Detective controls do which of the following? I. Establish segregation of duties; II. Look for errors and irregularities; III. Determine if preventive controls are effective.
I, II, and III
I and III only
II and III only
I and II only
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program explains that detective controls are designed to identify errors, fraud, or control failures after they occur. They include activities like reviewing transactions for irregularities and assessing the effectiveness of preventive controls.Segregation of duties, however, is a preventive control, not a detective one, as it prevents fraud by dividing responsibilities.
Item I (Establish segregation of duties): Segregation of duties prevents fraud by ensuring no single employee controls all aspects of a transaction (e.g., invoice approval and payment). This is a preventive control, not detective.
Item II (Look for errors and irregularities): Detective controls, such as account reconciliation or audits, identify errors or fraudulent activities after they occur. This is a valid function.
Item III (Determine if preventive controls are effective): Detective controls, like monitoring or control testing, assess whether preventive controls (e.g., vendor validation) are working. This is a valid function.
Option A (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Item I is a preventive control.
Option B (I and III only): Incorrect, as Item I is not a detective control function.
Option C (II and III only): Correct, as Items II and III describe detective control functions.
Option D (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item I is not a detective control function.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “Detective controls, such as audits and reconciliations, look for errors and irregularities and evaluate the effectiveness of preventive controls.” It clarifies that “segregation of duties is a preventive control to avoid conflicts of interest.” The training video discusses detective controls as tools for “post-transaction review and control assessment,” excluding segregation of duties.
COSO identifies each of the following elements as necessary for an effective control environment, EXCEPT:
Internal controls are monitored and evaluated
Staff work in self-directed teams
Information is distributed in a timely way
People know their responsibilities and limits of authority
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program details the COSO framework’s Control Environment component, which establishes the foundation for effective internal controls. Key elements include clear roles and responsibilities, timely information distribution, and ongoing monitoring of controls. However,staff working in self-directed teamsis not a COSO requirement, as the framework focuses on structure and accountability rather than specific team management styles.
Option A (Internal controls are monitored and evaluated): This aligns with COSO’s Monitoring Activities component but also supports the Control Environment by ensuring controls are enforced. It is a necessary element.
Option B (Staff work in self-directed teams): COSO does not mandate self-directed teams. While teamwork may be beneficial, the Control Environment emphasizes defined roles and oversight, not specific team structures. This is the correct answer.
Option C (Information is distributed in a timely way): This supports the Control Environment by ensuring employees have the information needed to perform their duties, aligning with COSO’s Information and Communication component. It is a necessary element.
Option D (People know their responsibilities and limits of authority): This is a core element of the Control Environment, ensuring clear accountability and authority structures. It is a necessary element.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsexplains, “The COSO Control Environment requires clear responsibilities, timely information flow, and ongoing monitoring to establish effective controls.” It lists elements like “defined roles and authority limits” and “effective communication” but does not mention self-directed teams as a requirement. The training video emphasizes COSO’s focus on accountability and structure, noting that team configurations are organizational choices, not COSO mandates.
Which of the following is true about a recurring wire transfer?
It is made at the same time each week
It is made to the same organization each time
It is made for the same amount each time
It must be made through CHIPS
A recurring wire transfer is a payment set up to occur automatically on a regular schedule (e.g., weekly, monthly) to the same recipient organization, such as a vendor or service provider, often for fixed or variable amounts. The defining characteristic is that it ismade to the same organization each time, ensuring consistency in the recipient. The timing (Option A) and amount (Option C) may vary depending on the agreement, and the transfer is not required to use CHIPS (Option D), as wire transfers can be processed through other systems like Fedwire or SWIFT.
The web source from Tipalti states: “A recurring wire transfer is an automated payment to the same organization on a regular schedule, such as for rent or subscriptions, with amounts that may vary.” This directly supports Option B.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including wire transfers and recurring payment setups. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the definition of recurring wire transfers as payments to a consistent recipient.
The acronym “VAT” stands for:
Value assessed tax
Variable added tax
Variable assessed tax
Value added tax
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers value-added tax (VAT), a consumption tax levied on the value added at each stage of production or distribution, common in many countries (e.g., EU, Canada). The acronymVATstands forValue Added Tax, a standard term in tax compliance.
