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350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

An organization has a Cisco ESA set up with policies and would like to customize the action assigned for

violations. The organization wants a copy of the message to be delivered with a message added to flag it as a

DLP violation. Which actions must be performed in order to provide this capability?

Options:

A.

deliver and send copies to other recipients

B.

quarantine and send a DLP violation notification

C.

quarantine and alter the subject header with a DLP violation

D.

deliver and add disclaimer text

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Questions 5

Which two parameters are used to prevent a data breach in the cloud? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DLP solutions

B.

strong user authentication

C.

encryption

D.

complex cloud-based web proxies

E.

antispoofing programs

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Questions 6

Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

350-701 Question 6

Options:

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Questions 7

Which Cisco firewall solution supports configuration via Cisco Policy Language?

Options:

A.

CBAC

B.

ZFW

C.

IPS

D.

NGFW

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Questions 8

An engineer must configure Cisco AMP for Endpoints so that it contains a list of files that should not be executed by users. These files must not be quarantined. Which action meets this configuration requirement?

Options:

A.

Identity the network IPs and place them in a blocked list.

B.

Modify the advanced custom detection list to include these files.

C.

Create an application control blocked applications list.

D.

Add a list for simple custom detection.

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Questions 9

Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?

Options:

A.

To view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the QoS feature must be enabled.

B.

A sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface.

C.

NSEL can be used without a collector configured.

D.

A flow-export event type must be defined under a policy

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Questions 10

What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?

Options:

A.

You can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment

B.

It provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances

C.

It provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages

D.

It provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud

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Questions 11

Which technology provides the benefit of Layer 3 through Layer 7 innovative deep packet inspection,

enabling the platform to identify and output various applications within the network traffic flows?

Options:

A.

Cisco NBAR2

B.

Cisco ASAV

C.

Account on Resolution

D.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

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Questions 12

After a recent breach, an organization determined that phishing was used to gain initial access to the network before regaining persistence. The information gained from the phishing attack was a result of users visiting known malicious websites. What must be done in order to prevent this from happening in the future?

Options:

A.

Modify an access policy

B.

Modify identification profiles

C.

Modify outbound malware scanning policies

D.

Modify web proxy settings

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Questions 13

A company discovered an attack propagating through their network via a file. A custom file policy was created in order to track this in the future and ensure no other endpoints execute the infected file. In addition, it was discovered during testing that the scans are not detecting the file as an indicator of compromise. What must be done in order to ensure that the created is functioning as it should?

Options:

A.

Create an IP block list for the website from which the file was downloaded

B.

Block the application that the file was using to open

C.

Upload the hash for the file into the policy

D.

Send the file to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic analysis

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Questions 14

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 14

What does the API do when connected to a Cisco security appliance?

Options:

A.

get the process and PID information from the computers in the network

B.

create an SNMP pull mechanism for managing AMP

C.

gather network telemetry information from AMP for endpoints

D.

gather the network interface information about the computers AMP sees

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Questions 15

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites

but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

Options:

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

D.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy

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Questions 16

Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?

Options:

A.

Nexus

B.

Stealthwatch

C.

Firepower

D.

Tetration

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Questions 17

An organization wants to use Cisco FTD or Cisco ASA devices. Specific URLs must be blocked from being

accessed via the firewall which requires that the administrator input the bad URL categories that the

organization wants blocked into the access policy. Which solution should be used to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Cisco ASA because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco FTDdoes not

B.

Cisco ASA because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not

C.

Cisco FTD because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco FTD because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco ASA does not

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Questions 18

Which statement describes a traffic profile on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

Options:

A.

It allows traffic if it does not meet the profile.

B.

It defines a traffic baseline for traffic anomaly deduction.

C.

It inspects hosts that meet the profile with more intrusion rules.

D.

It blocks traffic if it does not meet the profile.

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Questions 19

Which two Cisco ISE components must be configured for BYOD? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

local WebAuth

B.

central WebAuth

C.

null WebAuth

D.

guest

E.

dual

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Questions 20

What is a difference between an XSS attack and an SQL injection attack?

Options:

A.

SQL injection is a hacking method used to attack SQL databases, whereas XSS attacks can exist in many different types of applications

B.

XSS is a hacking method used to attack SQL databases, whereas SQL injection attacks can exist in many different types of applications

C.

SQL injection attacks are used to steal information from databases whereas XSS attacks are used toredirect users to websites where attackers can steal data from them

D.

XSS attacks are used to steal information from databases whereas SQL injection attacks are used toredirect users to websites where attackers can steal data from them

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Questions 21

An engineer recently completed the system setup on a Cisco WSA Which URL information does the system send to SensorBase Network servers?

Options:

A.

Summarized server-name information and MD5-hashed path information

B.

complete URL,without obfuscating the path segments

C.

URL information collected from clients that connect to the Cisco WSA using Cisco AnyConnect

D.

none because SensorBase Network Participation is disabled by default

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Questions 22

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

B.

Connect to ITSM platforms

C.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

D.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

E.

Third party reporting

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Questions 23

350-701 Question 23

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an incoming mail policy so that each email sent from usera1@example.com to a domain of @cisco.com is scanned for antispam and advanced malware protection. All other settings will use the default behavior. What must be configured in the incoming mail policy to meet the requirements?

Options:

A.

Policy Name: Default Policy

  Sender: usera1@example.com

  Recipient: @cisco.com

B.

Policy Name: usera1 policy

  Sender: usera1@example.com

  Recipient: @cisco.com

C.

Policy Name: Anti-Malware policy

  Sender: usera1@example.com

  Recipient: @cisco.com

D.

Policy Name: cisco.com policy

  Sender: usera1@example.com

  Recipient: @cisco.com

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Questions 24

Which component of Cisco umbrella architecture increases reliability of the service?

Options:

A.

Anycast IP

B.

AMP Threat grid

C.

Cisco Talos

D.

BGP route reflector

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Questions 25

In which two customer environments is the Cisco Secure Web Appliance Virtual connector traffic direction method selected? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Customer needs to support roaming users.

B.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Transparent Redirection (WCCP).

C.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and Virtual Form Factor is required.

D.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Explicit Proxy.

E.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and SSL Tunneling is required.

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Questions 26

350-701 Question 26

Refer to the exhibit. All servers are in the same VLAN/Subnet. DNS Server-1 and DNS Server-2 must communicate with each other, and all servers must communicate with default gateway multilayer switch. Which type of private VLAN ports should be configured to prevent communication between DNS servers and the file server?

Options:

A.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as community port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as isolated port, and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4 as promiscuous ports.

B.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as community port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as promiscuous port, Gigabit Ethernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4 as isolated ports C. Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as promiscuous port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as isolated port and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GrgabitEthernet0/4 as community ports

C.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as promiscuous port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as community port, and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GrgabitEthernet0/4 as isolated ports.

