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4A0-100 Nokia Scalable IP Networks Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Based on the network diagram (click on the exhibit), what is the command to use on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1

Options:

A.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 10.2.3.1 next-hop 192.168.2.0

C.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1

D.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Questions 5

Which statement best describes a SAP?

Options:

A.

The Service ATM Point is used for ATM connections to a PE.

B.

The Service Access Point is defined on the PE device and is the customers access to the service.

C.

The Service Access Point is defined on the P device and is the customers access to the service.

D.

The Service Access Point is defined on the CE device and is the customers access to the service.

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Questions 6

What type of BGP sessions does router R2 need to establish in order to reach network 192.168.5.0/27?

Options:

A.

An iBGP peering session with router R5, and an eBGP peering session with router R4

B.

iBGP peering sessions with routers R3 and R4

C.

An eBGP peering session with router R4

D.

An iBGP peering session with router R5

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Questions 7

A switch with the MAC FDB shown receives an Ethernet frame with source MAC address 00:00:8c:01:00:0a and destination MAC address 00:00:8c:01:00:0c. On which port is the frame forwarded?

Options:

A.

1/1/1

B.

1/1/2

C.

1/1/3

D.

1/1/4

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Questions 8

Which of the following is a function of the Link layer?

Options:

A.

It is responsible for encapsulating packets into frames for transmission on physical media

B.

It is responsible for encapsulating packets into IP datagrams and routing them

C.

It is responsible for encapsulating application data into TCP/UDP messages

D.

It is responsible for the timing of the signals on physical media.

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Questions 9

Public IP address spaces are distributed by which of the following organizations?

Options:

A.

Network Solutions INC

B.

IANA

C.

IETF

D.

ITU-T

E.

IEEE

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Questions 10

Which of the following is a private IP network address reserved by the IANA?

Options:

A.

172.30.0.0/16

B.

192.100.0.0/24

C.

172.0.0.0/16

D.

169.254.0.0/16

E.

11.0.0.0/8

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Questions 11

Which of the following is a File command in the File System context of the Command Line Interface (CLI)?

Options:

A.

time-display

B.

help

C.

type

D.

terminal

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Questions 12

Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customers traffic from that of another?

Options:

A.

The provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customers Layer 2 data.

B.

The PE switch replaces the customers VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag.

C.

The PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customers traffic on the carriers network.

D.

The PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customers traffic.

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Questions 13

Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?

Options:

A.

Same host numbers.

B.

Same IP address.

C.

First two bits of the IP address are set to 01.

D.

Same network prefix.

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Questions 14

How many of the front access card slots of the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router are dedicated for redundant common equipment?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

7

D.

10

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Questions 15

With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below are valid host addresses? (Choose all that apply)

Options:

A.

17.23.119.63

B.

87.99.12.159

C.

95.11.22.93

D.

192.11.25.87

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Questions 16

Which of the following is not supported on the Nokia 7450 ESS?

Options:

A.

Support for IPv6.

B.

Support for POS.

C.

Upgrade path to the Nokia 7750 SR.

D.

Support for IS-IS

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Questions 17

What is the sequence of messages sent by a host when it attempts to ping a destination for which it has no Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache entry?

Options:

A.

ICMP echo request, ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo reply.

B.

ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply.

C.

ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply, ARP request, ARP reply.

D.

ICMP echo request, ARP reply, ARP request, ICMP echo reply.

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Questions 18

What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

Options:

A.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

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Questions 19

Why is the address field in a PPP header always set to "11111111"?

Options:

A.

PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a broadcast.

B.

PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a multicast.

C.

PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field is fixed.

D.

PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field can change dynamically since every station is assigned a PPP address.

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Questions 20

How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?

Options:

A.

ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical separation of traffic.

B.

ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic type on the same physical wire.

C.

ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create logical separation of traffic.

D.

ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create logical separation of traffic.

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Questions 21

Which three of the following are important considerations when designing subnets? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Number of subnetworks currently required.

B.

Type of physical connectivity used by each segment.

C.

Future network growth requirements.

D.

Number of hosts each subnetwork will support.

E.

Class of the network address to be used for the network.

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Questions 22

A set of tasks that move a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network. This describes:

Options:

A.

IP routing.

B.

IP protocol.

C.

IP encapsulation.

D.

IP tunneling.