Option A (Value assessed tax): Incorrect. This is not a recognized term in tax regulations.
Option B (Variable added tax): Incorrect. The term does not reflect the concept of value added at production stages.
Option C (Variable assessed tax): Incorrect. This is not a standard tax term.
Option D (Value added tax): Correct. VAT is universally known as Value Added Tax, as defined by tax authorities and IOFM materials.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancedefines VAT as “Value Added Tax, a tax on the value added at each stage of goods or services production.” The training video explains, “VAT, or Value Added Tax, is a key compliance area for AP in international transactions, requiring accurate invoicing and reporting.”
Which of the following AP department procedures would reduce the number of vendor calls to the AP department?
I and II only (Provide access to a supplier portal, Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors)
II and III only (Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors, Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice)
I and III only (Provide access to a supplier portal, Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice)
I, II, and III (Provide access to a supplier portal, Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors, Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice)
Vendor calls to the accounts payable (AP) department often stem from inquiries about invoice status, payment timing, or discrepancies. Providing access to a supplier portal (Option I) allows vendors to check invoice and payment status online, reducing the need for direct contact. Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice (Option III) clarifies payment details, addressing common vendor questions. Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors (Option II) may streamline internal processes but does not directly reduce vendor calls, as it does not provide vendors with self-service tools or additional information.
The web source from Esker states: “Supplier portals reduce vendor inquiries by allowing vendors to track invoice and payment status in real-time… Detailed remittance advice with comprehensive payment information minimizes follow-up calls from vendors.” This supports Options I and III. Option II is not mentioned as a direct method for reducing vendor calls, as it primarily affects internal AP workflows.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including strategies to improve AP efficiency and vendor relations. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with using supplier portals and detailed remittance advice to minimize vendor inquiries.
All of the following are examples of key performance indicators (KPIs) EXCEPT:
Invoices paid on time
Positive pay
Cost per invoice
Lost discounts
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding key performance indicators (KPIs) to measure AP department performance. KPIs are metrics that track efficiency, accuracy, and cost-effectiveness, such as invoices paid on time, cost per invoice, and lost discounts.Positive pay, however, is a fraud prevention tool, not a performance metric.
Option A (Invoices paid on time): This is a KPI, measuring the percentage of invoices paid by their due date, reflecting AP efficiency and vendor relationship management.
Option B (Positive pay): Positive pay is a banking service that matches issued checks against presented checks to prevent fraud. It is a control mechanism, not a KPI, as it does not measure performance. This is the correct answer.
Option C (Cost per invoice): This is a KPI, calculating the average cost to process an invoice, used to assess operational efficiency.
Option D (Lost discounts): This is a KPI, tracking missed early payment discounts, which indicates opportunities for cost savings.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlslists common AP KPIs, including “percentage of invoices paid on time, cost per invoice, and lost early payment discounts,” as metrics to evaluate performance. It describes positive pay as “a fraud prevention tool under internal controls, not a performance indicator.” The training video reinforces this by discussing KPIs for benchmarking and positive pay as a separate control mechanism.
Which of the following IRS documents addresses travel & entertainment (T&E) expenses?
Notice 1009
Publication 463
Advisory 972
Form 1046
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS)Publication 463, titled "Travel, Gift, and Car Expenses," is the primary document that addresses travel and entertainment (T&E) expenses. It provides detailed guidance on what qualifies as deductible business travel, entertainment, and related expenses, including rules for substantiation, accountable plans, and per diem rates.
The web source from the IRS states: “Publication 463, Travel, Gift, and Car Expenses, explains what expenses are deductible, how to report them, and the rules for an accountable plan.” This directly supports Option B. The other options are incorrect:
Notice 1009 (A)does not exist in the context of T&E expenses.
Advisory 972 (C)is not a recognized IRS document.
Form 1046 (D)is not related to T&E; IRS forms like 1040 or 1099 are unrelated.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS guidelines for T&E expenses. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” emphasizes familiarity with Publication 463 for compliance with T&E reporting requirements.
When applied to T&E, compliance requires which of the following processes?