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Questions 27

350-701 Question 27

Refer to the exhibit. Consider that any feature of DNS requests, such as the length of the domain name and the number of subdomains, can be used to construct models of expected behavior to which observed values can be compared. Which type of malicious attack are these values associated with?

Options:

A.

W32/AutoRun worm

B.

HeartBleed SSL Bug

C.

Spectre Worm

D.

Eternal Blue Windows

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Questions 28

Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the

deployment?

Options:

A.

NGFW

B.

AMP

C.

WSA

D.

ESA

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Questions 29

A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer connections that were authorized using MAB on

four different switch ports at the same time. What two catalyst switch security features will prevent further

violations? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DHCP Snooping

B.

802.1AE MacSec

C.

Port security

D.

IP Device track

E.

Dynamic ARP inspection

F.

Private VLANs

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Questions 30

A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet Extranet and Internet, with a

proxy configuration running in explicit mode. Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured

to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

Options:

A.

Transport mode

B.

Forward file

C.

PAC file

D.

Bridge mode

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Questions 31

What is a benefit of flexible NetFlow records?

Options:

A.

They are used for security

B.

They are used for accounting

C.

They monitor a packet from Layer 2 to Layer 5

D.

They have customized traffic identification

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Questions 32

What is the purpose of the Cisco Endpoint loC feature?

Options:

A.

It provides stealth threat prevention.

B.

lt is a signature-based engine.

C.

lt is an incident response tool

D.

It provides precompromise detection.

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Questions 33

An engineer is configuring cloud logging on Cisco ASA and needs events to compress. Which component must be configured to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

CDO event viewer

B.

SWC service

C.

Cisco analytics

D.

SDC VM

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Questions 34

Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

phishing

B.

brute force

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

DDOS

E.

teardrop

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Questions 35

Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System?

Options:

A.

Correlation

B.

Intrusion

C.

Access Control

D.

Network Discovery

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Questions 36

Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

accounting

B.

assurance

C.

automation

D.

authentication

E.

encryption

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Questions 37

Drag and drop the features of Cisco ASA with Firepower from the left onto the benefits on the right.

350-701 Question 37

Options:

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Questions 38

What is the difference between EPP and EDR?

Options:

A.

EPP focuses primarily on threats that have evaded front-line defenses that entered the environment.

B.

Having an EPP solution allows an engineer to detect, investigate, and remediate modern threats.

C.

EDR focuses solely on prevention at the perimeter.

D.

Having an EDR solution gives an engineer the capability to flag offending files at the first sign of malicious behavior.

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Questions 39

Which API is used for Content Security?

Options:

A.

NX-OS API

B.

IOS XR API

C.

OpenVuln API

D.

AsyncOS API

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Questions 40

A network engineer is trying to figure out whether FlexVPN or DMVPN would fit better in their environment.

They have a requirement for more stringent security multiple security associations for the connections, more efficient VPN establishment as well consuming less bandwidth. Which solution would be best for this and why?

Options:

A.

DMVPN because it supports IKEv2 and FlexVPN does not

B.

FlexVPN because it supports IKEv2 and DMVPN does not

C.

FlexVPN because it uses multiple SAs and DMVPN does not

D.

DMVPN because it uses multiple SAs and FlexVPN does not

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Questions 41

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices. The default management

port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed. What must be done to ensure

that all devices can communicate together?

Options:

A.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

B.

Set the tunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

C.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTDdevices

D.

Set the tunnel port to 8305

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Questions 42

What does the Cloudlock Apps Firewall do to mitigate security concerns from an application perspective?

Options:

A.

It allows the administrator to quarantine malicious files so that the application can function, just notmaliciously.

B.

It discovers and controls cloud apps that are connected to a company’s corporate environment.

C.

It deletes any application that does not belong in the network.

D.

It sends the application information to an administrator to act on.

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Questions 43

Which two capabilities does an MDM provide? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

delivery of network malware reports to an inbox in a schedule

B.

unified management of mobile devices, Macs, and PCs from a centralized dashboard

C.

enforcement of device security policies from a centralized dashboard

D.

manual identification and classification of client devices

E.

unified management of Android and Apple devices from a centralized dashboard

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Questions 44

An organization deploys multiple Cisco FTD appliances and wants to manage them using one centralized

solution. The organization does not have a local VM but does have existing Cisco ASAs that must migrate over

to Cisco FTDs. Which solution meets the needs of the organization?

Options:

A.

Cisco FMC

B.

CSM

C.

Cisco FDM

D.

CDO

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Questions 45

What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

B.

The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

C.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

D.

The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

E.

When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA's own IP address as the HTTP request destination.

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Questions 46

What is a feature of an endpoint detection and response solution?

Options:

A.

Preventing attacks by identifying harmful events with machine learning and conduct-based defense

B.

Rapidly and consistently observing and examining data to mitigate threats

C.

Capturing and clarifying data on email, endpoints, and servers to mitigate threats

D.

Ensuring the security of network devices by choosing which devices are allowed to reach the network

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Questions 47

An administrator enables Cisco Threat Intelligence Director on a Cisco FMC. Which process uses STIX and allows uploads and downloads of block lists?

Options:

A.

consumption

B.

sharing

C.

editing

D.

authoring

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Questions 48

A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom detection policy to add specific MD5 signatures The configuration is created in the simple detection policy section, but it does not work What is the reason for this failure?

Options:

A.

The administrator must upload the file instead of the hash for Cisco AMP to use.

B.

The MD5 hash uploaded to the simple detection policy is in the incorrect format

C.

The APK must be uploaded for the application that the detection is intended

D.

Detections for MD5 signatures must be configured in the advanced custom detection policies

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Questions 49

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the right.

350-701 Question 49

Options:

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Questions 50

What is the most commonly used protocol for network telemetry?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TFTP

D.

NctFlow

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Questions 51

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 51

What will occur when this device tries to connect to the port?

Options:

A.

802.1X will not work, but MAB will start and allow the device on the network.

B.

802.1X will not work and the device will not be allowed network access

C.

802 1X will work and the device will be allowed on the network

D.

802 1X and MAB will both be used and ISE can use policy to determine the access level

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Questions 52

What is a function of the Layer 4 Traffic Monitor on a Cisco WSA?

Options:

A.

blocks traffic from URL categories that are known to contain malicious content

B.

decrypts SSL traffic to monitor for malicious content

C.

monitors suspicious traffic across all the TCP/UDP ports

D.

prevents data exfiltration by searching all the network traffic for specified sensitive information

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Questions 53

Why is it important to implement MFA inside of an organization?

Options:

A.

To prevent man-the-middle attacks from being successful.

B.

To prevent DoS attacks from being successful.

C.

To prevent brute force attacks from being successful.

D.

To prevent phishing attacks from being successful.

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Questions 54

Which two request methods of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

GET

B.

CONNECT

C.

PUSH

D.

OPTIONS

E.

PUT

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Questions 55

Which type of API is being used when a controller within a software-defined network architecture dynamically

makes configuration changes on switches within the network?