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Questions 23

What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

Options:

A.

A string of 1s

B.

A string of 0s

C.

A string of alternating 10s

D.

There is no specific bit pattern to identify the network address.

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Questions 24

Which of the following describes the Nokia 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)?

Options:

A.

Small optical module available in a variety of formats.

B.

Contains a CPU for managing the forwarding hardware in each flexible fast path.

C.

Converts traffic from an external standard format to an internal format.

D.

Contains the CPU that runs the routing protocol software as well as the switch fabric.

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Questions 25

Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which of the following is a valid host address when using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?

Options:

A.

116.14.17.16

B.

116.14.17.31

C.

116.14.17.192

D.

116.14.17.189

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Questions 26

You are configuring your Nokia 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control command allows you to do this quickly?

Options:

A.

Ctrl-z

B.

Ctrl-c

C.

Esc

D.

Shift-Page Down

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Questions 27

Why does UDP have less overhead than TCP?

Options:

A.

UDP has less overhead because it is only used for transmission of small amounts of data.

B.

UDP has less overhead then TCP because there is no checksum field in UDP.

C.

UDP overhead is the same as TCP because it uses the same fields in the header.

D.

UDP has less overhead because there is no requirement for acknowledgment or retransmission.

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Questions 28

In regards to the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router, how many of the front access card slots are dedicated for Control Processors?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

7

D.

10

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Questions 29

Which of the following describes a static default route?

Options:

A.

A routing entry, included in the RIB by default, that forwards packets with an unknown destination to the CPM for inspection.

B.

A manual entry used when the destination address of a network is not specifically listed in the routing table.

C.

A manual entry that matches a specific /32 host address using the least cost to the destination.

D.

A default entry in the FIB used when forwarding multicast and broadcast packets.

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Questions 30

Which of the following information can be seen within the FILE context of the SR 7x50? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

File sizes

B.

Port statistics

C.

Log-id 100 files

D.

TiMOS image files

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Questions 31

Which bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

Options:

A.

A string of consecutive 1's.

B.

A string of consecutive 0's.

C.

A string of alternating 10's.

D.

The network address is determined by masking the source address with a port's if Index binary representation.

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Questions 32

What is the purpose of the source and destination ports in the TCP header?

Options:

A.

These ports identify the physical location of the sender and the receiver on the IP router.

B.

These ports are used as addresses to communicate with the IP layer.

C.

TCP does not use source or destination ports.

D.

These ports are used as an address to identify the upper layer application using the TCP connection.

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Questions 33

Which of the following applications would be likely to use UDP?

Options:

A.

Real-time audio application, such as VoIP

B.

Web browser

C.

Email application

D.

Telnet

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Questions 34

Which of the following statements regarding TCP is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Sequence numbers are used to ensure that the data received is offered to the application in the correct order.

B.

The SYN flag is used to identify congestion in the network.

C.

The NACK flag is set on confirmation segments to acknowledge FCS errors.

D.

The window size is transmitted in all TCP segments to communicate MTU limitations of lower layer protocols to upper layer applications.

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Questions 35

Which application below would be likely to use UDP?

Options:

A.

Real-time audio application such as VoIP.

B.

Web browser.

C.

Email application.

D.

Telnet.

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Questions 36

Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels (Choose three.)?

Options:

A.

A series of labels from one LER to another LER represent a logical tunnel known as an LSP.

B.

Labels used for a LSP may be static but are usually signaled dynamically with an MPLS label signaling protocol.

C.

Labels are locally significant to the MPLS router which means its possible for two routers on the LSP path to use the same label.

D.

Labels are globally significant to the MPLS network which means all labels on the LSP path must be unique.

E.

Labels used for an LSP must be statically assigned by the service provider.

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Questions 37

Which two protocols are used for the dynamic signaling of MPLS labels (Choose two.)?

Options:

A.

RSVP-TE

B.

CSPF

C.

PNNI

D.

LDP

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Questions 38

Which of the following best describes an autonomous system?

Options:

A.

An autonomous system is a network or group of networks operating under one administrative authority.

B.

An autonomous system is another term for the collection of routers that make up the Internet

C.

An autonomous system is a network or group of networks from many organizations running different IGP routing protocols, but all running BGP.

D.

An autonomous system is a loosely defined term that can refer to any organization that has a connection to the Internet.