II and III only (Secure record retention; Traveler location tracking)
III only (Traveler location tracking)
I and II only (Accurate recordkeeping; Secure record retention)
I only (Accurate recordkeeping)
Compliance in T&E processes requires robust systems to ensure financial accuracy and regulatory adherence.Accurate recordkeeping(Option I) is essential to document expenses, support financial reporting, and meet IRS and SOX requirements.Secure record retention(Option II) ensures that records are stored safely to protect sensitive data and comply with retention policies (e.g., IRS rules requiring records for at least three years).Traveler location tracking(Option III) is not a standard compliance requirement for T&E, as it relates more to employee safety or logistics, not financial or regulatory compliance.
The web source from Tipalti states: “T&E compliance requires accurate recordkeeping to support expense reporting and audits, as well as secure record retention to protect data and meet regulatory retention periods.” This supports Options I and II. Traveler location tracking is not mentioned as a compliance requirement in T&E processes, per the SAP Concur source: “Compliance in T&E focuses on documentation, approvals, and data security, not employee tracking.”
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” emphasizing compliance with financial and tax regulations. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with accurate recordkeeping and secure retention as key compliance processes.
Cash management refers to an organization’s management of which of the following?
Payment terms
Payroll disbursements
Enterprise resource planning systems
Inflow and outflow of funds
Cash management refers to an organization’s processes for managing the inflow and outflow of funds to optimize liquidity, ensure financial stability, and meet operational needs. This includes overseeing cash receipts, payments, and forecasting cash flow. While payment terms (Option A) and payroll disbursements (Option B) are components of cash management, they are not the comprehensive definition. Enterprise resource planning systems (Option C) are tools that may support cash management but are not the definition itself.
The web source from Corcentric states: “Cash management involves managing an organization’s inflow and outflow of funds to maintain liquidity and meet financial obligations.” This directly supports Option D.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including cash management principles as they relate to AP processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the definition of cash management as managing cash inflows and outflows.
Which of the following techniques is NOT recommended to help protect confidential data?
When leaving your work area even briefly, lock your computer down
Save reports to a portable USB drive and give that to the requestor instead of emailing them
When approached at your desk, turn off your monitor and turn papers face down
Shred unneeded paper documents or put them in a secure disposal container
Protecting confidential data in accounts payable requires secure practices to prevent unauthorized access. Locking your computer when leaving your work area (Option A), turning off your monitor and securing papers when approached (Option C), and shredding or securely disposing of unneeded documents (Option D) are recommended techniques to safeguard sensitive information. However, saving reports to a portable USB drive and giving it to a requestor (Option B) is not recommended, as USB drives are easily lost, stolen, or compromised, posing a significant security risk compared to secure email or file-sharing systems.
The web source from Esker states: “To protect confidential AP data, lock computers when unattended, secure physical documents, and use secure disposal methods. Avoid using portable devices like USB drives for data transfer due to security risks.” This directly supports Options A, C, and D, while identifying Option B as an insecure practice.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including data security practices. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with secure data handling, ruling out the use of USB drives for sensitive reports.
According to the IRS definition of an accountable plan, how much time is given an employee to adequately account for business expenses after they are incurred?
120 days
60 days
30 days
90 days
An accountable plan, as defined by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), is a reimbursement or allowance arrangement that meets specific requirements to ensure business expenses are properly documented and not treated as taxable income. One key requirement is that employees must adequately account for their expenses within a reasonable period. According to IRS guidelines, employees must submit expense reports or other documentation within 60 days after the expenses are incurred to meet the "reasonable period" standard.
The web source from the IRS states: “Under an accountable plan, employees must adequately account to the employer for their expenses within a reasonable period of time. The IRS considers 60 days after the expense was paid or incurred to be a reasonable period for accounting.” This directly supports Option B (60 days). The other options (120 days, 30 days, 90 days) do not align with the IRS’s specific timeframe for accounting under an accountable plan.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS regulations related to expense reimbursements. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” and compliance with federal tax laws includes understanding the requirements of an accountable plan, such as the 60-day rule for expense accounting.
