverables for the project in what type of diagram?

Options:

A.

Histogram.

B.

Hierarchical.

C.

Handover.

D.

Historical.

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Questions 118

From the project sponsor's viewpoint, which of the following is not an important aspect of the project communication plan?

Options:

A.

How issues are to be escalated from project manager to project sponsor.

B.

Understanding stakeholders' power and influence.

C.

When project workshops are to be held.

D.

Reference to higher level corporate policies.

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Questions 119

Which of these is not part of the linear project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Operations

D.

Transition

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Questions 120

The question: 'Is the project actually following the processes and procedures as set out in the quality plan?' would be answered by?

Options:

A.

Quality alignment.

B.

Quality control.

C.

Quality assurance.

D.

Quality improvement.

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Questions 121

Which of these is likely to occur if the scope is poorly defined?

1. Additional time spent in the concept phase

2. Scope creep

3. Budget over/under runs

4. Scheduling problems

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Questions 122

Portfolio management includes prioritising:

Options:

A.

projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation's strategic objectives.

B.

projects with exceptionally high returns on investment.

C.

projects and programmes over business as usual.

D.

projects which maximise change over those which maximise investment

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Exam Code: APM-PFQ
Exam Name: APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ)
Last Update: Oct 16, 2025
Questions: 409

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