Options:

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

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Questions 56

How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?

Options:

A.

It delivers visibility and threat detection.

B.

It prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.

C.

It assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers.

D.

It facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.

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Questions 57

What is a prerequisite when integrating a Cisco ISE server and an AD domain?

Options:

A.

Place the Cisco ISE server and the AD server in the same subnet

B.

Configure a common administrator account

C.

Configure a common DNS server

D.

Synchronize the clocks of the Cisco ISE server and the AD server

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Questions 58

An administrator is adding a new switch onto the network and has configured AAA for network access control. When testing the configuration, the RADIUS authenticates to Cisco ISE but is being rejected. Why is the ip radius source-interface command needed for this configuration?

Options:

A.

Only requests that originate from a configured NAS IP are accepted by a RADIUS server

B.

The RADIUS authentication key is transmitted only from the defined RADIUS source interface

C.

RADIUS requests are generated only by a router if a RADIUS source interface is defined.

D.

Encrypted RADIUS authentication requires the RADIUS source interface be defined

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Questions 59

A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

B.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

C.

It forwards the packet without validation.

D.

It drops the packet without validation.

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Questions 60

Which system facilitates deploying microsegmentation and multi-tenancy services with a policy-based container?

Options:

A.

SDLC

B.

Docker

C.

Lambda

D.

Contiv

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Questions 61

An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the

endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE. Which CoA type achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

Port Bounce

B.

CoA Terminate

C.

CoA Reauth

D.

CoA Session Query

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Questions 62

How does a WCCP-configured router identify if the Cisco WSA is functional?

Options:

A.

If an ICMP ping fails three consecutive times between a router and the WSA, traffic is no longer transmitted to the router.

B.

If an ICMP ping fails three consecutive times between a router and the WSA, traffic is no longertransmitted to the WSA.

C.

The WSA sends a Here-l-Am message every 10 seconds, and the router acknowledges with an ISee-You message.

D.

The router sends a Here-l-Am message every 10 seconds, and the WSA acknowledges with an ISee-You message.

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Questions 63

A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256

cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1. Which command achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 myv3

C.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 andy

D.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 myv3

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Questions 64

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a Cisco ISE server to implement external authentication against Active Directory. What must be considered about the authentication requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RADIUS communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

B.

The ISE account must be a domain administrator in Active Directory to perform JOIN operations.

C.

Active Directory only supports user authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

D.

LDAP communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

E.

Active Directory supports user and machine authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

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Questions 65

Which VPN provides scalability for organizations with many remote sites?

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

site-to-site iPsec

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GRE over IPsec

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Questions 66

Where are individual sites specified to be block listed in Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

Application settings

B.

Security settings

C.

Destination lists

D.

Content categories

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Questions 67

What is the function of the crypto is a kmp key cisc406397954 address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command when establishing an IPsec VPN tunnel?

Options:

A.

It defines what data is going to be encrypted via the VPN

B.

lt configures the pre-shared authentication key

C.

It prevents all IP addresses from connecting to the VPN server.

D.

It configures the local address for the VPN server.

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Questions 68

Which VPN technology supports a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

Options:

A.

FlexVPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GET VPN

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Questions 69

An organization wants to reduce their attach surface for cloud applications. They want to understand application communications, detect abnormal application Behavior, and detect vulnerabilities within the applications. Which action accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Configure Cisco Secure Workload to detect anomalies and vulnerabilities.

B.

Use Cisco ISE to provide application visibility and restrict access to them.

C.

Implement Cisco Umbrella lo control the access each application is granted.

D.

Modify the Cisco Duo configuration to restrict access between applications.

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Questions 70

A network engineer must migrate a Cisco WSA virtual appliance from one physical host to another physical host by using VMware vMotion. What is a requirement for both physical hosts?

Options:

A.

The hosts must run Cisco AsyncOS 10.0 or greater.

B.

The hosts must run different versions of Cisco AsyncOS.

C.

The hosts must have access to the same defined network.

D.

The hosts must use a different datastore than the virtual appliance.

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Questions 71

Drag and drop the security responsibilities from the left onto the corresponding cloud service models on the right.

350-701 Question 71

Options:

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Questions 72

Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?

Options:

A.

Sensitive data must remain onsite.

B.

Demand is unpredictable.

C.

The server team wants to outsource this service.

D.

ESA is deployed inline.

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Questions 73

An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast

packets have been flooding the network. What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to

address this issue?

Options:

A.

Bridge Protocol Data Unit guard

B.

embedded event monitoring

C.

storm control

D.

access control lists

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Questions 74

350-701 Question 74

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is implementing a certificate-based VPN. What is the result of the existing configuration?

Options:

A.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is encrypted when the OU is set to MANGLER.

B.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is used as the identity when matching an IKEv2 authorization policy.

C.

Only an IKEv2 peer that has an OU certificate attribute set to MANGLER establishes an IKEv2 SA successfully.

D.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is set to MANGLER.

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Questions 75

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch

D.

Cisco Tetration

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Questions 76

An organization is using DNS services for their network and want to help improve the security of the DNS infrastructure. Which action accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Use DNSSEC between the endpoints and Cisco Umbrella DNS servers.

B.

Modify the Cisco Umbrella configuration to pass queries only to non-DNSSEC capable zones.

C.

Integrate Cisco Umbrella with Cisco CloudLock to ensure that DNSSEC is functional.

D.

Configure Cisco Umbrella and use DNSSEC for domain authentication to authoritative servers.

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Questions 77

In an IaaS cloud services model, which security function is the provider responsible for managing?

Options:

A.

Internet proxy

B.

firewalling virtual machines

C.

CASB

D.

hypervisor OS hardening

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Questions 78

Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared and jointly accessed by several organizations from a specific group?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

Community

C.

Private

D.

Public

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Questions 79

How does Cisco Workload Optimization portion of the network do EPP solutions solely performance issues?

Options:

A.

It deploys an AWS Lambda system

B.

It automates resource resizing

C.

It optimizes a flow path

D.

It sets up a workload forensic score

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Questions 80

The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network?

Options:

A.

SDN controller and the cloud

B.

management console and the SDN controller

C.

management console and the cloud

D.

SDN controller and the management solution

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Questions 81

An engineer needs behavioral analysis to detect malicious activity on the hosts, and is configuring the

organization’s public cloud to send telemetry using the cloud provider’s mechanisms to a security device. Which

mechanism should the engineer configure to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

mirror port

B.

Flow

C.

NetFlow

D.

VPC flow logs

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Questions 82

Why should organizations migrate to a multifactor authentication strategy?

Options:

A.

Multifactor authentication methods of authentication are never compromised

B.

Biometrics authentication leads to the need for multifactor authentication due to its ability to be hacked easily

C.

Multifactor authentication does not require any piece of evidence for an authentication mechanism

D.

Single methods of authentication can be compromised more easily than multifactor authentication

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Questions 83

What is the recommendation in a zero-trust model before granting access to corporate applications and resources?