Where circumstances do not permit implementing ideal controls, an organization should put in place the next-best alternative, commonly referred to as:
Interim controls
Stop-gap controls
Secondary controls
Compensating controls
TheInternal Controlstopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers the design and implementation of internal controls to mitigate risks. When ideal controls (e.g., full segregation of duties) are not feasible due to resource constraints or organizational structure,compensating controlsare implemented as alternative measures to achieve similar risk mitigation. These controlsprovide additional checks or oversight to compensate for the absence of primary controls.
Option A (Interim controls): Interim controls imply temporary measures, not necessarily designed to compensate for missing ideal controls. This is incorrect.
Option B (Stop-gap controls): Stop-gap controls are ad-hoc, temporary fixes, not a formal term in the COSO framework or AP practices. This is incorrect.
Option C (Secondary controls): Secondary controls are not a recognized term in internal control frameworks; they imply less critical controls, not alternatives. This is incorrect.
Option D (Compensating controls): Correct. Compensating controls are alternative measures implemented when ideal controls are not practical, ensuring adequate risk mitigation.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “When ideal controls cannot be implemented, compensating controls provide alternative risk mitigation, such as additional reviews or approvals to address control gaps.” The training video discusses compensating controls in the context of COSO and SOX, noting their use in small organizations where segregation of duties is challenging.
When checking the address of a new vendor, what is one potential red flag?
The vendor has the same address as one of the organization’s own locations
The vendor does not appear to use a post office box
The vendor’s warehouse and its accounts receivable address are different
The vendor is located in an unincorporated area
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program highlights vendor validation to prevent fraud, including checking addresses for red flags. A significant red flag is when avendor’s address matches one of the organization’s own locations, as this may indicate insider fraud (e.g., an employee creating a fake vendor using a company address).
Option A (The vendor has the same address as one of the organization’s own locations): Correct. This is a red flag, as it suggests potential fraud, such as an employee setting up a fictitious vendor at a company site.
Option B (The vendor does not appear to use a post office box): Incorrect. Not using a P.O. box is not inherently suspicious; many legitimate vendors use physical addresses.
Option C (The vendor’s warehouse and its accounts receivable address are different): Incorrect. Different addresses for operational and financial functions are common and not a red flag.
Option D (The vendor is located in an unincorporated area): Incorrect. Location in an unincorporated area is not inherently suspicious and does not indicate fraud.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “A red flag during vendor address checks is when the vendor’s address matches an organization’s own location, indicating potential insider fraud.” The training video notes, “Always verify vendor addresses against company locations to detect fraudulent setups.”
To establish a successful shared services center, each of the following is required EXCEPT:
Performance metrics
A customer service orientation
A greenfield site
A change in mindset
TheTechnology and Automationtopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers strategies for optimizing AP processes, including the establishment of shared services centers (SSCs). SSCs consolidate back-office functions like AP to improve efficiency and reduce costs. Key requirements for a successful SSC include performance metrics to measure success, a customer serviceorientation to support internal and external stakeholders, and a change in mindset to embrace centralized processes. However, agreenfield site(a new, undeveloped location) is not a requirement, as SSCs can be established in existing facilities or virtual environments.
Option A (Performance metrics): Performance metrics (e.g., cost per invoice, processing time) are essential to evaluate the SSC’s efficiency and ensure alignment with organizational goals. This is a requirement.
Option B (A customer service orientation): SSCs must prioritize service to internal clients (e.g., departments) and external stakeholders (e.g., vendors), ensuring smooth communication and issue resolution. This is a requirement.
Option C (A greenfield site): A greenfield site refers to a new facility built from scratch. SSCs can operate in existing offices, leased spaces, or even digitally, making a greenfield site unnecessary. This is the correct answer, as it is not required.
Option D (A change in mindset): Transitioning to an SSC requires employees and management to adopt a centralized, process-driven approach, moving away from decentralized silos. This cultural shift is a requirement.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTechnology and Automationdiscusses SSCs as a way to “streamline AP through centralized processes, requiring performance metrics, a service-oriented approach, and a cultural shift to succeed.” It notes that SSCs can be established in various locations, with no mention of a greenfield site as a necessity. The training video highlights case studies of SSCs, emphasizing metrics and mindset changes but not physical site requirements.
In order to get a sales tax exemption on goods purchased for resale, what must the buyer do?