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Questions 39

Host A is transmitting data to host B on a TCP connection. What is the purpose of the ACK sent by host B?

Options:

A.

The ACK tells the host A that host B wishes to establish a session.

B.

The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the segment that was just received by host B.

C.

The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the next segment that host B expects to see.

D.

The ACK is flow control from host B and tells host A to reduce its transmission rate.

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Questions 40

Which of the following statements about route summarization is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It reduces the number of routes advertised by the router.

B.

It allows a single route table entry to represent multiple subnetworks

C.

It can reduce the size of the routing table in neighboring routers.

D.

It advertises more specific routes for routing advertisement stability.

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Questions 41

Which of the following is TRUE regarding routers R2 and R3 in the pictured MPLS network?

Options:

A.

Router R2 pushes labels for LSP A, and R3 swaps labels for LSP A.

B.

Router R2 swaps labels for LSP A, and R3 pops labels for LSP A.

C.

Router R2 and R3 swap labels for LSP A and LSP B.

D.

Router R2 and R3 push labels for LSP A and LSP B, respectively.

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Questions 42

Which of the following statements about the OSPF HELLO message is TRUE?

Options:

A.

It is used to maintain adjacency between neighbors.

B.

It is used to request link state updates from neighbors.

C.

It is used to deliver link state updates to neighbors.

D.

It is used to confirm delivery of updates between neighbors.

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Questions 43

Which of the following is NOT a function of the control plane?

Options:

A.

Building routing tables using dynamic routing protocols.

B.

Building forwarding tables for the IOMs.

C.

Handling router configuration and management functions.

D.

Processing and forwarding user application traffic.

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Questions 44

Which of the following statements about SDPs is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The same SDP ID can be used on multiple routers.

B.

Each service requires a unique SDP.

C.

SDPs are not configured on P routers.

D.

SDPs are not configured on CE devices.

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Questions 45

Which of the following involves grouping a number of routes with common prefixes into a single route advertisement?

Options:

A.

Hierarchical IP Addressing

B.

IP Address Subnetting

C.

Variable Length Subnet Masking

D.

IP Address Summarization

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Questions 46

From a customer’s perspective, how does a VPRN service operate?

Options:

A.

All sites are connected to a single wire.

B.

All sites are connected to a switched network.

C.

All sites are connected to a routed network.

D.

All sites are connected to the Internet.

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Questions 47

What happens when a switch receives an Ethernet frame with unknown source and destination MAC

addresses?

Options:

A.

The frame is silently discarded.

B.

The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is discarded.

C.

The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is flooded to all ports except the

receiving port.

D.

The source and destination MAC addresses are saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is flooded to all

ports.

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Questions 48

Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?

Options:

A.

Provides a connectionless data transmission service.

B.

Provides physical interconnection of network devices.

C.

Provides reliable transfers of data.

D.

Provides services equivalent to the OSI data link layer.

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Questions 49

Which of the following statements about ARP request and ARP response messages is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Both ARP request and response messages are unicast messages.

B.

Both ARP request and response messages are broadcast messages.

C.

An ARP request is a broadcast message, while an ARP response is a unicast message.

D.

An ARP request is a unicast message, while an ARP response is a broadcast message.

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Questions 50

Which of the following about the displayed IP filter is TRUE?

Options:

A.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic between addresses 1.2.3.0/24 and 2.3.4.0/24 is dropped.

B.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 1.2.3.0/24 to destination address 2.3.4.0/24 is forwarded.

C.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 2.3.4.0/24 to destination address 1.2.3.0/24 is dropped.

D.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 1.2.3.0/24 to destination address 2.3.4.0/24 is dropped.

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Questions 51

What is the function of Layer 2?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating packets into frames for transmission on physical media.

B.

Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating packets into IP datagrams and routing them.

C.

Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating application data into TCP/UDP messages.

D.

Layer 2 is responsible for the timing of the signals on physical media.

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Questions 52

Which of the following is a characteristic of Distance Vector protocols?

Options:

A.

Routers periodically send a copy of their table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers send triggered updates to the entire network.

C.

Routers know the entire network topology.

D.

Routers use Shortest Path First algorithm to calculate the optimum paths.

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Exam Code: 4A0-100
Exam Name: Nokia Scalable IP Networks
Last Update: May 15, 2024
Questions: 352

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