Options:

A.

To use a wired network, not wireless

B.

To use strong passwords

C.

To use multifactor authentication

D.

To disconnect from the network when inactive

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Questions 84

An engineer needs a cloud solution that will monitor traffic, create incidents based on events, and integrate with

other cloud solutions via an API. Which solution should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

CASB

C.

Adaptive MFA

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

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Questions 85

An engineer is trying to decide between using L2TP or GRE over IPsec for their site-to-site VPN implementation. What must be un solution?

Options:

A.

L2TP is an IP packet encapsulation protocol, and GRE over IPsec is a tunneling protocol.

B.

L2TP uses TCP port 47 and GRE over IPsec uses UDP port 1701.

C.

GRE over IPsec adds its own header, and L2TP does not.

D.

GRE over IPsec cannot be used as a standalone protocol, and L2TP can.

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Questions 86

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to deploy it in transparent mode. Which configuration component must be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

MDA on the router

B.

PBR on Cisco WSA

C.

WCCP on switch

D.

DNS resolution on Cisco WSA

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Questions 87

What are two characteristics of Cisco Catalyst Center APIs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Postman is required to utilize Cisco Catalyst Center API calls.

B.

They are Cisco proprietary.

C.

They do not support Python scripts.

D.

They view the overall health of the network.

E.

They quickly provision new devices.

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Questions 88

Which two components do southbound APIs use to communicate with downstream devices? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

services running over the network

B.

OpenFlow

C.

external application APIs

D.

applications running over the network

E.

OpFlex

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Questions 89

Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Accounting

D.

DNS

E.

Provision

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Questions 90

Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination?

Options:

A.

AAA attributes

B.

CoA request

C.

AV pair

D.

carrier-grade NAT

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Questions 91

An engineer needs to configure a Cisco Secure Email Gateway (SEG) to prompt users to enter multiple forms of identification before gaining access to the SEG. The SEG must also join a cluster using the preshared key of cisc421555367. What steps must be taken to support this?

Options:

A.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server, and then join the cluster via the SEG GUI.

B.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server, and then join the cluster via the SEG CLI.

C.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server, and then join the cluster via the SEG CLI

D.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server, and then join the cluster via the SEG GUI.

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Questions 92

Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

Options:

A.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 privasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 noauthasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

C.

asa-host(config)#snmpserver group myv3 v3 noauthasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv 3des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

D.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 privasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

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Questions 93

What are two functions of IKEv1 but not IKEv2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NAT-T is supported in IKEv1 but rot in IKEv2.

B.

With IKEv1, when using aggressive mode, the initiator and responder identities are passed cleartext

C.

With IKEv1, mode negotiates faster than main mode

D.

IKEv1 uses EAP authentication

E.

IKEv1 conversations are initiated by the IKE_SA_INIT message

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Questions 94

What is the primary difference between an Endpoint Protection Platform and an Endpoint Detection and

Response?

Options:

A.

EPP focuses on prevention, and EDR focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses.

B.

EDR focuses on prevention, and EPP focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses.

C.

EPP focuses on network security, and EDR focuses on device security.

D.

EDR focuses on network security, and EPP focuses on device security.

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Questions 95

Which cloud service offering allows customers to access a web application that is being hosted, managed, and maintained by a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

IaC

B.

SaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

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Questions 96

In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint Protection Platform?

Options:

A.

When there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities

B.

When there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection

C.

When there is no need to have the solution centrally managed

D.

When there is no firewall on the network

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Questions 97

What are two benefits of using an MDM solution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device

B.

provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users

C.

native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or on-premises environments

D.

encrypts data that is stored on endpoints

E.

allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations

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Questions 98

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 98

What does the API key do while working with https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?

Options:

A.

displays client ID

B.

HTTP authorization

C.

Imports requests

D.

HTTP authentication

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Questions 99

An organization wants to secure data in a cloud environment. Its security model requires that all users be

authenticated and authorized. Security configuration and posture must be continuously validated before access is granted or maintained to applications and data. There is also a need to allow certain application traffic and deny all other traffic by default. Which technology must be used to implement these requirements?

Options:

A.

Virtual routing and forwarding

B.

Microsegmentation

C.

Access control policy

D.

Virtual LAN

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Questions 100

What is a capability of Cisco ASA Netflow?

Options:

A.

It filters NSEL events based on traffic

B.

It generates NSEL events even if the MPF is not configured

C.

It logs all event types only to the same collector

D.

It sends NetFlow data records from active and standby ASAs in an active standby failover pair

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Questions 101

In which scenario is endpoint-based security the solution?

Options:

A.

inspecting encrypted traffic

B.

device profiling and authorization

C.

performing signature-based application control

D.

inspecting a password-protected archive

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Questions 102

Which Cisco ASA deployment model is used to filter traffic between hosts in the same IP subnet using higher-level protocols without readdressing the network?

Options:

A.

routed mode

B.

transparent mode

C.

single context mode

D.

multiple context mode

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Questions 103

An engineer needs to detect and quarantine a file named abc424400664 zip based on the MD5 signature of the file using the Outbreak Control list feature within Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints The configured detection method must work on files of unknown disposition Which Outbreak Control list must be configured to provide this?

Options:

A.

Blocked Application

B.

Simple Custom Detection

C.

Advanced Custom Detection

D.

Android Custom Detection

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Questions 104

What is the difference between EPP and EDR?

Options:

A.

EDR focuses solely on prevention at the perimeter.

B.

Having an EPP solution allows an engineer to detect, investigate, and remediate modern threats.

C.

Having an EDR solution gives an engineer the capability to flag offending files at the first sign of malicious behavior.

D.

EPP focuses primarily on threats that have evaded front-line defenses that entered the environment.

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Questions 105

Which open standard creates a framework for sharing threat intelligence in a machine-digestible format?

Options:

A.

OpenC2

B.

OpenlOC

C.

CybOX

D.

STIX

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Questions 106

What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?

Options:

A.

authenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX

B.

authenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX

C.

authenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX

D.

secures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX

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Questions 107

Which feature is leveraged by advanced antimalware capabilities to be an effective endpomt protection platform?

Options:

A.

big data

B.

storm centers

C.

sandboxing

D.

blocklisting

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Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 108

When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating on the Cisco ASA, an administrator would like to utilize an external token authentication mechanism in conjunction with AAA authentication using machine

certificates. Which configuration item must be modified to allow this?

Options:

A.

Group Policy

B.

Method

C.

SAML Server

D.

DHCP Servers

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Questions 109

After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach their destinations.

Which task can you perform to determine where each message was lost?

Options:

A.

Configure the trackingconfig command to enable message tracking.

B.

Generate a system report.

C.

Review the log files.

D.

Perform a trace.

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Questions 110

An engineer must configure AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Web Appliance to push log files to a syslog server using the SCP retrieval method. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to complete the configuration.