File a letter of intent with the local taxing jurisdiction
Provide an exemption certificate to the seller
Inform the state in writing that the tax will be paid by the buyer
Supply a copy of a sales tax license to the seller
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers sales tax exemptions, particularly for goods purchased for resale (e.g., by wholesalers or retailers). To claim a sales tax exemption, the buyer must provide anexemption certificateto the seller, documenting that the goods are for resale and not subject to sales tax at the point of purchase. The seller retains this certificate for audit purposes.
Option A (File a letter of intent with the local taxing jurisdiction): Incorrect. A letter of intent is not a standard requirement; the exemption is documented via a certificate provided to the seller.
Option B (Provide an exemption certificate to the seller): Correct. An exemption certificate (e.g., a resale certificate) verifies the buyer’s intent to resell the goods, exempting the transaction from sales tax.
Option C (Inform the state in writing that the tax will be paid by the buyer): Incorrect. The buyer does not directly notify the state; the exemption is handled between buyer and seller via the certificate.
Option D (Supply a copy of a sales tax license to the seller): Incorrect. While a sales tax license may be relevant for the buyer’s operations, the exemption certificate is the specific document required for resale exemptions.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “To claim a sales tax exemption for goods purchased for resale, the buyer must provide an exemption certificate to the seller, documenting the resale intent.” The training video explains, “AP professionals ensure exemption certificates are collected for resale purchases to avoid unnecessary sales tax payments, maintaining compliance with state regulations.”
Benefits of ACH include each of the following, EXCEPT:
ACH replaces having to issue paper checks
ACH reduces the cost of invoice processing
ACH eliminates the need for vendor verification
ACH speeds up payment processing time
Automated Clearing House (ACH) payments offer several benefits, including replacing paper checks (Option A), speeding up payment processing compared to checks (Option D), and reducing costs associated with manual payment methods. However, ACH does not eliminate the need for vendor verification (Option C), as organizations must still validate vendor bank details to prevent fraud and ensure accurate payments.
The web source from Tipalti states: “ACH payments reduce costs by replacing paper checks, speed up payment processing, and improve efficiency… However, proper vendor verification is still required to ensure secure transactions.” This confirms that Options A, D, and indirectly B (through overall cost reduction) are benefits, while Option C is not.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including ACH as a cost-effective payment method. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” emphasizes the benefits of ACH but also the importance of vendor validation, aligning with the exclusion of Option C.
Ways in which an organization could suffer from check fraud include which of the following: I. Check alteration; II. Invalid payments; III. Stolen issued checks.
I, II, and III
II and III only
I and III only
I and II only
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program emphasizes fraud prevention, including check fraud, which is a significant risk in AP due to the handling of payments. Check fraud can occur throughcheck alteration(modifying payee or amount),invalid payments(payments to fraudulent vendors or for unauthorized transactions), andstolen issued checks(checks intercepted and cashed fraudulently). All three are recognized methods of check fraud.
Item I (Check alteration): Altering a check’s payee, amount, or date is a common fraud method, often mitigated by controls like positive pay. This is a valid way.
Item II (Invalid payments): Payments to fictitious vendors or for unauthorized purposes (e.g., duplicate invoices) constitute fraud, often enabled by weak vendor validation. This is a valid way.
Item III (Stolen issued checks): Stealing issued checks (e.g., from mail) and cashing them fraudulently is a well-documented fraud risk, mitigated by secure check handling. This is a valid way.
Option A (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three are ways organizations suffer from check fraud.
Option B (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item I is also a valid method.
Option C (I and III only): Incorrect, as Item II is also a valid method.
Option D (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item III is also a valid method.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlslists “check alteration, invalid payments to fraudulent vendors, and stolen checks” as common check fraud methods. It emphasizes controls like positive pay and secure check storage to mitigate these risks. The training video discusses check fraud scenarios, citing all three methods as prevalent in AP processes.
On a procurement card statement, which of the following levels of purchase detail is necessary in order to conduct spend analysis?
Level 1 detail
Level 2 detail
Level 3 detail
Level 4 detail
Procurement card (P-card) statements provide purchase data at different levels of detail. Level 3 detail includes comprehensive transaction information, such as itemized descriptions, quantities, unit prices, and merchant category codes, making it suitable for conducting spend analysis to track spending patterns and optimize procurement strategies. Level 1 provides basic data (e.g., merchant name, amount), and Level 2 includes additional data (e.g., tax amounts), but neither is sufficient for detailed analysis. Level 4 is not a standard term in P-card reporting.
