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APM-001 Associate in Project Management (APM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 5

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

Options:

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 6

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Questions 7

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 8

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

Options:

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

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Questions 9

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

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Questions 10

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 11

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

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Questions 12

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

Options:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

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Questions 13

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 14

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Develop Project Team.

D.

Acquire Project Team.

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Questions 15

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

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Questions 16

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

Options:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

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Questions 17

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

Options:

A.

quality audits.

B.

process analysis.

C.

benchmarking.

D.

inspection.

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Questions 18

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables.

B.

Validated deliverables.

C.

Acceptance criteria.

D.

Activity resource requirements.

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Questions 19

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

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Questions 20

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

Options:

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

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Questions 21

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Informal r

C.

Horizontal

D.

Unofficial

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Questions 22

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

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Questions 23

An input to the Control Quality process is:

Options:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

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Questions 24

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

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Questions 25

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

Options:

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

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Questions 26

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Budget estimates

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Procurement documents

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Questions 27

High-level project risks are included in which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

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Questions 28

Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Project reports

B.

Issue log

C.

Lessons learned documentation

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 29

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Options:

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

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Questions 30

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

Options:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

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Questions 31

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

Options:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

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Questions 32

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Initiating

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Questions 33

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

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Questions 34

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

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Questions 35

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

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Questions 36

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 37

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

Options:

A.

change requests

B.

enterprise environmental factors

C.

the stakeholder management plan

D.

the change log

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Questions 38

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

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Questions 39

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

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Questions 40

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Options:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

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Questions 41

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

Options:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

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Questions 42

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

Options:

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

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Questions 43

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

Options:

A.

Work performance information.

B.

Inspections and audits.

C.

Payment systems.

D.

Procurement performance reviews.

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Questions 44

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

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Questions 45

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Collect Requirements

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Questions 46

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 47

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

Options:

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

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Questions 48

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

Options:

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

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Questions 49

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

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Questions 50

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

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Questions 51

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 52

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

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Questions 53

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Questions 54

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

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Questions 55

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

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Questions 56

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

Options:

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 57

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

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Questions 58

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

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Questions 59

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

Options:

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

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Questions 60

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Plan Quality

D.

Report Performance

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Questions 61

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 62

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

Options:

A.

divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B.

repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.

C.

linked to specific phases or subprojects.

D.

integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

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Questions 63

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

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Questions 64

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

Options:

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 65

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

Options:

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

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Questions 66

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

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Questions 67

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

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Questions 68

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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Questions 69

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

Options:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

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Questions 70

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

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Questions 71

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

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Questions 72

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

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Questions 73

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Questions 74

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

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Questions 75

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Questions 76

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Options:

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 77

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Questions 78

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Questions 79

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Questions 80

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

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Questions 81

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Questions 82

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

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Questions 83

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

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Questions 84

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

Options:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

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Questions 85

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

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Questions 86

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

Options:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

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Questions 87

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

Options:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

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Questions 88

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 89

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

Options:

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

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Questions 90

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

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Questions 91

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 92

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

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Questions 93

The Human Resource Management processes are:

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

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Questions 94

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

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Questions 95

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

Options:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

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Questions 96

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 97

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

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Questions 98

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

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Questions 99

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

Options:

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

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Questions 100

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

Options:

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 101

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

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Questions 102

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Questions 103

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 104

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 105

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

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Exam Code: APM-001
Exam Name: Associate in Project Management (APM)
Last Update: Dec 4, 2024
Questions: 0

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