350-701 Question 110

Options:

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Questions 111

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

Options:

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

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Questions 112

What is the term for when an endpoint is associated to a provisioning WLAN that is shared with guest

access, and the same guest portal is used as the BYOD portal?

Options:

A.

single-SSID BYOD

B.

multichannel GUI

C.

dual-SSID BYOD

D.

streamlined access

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Questions 113

A company identified a phishing vulnerability during a pentest What are two ways the company can protect employees from the attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

using Cisco Umbrella

B.

using Cisco ESA

C.

using Cisco FTD

D.

using an inline IPS/IDS in the network

E.

using Cisco ISE

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Questions 114

Which two actions does the Cisco ISE posture module provide that ensures endpoint security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A centralized management solution is deployed.

B.

Patch management remediation is performed.

C.

The latest antivirus updates are applied before access is allowed.

D.

Assignments to endpoint groups are made dynamically, based on endpoint attributes.

E.

Endpoint supplicant configuration is deployed.

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Questions 115

An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to accept the server’s authentication key?

Options:

A.

ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1

B.

ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1

C.

ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1

D.

ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

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Questions 116

What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Can track ingress and egress information

B.

Include the flow record and the flow importer

C.

Copies all ingress flow information to an interface

D.

Does not required packet sampling on interfaces

E.

Can be used to track multicast, MPLS, or bridged traffic

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Questions 117

Which service allows a user to export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility and Control?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

802.1X

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNORT

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Questions 118

Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System?

Options:

A.

Security Intelligence

B.

Impact Flags

C.

Health Monitoring

D.

URL Filtering

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Questions 119

A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on-premise. The

company needs to be able to protect sensitive data throughout the full environment. Which tool should be used

to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Security Manager

B.

Cloudlock

C.

Web Security Appliance

D.

Cisco ISE

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Questions 120

Which term describes when the Cisco Firepower downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Talos?

Options:

A.

consumption

B.

sharing

C.

analysis

D.

authoring

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Questions 121

An attacker needs to perform reconnaissance on a target system to help gain access to it. The system has weak passwords, no encryption on the VPN links, and software bugs on the system’s applications. Which

vulnerability allows the attacker to see the passwords being transmitted in clear text?

Options:

A.

weak passwords for authentication

B.

unencrypted links for traffic

C.

software bugs on applications

D.

improper file security

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Questions 122

Why is it important for the organization to have an endpoint patching strategy?

Options:

A.

so the organization can identify endpoint vulnerabilities

B.

so the internal PSIRT organization is aware of the latest bugs

C.

so the network administrator is notified when an existing bug is encountered

D.

so the latest security fixes are installed on the endpoints

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Questions 123

Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat?

Options:

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

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Questions 124

A network engineer has configured a NTP server on a Cisco ASA. The Cisco ASA has IP reachability to the

NTP server and is not filtering any traffic. The show ntp association detail command indicates that the

configured NTP server is unsynchronized and has a stratum of 16. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

Resynchronization of NTP is not forced

B.

NTP is not configured to use a working server.

C.

An access list entry for UDP port 123 on the inside interface is missing.

D.

An access list entry for UDP port 123 on the outside interface is missing.

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Questions 125

What is the result of the ACME-Router(config)#login block-for 100 attempts 4 within 60 command on a Cisco IOS router?

Options:

A.

lf four log in attempts fail in 100 seconds, wait for 60 seconds to next log in prompt.

B.

After four unsuccessful log in attempts, the line is blocked for 100 seconds and only permit IP addresses are permitted in ACL

C.

After four unsuccessful log in attempts, the line is blocked for 60 seconds and only permit IP addresses are permitted in ACL1

D.

If four failures occur in 60 seconds, the router goes to quiet mode for 100 seconds.

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Questions 126

Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?

Options:

A.

Google Cloud Platform

B.

Red Hat Enterprise Visualization

C.

VMware ESXi

D.

Amazon Web Services

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Questions 127

How does Cisco AMP for Endpoints provide next-generation protection?

Options:

A.

It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware.

B.

It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response.

C.

It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Cisco AMP to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers.

D.

It integrates with Cisco FTD devices.

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Questions 128

Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?

Options:

A.

structured threat information expression

B.

advanced persistent threat

C.

trusted automated exchange or indicator information

D.

open command and control

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Questions 129

What is the process In DevSecOps where all changes In the central code repository are merged and synchronized?

Options:

A.

CD

B.

EP

C.

CI

D.

QA

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Questions 130

A Cisco ISE engineer configures Central Web Authentication (CWA) for wireless guest access and must have the guest endpoints redirect to the guest portal for authentication and authorization. While testing the policy, the engineer notices that the device is not redirected and instead gets full guest access. What must be done for the redirect to work?

Options:

A.

Tag the guest portal in the CWA part of the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

B.

Use the track movement option within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

C.

Create an advanced attribute setting of Cisco:cisco-gateway-id=guest within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

D.

Add the DACL name for the Airespace ACL configured on the WLC in the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

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Questions 131

An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

Options:

A.

Use security services to configure the traffic monitor, .

B.

Use URL categorization to prevent the application traffic.

C.

Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.

D.

Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality

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Questions 132

Which action configures the IEEE 802.1X Flexible Authentication feature lo support Layer 3 authentication mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Identity the devices using this feature and create a policy that allows them to pass Layer 2 authentication.

B.

Configure WebAuth so the hosts are redirected to a web page for authentication.

C.

Modify the Dot1x configuration on the VPN server lo send Layer 3 authentications to an external authentication database

D.

Add MAB into the switch to allow redirection to a Layer 3 device for authentication.

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Questions 133

What is the term for the concept of limiting communication between applications or containers on the same node?

Options:

A.

container orchestration

B.

software-defined access

C.

microservicing

D.

microsegmentation

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Questions 134

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right.

350-701 Question 134

Options:

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Questions 135

What is the purpose of CA in a PKI?

Options:

A.

To issue and revoke digital certificates

B.

To validate the authenticity of a digital certificate

C.

To create the private key for a digital certificate

D.

To certify the ownership of a public key by the named subject

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Questions 136

What is the process of performing automated static and dynamic analysis of files against preloaded

behavioral indicators for threat analysis?

Options:

A.

deep visibility scan

B.

point-in-time checks

C.

advanced sandboxing

D.

advanced scanning

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Questions 137

Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transparent mode are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It can handle explicit HTTP requests.

B.

It requires a PAC file for the client web browser.

C.

It requires a proxy for the client web browser.

D.

WCCP v2-enabled devices can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

E.

Layer 4 switches can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

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Questions 138

How is a cross-site scripting attack executed?

Options:

A.

Force a currently authenticated end user to execute unwanted actions on a web app

B.

Execute malicious client-side scripts injected to a client via a web app

C.

Inject a database query via the input data from the client to a web app

D.

Intercept communications between a client and a web server

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Questions 139

An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA. Which Cisco ASA

command must be used?