The web source from Corcentric explains: “Level 3 data on P-card statements includes detailed transaction information, such as line-item details and quantities, enabling organizations to perform robust spend analysis.” This confirms that Level 3 detail (Option C) is necessary for spend analysis.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including P-card program management and reporting. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” supports the use of Level 3 data for effective spend analysis in P-card programs.
Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) payments are made based on the quantity reflected on which of the following?
Supplier Invoice
Purchase Order
Receiving Documents
Advanced Shipping Notice
Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) is a payment process that eliminates the need for a supplier invoice by triggering payments based on the purchase order (PO) and receiving documents. The quantity of goods received, as confirmed by the receiving documents (e.g., goods received note or delivery receipt), determines the payment amount, ensuring that payments reflect only what was actually delivered.
The web source from Esker states: “Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) is a procedure for paying suppliers without requiring a paper invoice from the supplier… Payments are triggered by the receipt of goods or services against a purchase order.” The Corcentric source further clarifies: “ERS uses the PO to establish the agreed-upon price and quantity, but the actual payment is based on the quantity received, as verified by the receiving documents.” This confirms that the receiving documents provide the critical data on the quantity delivered, which drives the ERS payment.
Supplier Invoice (A)is incorrect, as ERS eliminates the need for invoices.
Purchase Order (B)specifies the ordered quantity and price but does not confirm actualreceipt.
Advanced Shipping Notice (D)provides pre-delivery information but is not the final confirmation of received goods.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including ERS as a streamlined payment method. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the industry standard that ERS payments are based on receiving documents.
The general rule for determining independent contractor status looks at evidence in each of the following categories, EXCEPT:
The degree of control the employer exercises over the worker’s work results
The amount of control the employer has over the worker’s finances
The job title assigned to the worker
The type of relationship established between the parties
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers IRS guidelines for determining independent contractor status, critical for 1099 reporting and avoiding worker misclassification. The IRS uses three categories:Behavioral Control(degree of controlover work results),Financial Control(control over finances, e.g., payment terms, investment in tools), andType of Relationship(contract terms, permanency). Thejob titleassigned is not a factor, as status depends on actual work arrangements, not labels.
Option A (The degree of control the employer exercises over the worker’s work results): Part of Behavioral Control, assessing how much the employer directs the worker’s tasks. This is a valid category.
Option B (The amount of control the employer has over the worker’s finances): Part of Financial Control, evaluating payment methods, expense reimbursement, and worker investment. This is a valid category.
Option C (The job title assigned to the worker): Not a factor. The IRS focuses on the nature of the work relationship, not the title (e.g., “contractor” vs. “employee”). Correct answer.
Option D (The type of relationship established between the parties): Part of Type of Relationship, considering contracts, benefits, and permanency. This is a valid category.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “IRS independent contractor status is determined by Behavioral Control, Financial Control, and Type of Relationship, not by job titles, which are irrelevant to actual work arrangements.” The training video explains, “Job titles don’t determine contractor status; the IRS looks at control and relationship factors.”
Assigning a user name and password is one method of:
Optical character recognition
Robotic process automation
Data authentication
Security lockdown
Assigning a user name and password is a method ofdata authentication, which verifies the identity of users accessing systems or data to ensure only authorized individuals can perform actions. This is a fundamental security control in accounts payable to protect sensitive financial information. Optical character recognition (Option A) is used for extracting data from documents, robotic process automation (Option B) automates repetitive tasks, and security lockdown (Option D) refers to broader measures like restricting system access during a breach, not specifically user authentication.
The web source from Esker states: “Data authentication, such as assigning user names and passwords, ensures that only authorized personnel can access sensitive AP systems and data.” This directly supports Option C.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including security measures like authentication to protect AP processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with using user names and passwords as a standard authentication method.
To date, the Streamlined Sales Tax Project has accomplished which of the following? I. Resolved the origin vs. destination question; II. Implemented a uniform exemption certificate; III. Created rate and boundary databases.