Options:

A.

flow-export destination inside 1.1.1.1 2055

B.

ip flow monitor input

C.

ip flow-export destination 1.1.1.1 2055

D.

flow exporter

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Questions 140

What is the purpose of the Trusted Automated exchange cyber threat intelligence industry standard?

Options:

A.

public collection of threat intelligence feeds

B.

threat intelligence sharing organization

C.

language used to represent security information

D.

service used to exchange security information

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Questions 141

An engineer needs to configure an access control policy rule to always send traffic for inspection without

using the default action. Which action should be configured for this rule?

Options:

A.

monitor

B.

allow

C.

block

D.

trust

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Questions 142

An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. Malicious actors must be prevented from quickly

identifying all valid recipients. What must be done on the Cisco ESA to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Configure incoming content filters

B.

Use Bounce Verification

C.

Configure Directory Harvest Attack Prevention

D.

Bypass LDAP access queries in the recipient access table

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Questions 143

Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the description on the right.350-701 Question 143

Options:

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Questions 144

An administrator is implementing management plane protection and must configure an interface on a Cisco router to only terminate management packets that are destined for the router. Which set of IOS commands must be used to complete the implementation?

Options:

A.

350-701 Question 144 Option 1

B.

144

C.

144

D.

144

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Questions 145

Which technology provides a combination of endpoint protection endpoint detection, and response?

Options:

A.

Cisco AMP

B.

Cisco Talos

C.

Cisco Threat Grid

D.

Cisco Umbrella

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Questions 146

Which interface mode does a Cisco Secure IPS device use to block suspicious traffic?

Options:

A.

Passive

B.

Inline

C.

Promiscuous

D.

Active

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Questions 147

What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode?

Options:

A.

It includes multiple interfaces and access rules between interfaces are customizable

B.

It is a Layer 3 segment and includes one port and customizable access rules

C.

It allows ARP traffic with a single access rule

D.

It has an IP address on its BVI interface and is used for management traffic

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Questions 148

Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The attack is fragmented into groups of 16 octets before transmission.

B.

The attack is fragmented into groups of 8 octets before transmission.

C.

Short synchronized bursts of traffic are used to disrupt TCP connections.

D.

Malformed packets are used to crash systems.

E.

Publicly accessible DNS servers are typically used to execute the attack.

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Questions 149

Which feature enables a Cisco ISR to use the default bypass list automatically for web filtering?

Options:

A.

filters

B.

group key

C.

company key

D.

connector

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Questions 150

An engineer has been tasked with configuring a Cisco FTD to analyze protocol fields and detect anomalies in the traffic from industrial systems. What must be done to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Implement pre-filter policies for the CIP preprocessor

B.

Enable traffic analysis in the Cisco FTD

C.

Configure intrusion rules for the DNP3 preprocessor

D.

Modify the access control policy to trust the industrial traffic

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Questions 151

What is a functional difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client?

Options:

A.

The Umbrella Roaming client stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and AMP for Endpoints tracks only URL-based threats.

B.

The Umbrella Roaming Client authenticates users and provides segmentation, and AMP for Endpoints allows only for VPN connectivity

C.

AMP for Endpoints authenticates users and provides segmentation, and the Umbrella Roaming Client allows only for VPN connectivity.

D.

AMP for Endpoints stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and the Umbrella Roaming Client tracks only URL-based threats.

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Questions 152

How does a cloud access security broker function?

Options:

A.

It is an authentication broker to enable single sign-on and multi-factor authentication for a cloud solution

B.

lt integrates with other cloud solutions via APIs and monitors and creates incidents based on events from the cloud solution

C.

It acts as a security information and event management solution and receives syslog from other cloud solutions.

D.

It scans other cloud solutions being used within the network and identifies vulnerabilities

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Questions 153

What is a benefit of an endpoint patch management strategy?

Options:

A.

Patches are deployed without a testing phase.

B.

Fewer staff is needed to manage the endpoints.

C.

Endpoints are resistant to vulnerabilities.

D.

Ensures adherence to regulatory and compliance standards.

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Questions 154

A network security engineer must export packet captures from the Cisco FMC web browser while troubleshooting an issue. When navigating to the address https:// /capure/CAPI/pcap/test.pcap, an error 403: Forbidden is given instead of the PCAP file. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Disable the proxy setting on the browser

B.

Disable the HTTPS server and use HTTP instead

C.

Use the Cisco FTD IP address as the proxy server setting on the browser

D.

Enable the HTTPS server for the device platform policy

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Questions 155

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 155

A network administrator configures command authorization for the admin5 user. What is the admin5 user able to do on HQ_Router after this configuration?

Options:

A.

set the IP address of an interface

B.

complete no configurations

C.

complete all configurations

D.

add subinterfaces

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Questions 156

An organization plans to upgrade its current email security solutions, and an engineer must deploy Cisco Secure Email. The requirements for the upgrade are:

    Implement Data Loss Prevention

    Implement mail encryption

    Integrate with an existing Cisco IronPort Secure Email Gateway solution

Which Cisco Secure Email license is needed to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Email Outbound Essentials

B.

Cisco Secure Email Phishing Defense

C.

Cisco Secure Email Domain Protection

D.

Cisco Secure Email Inbound Essentials

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Questions 157

An organization is using Cisco Firepower and Cisco Meraki MX for network security and needs to centrally

manage cloud policies across these platforms. Which software should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Cisco Defense Orchestrator

B.

Cisco Secureworks

C.

Cisco DNA Center

D.

Cisco Configuration Professional

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Questions 158

What are two facts about WSA HTTP proxy configuration with a PAC file? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is defined as a Transparent proxy deployment.

B.

In a dual-NIC configuration, the PAC file directs traffic through the two NICs to the proxy.

C.

The PAC file, which references the proxy, is deployed to the client web browser.

D.

It is defined as an Explicit proxy deployment.

E.

It is defined as a Bridge proxy deployment.

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Questions 159

What is managed by Cisco Security Manager?

Options:

A.

access point

B.

WSA

C.

ASA

D.

ESA

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Questions 160

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and must ensure it reaches the Cisco update servers to retrieve new rules. The engineer must now manually configure the Outbreak Filter rules on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Only outdated rules must be replaced. Up-to-date rules must be retained. Which action must the engineer take next to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Select Outbreak Filters

B.

Perform a backup/restore of the database

C.

Use the outbreakconfig command in CLI

D.

Click Update Rules Now

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Questions 161

A security engineer must add destinations into a destination list in Cisco Umbrella. What describes the application of these changes?

Options:

A.

The changes are applied immediately it the destination list is part or a policy.

B.

The destination list must be removed from the policy before changes are made to It.

C.

The changes are applied only after the configuration is saved in Cisco Umbrella.

D.

The user role of Block Page Bypass or higher is needed to perform these changes.

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Questions 162

When network telemetry is implemented, what is important to be enabled across all network infrastructure devices to correlate different sources?

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

NTP

C.

syslog

D.