I only
I, II, and III
II only
II and III only
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers the Streamlined Sales Tax Project (SSTP), initiated to simplify U.S. sales tax compliance across states. The SSTP has achieveda uniform exemption certificate(Item II) to standardize resale and other exemptions andrate and boundary databases(Item III) to provide accurate tax rates and jurisdictional boundaries. However, it has not fullyresolved the origin vs. destination question(Item I), as sourcing rules (origin-based vs. destination-based taxation) remain state-specific.
Item I (Resolved the origin vs. destination question): Not fully accomplished. The SSTP provides guidelines for sourcing, but states still choose between origin-based (tax based on seller’s location) and destination-based (tax based on buyer’s location) rules, creating variability.
Item II (Implemented a uniform exemption certificate): Accomplished. The SSTP developed a uniform Streamlined Sales and Use Tax Exemption Certificate, accepted by member states to simplify compliance.
Item III (Created rate and boundary databases): Accomplished. The SSTP provides centralized databases for tax rates and jurisdictional boundaries, aiding accurate tax calculations.
Option A (I only): Incorrect, as Item I is not fully accomplished.
Option B (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Item I is not fully accomplished.
Option C (II only): Incorrect, as Item III is also accomplished.
Option D (II and III only): Correct, as Items II and III are key SSTP achievements.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “The Streamlined Sales Tax Project has implemented a uniform exemption certificate and created rate and boundary databases to simplify compliance, but origin vs. destination sourcing remains variable across states.” The training video notes, “SSTP’s uniform certificate and tax databases are major achievements, though sourcing rules still differ by state.”
Which of the following are incentives for automating accounts payable?
I, II, and III (Reduced costs of handling paper; Better forecasting; Eliminating the need for audits)
I and III only (Reduced costs of handling paper; Eliminating the need for audits)
II and III only (Better forecasting; Eliminating the need for audits)
I and II only (Reduced costs of handling paper; Better forecasting)
Automating accounts payable (AP) processes offers several incentives, includingreduced costs of handling paper(Option I) through digital invoicing and workflows, andbetter forecasting(Option II) by providing real-time data for cash flow and spend analysis. However, automation does noteliminate the need for audits(Option III), as audits remain essential for compliance, fraud prevention, and internal controls, even with automated systems.
The web source from Esker states: “AP automation reduces costs associated with paper-based processes, such as printing and mailing, and improves forecasting by providing real-time visibility into financial data.” The Tipalti source adds: “Automation enhances efficiency but does not eliminate audits, which are still required for regulatory compliance.” This supports Options I and II, while ruling out Option III.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” emphasizing the benefits of AP automation. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with cost reduction and improved forecasting as key incentives, while maintaining the necessity of audits.
Which of the following are reasons an organization needs a sound records management plan? I. To afford some protection against lawsuits; II. To safeguard vital information; III. To analyze and manage expenditures.
III only
I and II only
I, II, and III
I only
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program highlights the importance of a sound records management plan for AP processes, particularly for compliance, security, and financialanalysis. A records management plan ensures that documents (e.g., invoices, vendor data) are organized, secure, and accessible, supporting legal protection, information security, and expenditure analysis.
Item I (To afford some protection against lawsuits): A records management plan ensures documentation is available to defend against legal claims, such as vendor disputes or audits, providing evidence of compliance. This is a valid reason.
Item II (To safeguard vital information): Records management protects sensitive data (e.g., vendor TINs, payment details) from loss or unauthorized access, ensuring confidentiality and compliance. This is a valid reason.
Item III (To analyze and manage expenditures): Records management enables AP to track and analyze spending patterns, supporting budgeting and cost control. This is a valid reason.
Option A (III only): Incorrect, as Items I and II are also valid reasons.
Option B (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item III is also a valid reason.
Option C (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three items are reasons for a sound records management plan.
Option D (I only): Incorrect, as Items II and III are also valid reasons.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “A sound records management plan protects against lawsuits by maintaining auditable records, safeguards vital information like vendor data, and enables expenditure analysis for cost management.” The training video discusses records management as a critical control, citing its role in legal compliance, data security, and financial oversight.
In the U.S., what type of information is HIPAA designed to protect?