DNS

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Questions 163

Which Cisco DNA Center RESTful PNP API adds and claims a device into a workflow?

Options:

A.

api/v1/fie/config

B.

api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device/import

C.

api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device

D.

api/v1/onboarding/workflow

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Questions 164

What limits communication between applications or containers on the same node?

Options:

A.

microsegmentation

B.

container orchestration

C.

microservicing

D.

Software-Defined Access

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Questions 165

Which type of dashboard does Cisco DNA Center provide for complete control of the network?

Options:

A.

service management

B.

centralized management

C.

application management

D.

distributed management

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Questions 166

In which two ways does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution protect users? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It prevents use of compromised accounts and social engineering.

B.

It prevents all zero-day attacks coming from the Internet.

C.

It automatically removes malicious emails from users' inbox.

D.

It prevents trojan horse malware using sensors.

E.

It secures all passwords that are shared in video conferences.

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Questions 167

What are two recommended approaches to stop DNS tunneling for data exfiltration and command and control call backs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Use intrusion prevention system.

B.

Block all TXT DNS records.

C.

Enforce security over port 53.

D.

Use next generation firewalls.

E.

Use Cisco Umbrella.

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Questions 168

Which two solutions help combat social engineering and phishing at the endpoint level? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco ISE

C.

Cisco DNA Center

D.

Cisco TrustSec

E.

Cisco Duo Security

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Questions 169

An engineer implements Cisco CloudLock to secure a Microsoft Office 365 application in the cloud. The engineer must configure protection for corporate files in case of any incidents. Which two actions must be taken to complete the implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Expire the public share URL

B.

Send Cisco Webex message to specified users when an incident is triggered

C.

Transfer ownership of the files to a specified owner and folder

D.

Remove all users as collaborators on the files

E.

Disable the ability for commenters and viewers to download and copy the files

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Questions 170

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco ESA?

Options:

A.

webadvancedconfig

B.

websecurity advancedconfig

C.

outbreakconfig

D.

websecurity config

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Questions 171

Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your organization against email threats? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Time-based one-time passwords

B.

Data loss prevention

C.

Heuristic-based filtering

D.

Geolocation-based filtering

E.

NetFlow

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Questions 172

Which attack gives unauthorized access to files on the web server?

Options:

A.

Distributed DoS

B.

Broadcast storm

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

Path traversal

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Questions 173

Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view

of activity?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

SMTP

C.

syslog

D.

model-driven telemetry

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Questions 174

What are two workloaded security models? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

IaaS

C.

on-premises

D.

off-premises

E.

PaaS

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Questions 175

What is a benefit of using Cisco CWS compared to an on-premises Cisco WSA?

Options:

A.

Cisco CWS eliminates the need to backhaul traffic through headquarters for remote workers whereas Cisco WSA does not

B.

Cisco CWS minimizes the load on the internal network and security infrastructure as compared to Cisco WSA.

C.

URL categories are updated more frequently on Cisco CWS than they are on Cisco WSA

D.

Content scanning for SAAS cloud applications is available through Cisco CWS and not available through Cisco WSA

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Questions 176

An engineer is configuring Cisco Umbrella and has an identity that references two different policies. Which action ensures that the policy that the identity must use takes precedence over the second one?

Options:

A.

Configure the default policy to redirect the requests to the correct policy

B.

Place the policy with the most-specific configuration last in the policy order

C.

Configure only the policy with the most recently changed timestamp

D.

Make the correct policy first in the policy order

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Questions 177

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asset inventory management

B.

allowed application management

C.

Active Directory group policy management

D.

network device management

E.

critical device management

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Questions 178

What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?

Options:

A.

Cisco FMC uses Java while Cisco ASDM uses HTML5.

B.

Cisco FMC provides centralized management while Cisco ASDM does not.

C.

Cisco FMC supports pushing configurations to devices while Cisco ASDM does not.

D.

Cisco FMC supports all firewall products whereas Cisco ASDM only supports Cisco ASA devices

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Questions 179

Which process is used to obtain a certificate from a CA?

Options:

A.

Registration

B.

Enrollment

C.

Signing

D.

Approval

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Questions 180

An engineer is configuring device-hardening on a router in order to prevent credentials from being seen

if the router configuration was compromised. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

service password-encryption

B.

username privilege 15 password

C.

service password-recovery

D.

username < username> password

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Questions 181

Which algorithm is an NGE hash function?

Options:

A.

HMAC

B.

SHA-1

C.

MD5

D.

SISHA-2

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Questions 182

Which Cisco platform provides an agentless solution to provide visibility across the network including encrypted traffic analytics to detect malware in encrypted traffic without the need for decryption?

Options:

A.

Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Identity Services Engine

D.

Cisco AnyConnect

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Questions 183

Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?

Options:

A.

MDM

B.

ISE

C.

AMP

D.

OTP

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Questions 184

A network engineer must create an access control list on a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewall. The access control list must permit HTTP traffic to the internet from the organization's inside network 192.168.1.0/24. Which IOS command must oe used to create the access control list?

Options:

A.
B.
C.
D.
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Questions 185

What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?

Options:

A.

CMX

B.

WMI

C.

Prime Infrastructure

D.

Telemetry

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Questions 186

What are two characteristics of the RESTful architecture used within Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

REST uses methods such as GET, PUT, POST, and DELETE.

B.

REST codes can be compiled with any programming language.

C.

REST is a Linux platform-based architecture.

D.

The POST action replaces existing data at the URL path.

E.

REST uses HTTP to send a request to a web service.

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Questions 187

When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an engineer opt for an active/active FlexVPN

configuration as opposed to DMVPN?

Options:

A.

Multiple routers or VRFs are required.

B.

Traffic is distributed statically by default.

C.

Floating static routes are required.

D.

HSRP is used for faliover.

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Questions 188

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 188

An engineer configured wired 802.1x on the network and is unable to get a laptop to authenticate. Which port configuration is missing?

Options:

A.

authentication open

B.

dotlx reauthentication

C.

cisp enable

D.

dot1x pae authenticator

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Questions 189

An organization has a requirement to collect full metadata information about the traffic going through their AWS cloud services They want to use this information for behavior analytics and statistics Which two actions must be taken to implement this requirement? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure Cisco ACI to ingest AWS information.

B.

Configure Cisco Thousand Eyes to ingest AWS information.

C.

Send syslog from AWS to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

D.

Send VPC Flow Logs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

E.

Configure Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud to ingest AWS information

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Questions 190

What is the function of the Context Directory Agent?

Options:

A.

maintains users’ group memberships

B.

relays user authentication requests from Web Security Appliance to Active Directory

C.

reads the Active Directory logs to map IP addresses to usernames

D.

accepts user authentication requests on behalf of Web Security Appliance for user identification

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Questions 191

350-701 Question 191

Refer to the exhibit. What does this Python script accomplish?

Options:

A.

It allows authentication with TLSv1 SSL protocol

B.

It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection.

C.

lt authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username of ersad

D.

It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE

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Questions 192

Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

Options:

A.

transparent

B.

redirection

C.

forward

D.

proxy gateway

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Questions 193

What is the benefit of installing Cisco AMP for Endpoints on a network?

Options:

A.

It provides operating system patches on the endpoints for security.

B.

It provides flow-based visibility for the endpoints network connections.

C.

It enables behavioral analysis to be used for the endpoints.

D.

It protects endpoint systems through application control and real-time scanning

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Questions 194

An engineer is trying to decide whether to use Cisco Umbrella, Cisco CloudLock, Cisco Stealthwatch, or Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring for visibility into data transfers as well as protection against data exfiltration Which solution best meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco CloudLock

B.

Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

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Questions 195

An organization has DHCP servers set up to allocate IP addresses to clients on the LAN. What must be done to ensure the LAN switches prevent malicious DHCP traffic while also distributing IP addresses to the correct endpoints?

Options:

A.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and add entries in the DHCP snooping database.

B.

Configure DHCP snooping and set trusted interfaces for all client connections.

C.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and antispoofing ACLs in the DHCP snooping database.

D.

Configure DHCP snooping and set a trusted interface for the DHCP server.

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Questions 196

Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature?

Options:

A.

24 State

B.

30 Calling-Station-ID

C.

42 Acct-Session-ID

D.

81 Message-Authenticator

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Questions 197

When choosing an algorithm to us, what should be considered about Diffie Hellman and RSA for key

establishment?

Options:

A.

RSA is an asymmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output symmetric keys

B.

RSA is a symmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output asymmetric keys

C.

DH is a symmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output asymmetric keys

D.

DH is an asymmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output symmetric keys

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Questions 198

What is the target in a phishing attack?

Options:

A.

perimeter firewall

B.

IPS

C.

web server

D.

endpoint

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Questions 199

What is the purpose of a denial-of-service attack?

Options:

A.

to disrupt the normal operation of a targeted system by overwhelming It

B.

to exploit a security vulnerability on a computer system to steal sensitive information

C.

to prevent or limit access to data on a computer system by encrypting It

D.

to spread throughout a computer system by self-replicating to additional hosts

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Questions 200

Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

transparent mode

B.

routed mode

C.

inline mode

D.

active mode

E.

passive monitor-only mode

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Questions 201

Which standard is used to automate exchanging cyber threat information?

Options:

A.

TAXII

B.

MITRE

C.

IoC

D.

STIX

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Questions 202

Which posture assessment requirement provides options to the client for remediation and requires the

remediation within a certain timeframe?

Options:

A.

Audit

B.

Mandatory

C.

Optional

D.

Visibility

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Questions 203

Which solution should be leveraged for secure access of a CI/CD pipeline?

Options:

A.

Duo Network Gateway

B.

remote access client

C.

SSL WebVPN

D.

Cisco FTD network gateway

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Questions 204

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

flow-export event-type

B.

policy-map

C.

access-list

D.

flow-export template timeout-rate 15

E.

access-group

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Questions 205

An organization wants to improve its cybersecurity processes and to add intelligence to its data The organization wants to utilize the most current intelligence data for URL filtering, reputations, and vulnerability information that can be integrated with the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA What must be done to accomplish these objectives?

Options:

A.

Create a Cisco pxGrid connection to NIST to import this information into the security products for policy use

B.

Create an automated download of the Internet Storm Center intelligence feed into the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA databases to tie to the dynamic access control policies.

C.

Download the threat intelligence feed from the IETF and import it into the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA databases

D.

Configure the integrations with Talos Intelligence to take advantage of the threat intelligence that it provides.

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Questions 206

Which type of data exfiltration technique encodes data in outbound DNS requests to specific servers

and can be stopped by Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

DNS tunneling

B.

DNS flood attack

C.

cache poisoning

D.

DNS hijacking

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Questions 207

Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize

applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?

Options:

A.

Cisco Security Intelligence

B.

Cisco Application Visibility and Control

C.

Cisco Model Driven Telemetry

D.

Cisco DNA Center

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Questions 208

How does Cisco Umbrella protect clients when they operate outside of the corporate network?

Options:

A.

by modifying the registry for DNS lookups

B.

by using Active Directory group policies to enforce Cisco Umbrella DNS servers

C.

by using the Cisco Umbrella roaming client

D.

by forcing DNS queries to the corporate name servers

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Questions 209

Which capability is provided by application visibility and control?

Options:

A.

reputation filtering

B.

data obfuscation

C.

data encryption

D.

deep packet inspection

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Questions 210

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco DNA center? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

B.

Third party reporting

C.

Connect to ITSM platforms

D.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

E.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

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Questions 211

Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable NetFlow Version 9.

B.

Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.

C.

Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction.

D.

Create a class map to match interesting traffic.

E.

Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command

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Questions 212

v350-701 Question 212

Refer to the exhibit When configuring this access control rule in Cisco FMC, what happens with the traffic destined to the DMZjnside zone once the configuration is deployed?

Options:

A.

All traffic from any zone to the DMZ_inside zone will be permitted with no further inspection

B.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone regardless of if it's trusted or not

C.

All traffic from any zone will be allowed to the DMZ_inside zone only after inspection

D.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone unless it's already trusted

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Questions 213

Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors from other products?

Options:

A.

Encrypted Traffic Analytics

B.

Threat Intelligence Director

C.

Cognitive Threat Analytics

D.

Cisco Talos Intelligence

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Questions 214

What must be configured on Cisco Secure Endpoint to create a custom detection tile list to detect and quarantine future files?

Options:

A.

Use the simple custom detection feature and add each detection to the list.

B.

Add a network IP block allowed list to the configuration and add the blocked files.

C.

Create an advanced custom detection and upload the hash of each file

D.

Configure an application control allowed applications list to block the files

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Questions 215

A network administrator has configured TACACS on a network device using the key Cisc0467380030 tor authentication purposes. However, users are unable to authenticate. TACACS server is reachable, but authentication is tailing. Which configuration step must the administrator complete?

Options:

A.

Implement synchronized system clock on TACACS server that matches the network device.

B.

Install a compatible operating system version on the TACACS server.

C.

Configure the TACACS key on the server to match with the network device.

D.

Apply an access control list on TACACS server to allow communication with the network device.

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Questions 216

A network administrator is configuring SNMPv3 on a new router. The users have already been created;

however, an additional configuration is needed to facilitate access to the SNMP views. What must the

administrator do to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

map SNMPv3 users to SNMP views

B.

set the password to be used for SNMPv3 authentication

C.

define the encryption algorithm to be used by SNMPv3

D.

specify the UDP port used by SNMP

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Questions 217

Which Cisco solution extends network visibility, threat detection, and analytics to public cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

C.

Cisco Appdynamics

D.

Cisco CloudLock

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Exam Code: 350-701
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701)
Last Update: Oct 15, 2025
Questions: 726

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