Corporate whistleblower identities
External auditor findings
Private medical records
Electronic banking information
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers key U.S. regulations, including the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).Enacted in 1996, HIPAA is designed to protect the privacy and security ofprivate medical records, ensuring that protected health information (PHI) is safeguarded by healthcare providers, insurers, and related entities, including AP departments handling medical-related payments.
Option A (Corporate whistleblower identities): Incorrect. Whistleblower protections are covered under laws like the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, not HIPAA.
Option B (External auditor findings): Incorrect. Auditor findings are related to financial or operational audits, not protected by HIPAA.
Option C (Private medical records): Correct. HIPAA establishes standards to protect PHI, such as patient health records, from unauthorized disclosure.
Option D (Electronic banking information): Incorrect. Banking information is protected under laws like the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, not HIPAA.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “HIPAA protects private medical records, ensuring the confidentiality of protected health information (PHI) in transactions involving healthcare providers.” The training video mentions HIPAA in the context of AP compliance, noting that AP staff handling medical vendor payments must ensure PHI is secure.
What is an important reason an organization’s tolerance level for discrepancies between a PO and an invoice should be kept confidential?
To prevent vendor fraud
To keep procurement alert to not making mistakes
To avoid scrutiny by internal audit
To allow overages to be deposited into a secure fund for executive use
The tolerance level for discrepancies between a purchase order (PO) and an invoice refers to the acceptable variance (e.g., in price or quantity) that an organization allows before requiring additional approval or investigation. Keeping this tolerance level confidential is critical to prevent vendor fraud, as vendors could exploit knowledge of the tolerance to submit invoices with intentional discrepancies just within the acceptable range, leading to overpayments or unauthorized charges.
The web source from NetSuite highlights the importance of internal controls in invoice matching: “Three-way matching is an AP process used to verify a supplier invoice by checking it against its corresponding purchase order and order receipt. It reduces the chances of fraudulent invoices going undetected and, worse, being paid.” While this source does not explicitly address confidentiality of tolerance levels, the emphasis on fraud prevention implies that exposing tolerance thresholds could undermine these controls. If vendors know the tolerance, they might adjust invoices to exploit it, bypassing scrutiny.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect. Keeping procurement alert (Option B) is a general goal but not directly tied to confidentiality of tolerance levels. Avoiding internal audit scrutiny (Option C) is not a legitimate reason, as internal audits ensure compliance. Option D (depositing overages into a fund) is unethical and unrelated to accounts payable processes.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” which includes measures toprevent fraud and ensure accurate invoice processing. The program’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” and fraud prevention, as noted in the curriculum description, supports the need to keep tolerance levels confidential to safeguard against vendor manipulation.
Which of the following describes the possible consequences for anyone engaging in misconduct relating to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
Corporate dissolution
Criminal penalties
Industry blacklisting
Community service
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX), enacted in 2002 to enhance corporate governance and financial reporting accuracy. SOX imposes strict requirements on public companies and holds individuals (e.g., executives, accountants) accountable for misconduct, such as falsifying financial records or obstructing audits. Violations can result incriminal penalties, including fines and imprisonment, depending on the severity of the misconduct.
Option A (Corporate dissolution): While SOX violations can lead to significant financial and reputational damage, corporate dissolution (complete closure of the company) is not a direct legal consequence specified in the Act. This option is incorrect.
Option B (Criminal penalties): SOX includes provisions for criminal penalties, such as fines up to $5 million and imprisonment up to 20 years for willful violations (e.g., falsifying records under Section 802). This is the correct answer.
Option C (Industry blacklisting): There is no formal “industry blacklisting” mechanism in SOX. While individuals may face reputational damage or debarment from certain roles, this is not a legal consequence. This option is incorrect.
Option D (Community service): SOX does not prescribe community service as a penalty for misconduct. Penalties are financial or custodial (fines, imprisonment). This option is incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Complianceexplains that “the Sarbanes-Oxley Act imposes criminal penalties, including fines and imprisonment, for misconduct such as falsifying financial records or obstructing audits.” Thetraining video discusses SOX’s impact on AP, noting that internal controls must prevent fraudulent reporting to avoid penalties under sections like 906 (certification of financial reports) and 802 (document tampering).
TESTED 14 Sep 2025
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