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350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is a command-line tool for consuming REST APIs?

Options:

A.

Postman

B.

CURL

C.

Firefox

D.

Python requests

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Questions 5

Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?

Options:

A.

provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration

B.

performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks

C.

used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches

D.

in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node

Questions 6

Simulation 09

Options:

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Questions 7

What function does VXLAN perform in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

data plane forwarding

B.

control plane forwarding

C.

systems management and orchestration

D.

policy plane forwarding

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Questions 8

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer issues the debug command while troubleshooting a network issue. What does the output confirm?

Options:

A.

ACL100 is tracking ICMP traffic from 1.1.1.1 destined for 10.1.1.1.

B.

ACL100 is tracking all traffic from 10.1.1.1 destined far 1.1.

C.

ACL100 is tracking ICMP traffic from 10.1.1.1 destined for 11.1.1

D.

ACL100 is tracking ICMP traffic from Serial 1/0 destined for Serial3/0.

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Questions 9

How is traffic classified when using Cisco TrustSec technology?

Options:

A.

with the VLAN

B.

with the MAC address

C.

with the IP address

D.

with the security group tag

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Questions 10

Why does the vBond orchestrator have a public IP?

to enable vBond to team the public IP of WAN Edge devices that are behind NAT gateways or in private address space

Options:

A.

to facilitate downloading and distribution of operational and security patches

B.

to allow for global reachability from all WAN Edges in the Cisco SD-WAN and

C.

to facilitate NAT traversal to provide access

D.

to Cisco Smart Licensing servers for license enablement

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Questions 11

What is a benefit of using segmentation with TrustSec?

Options:

A.

Packets sent between endpoints on a LAN are encrypted using symmetric key cryptography.

B.

Firewall rules are streamlined by using business-level profiles.

C.

Integrity checks prevent data from being modified in transit.

D.

Security group tags enable network segmentation.

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Questions 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Extended access-list 100 is configured on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 in an inbound direction, but it does not have the expected behavior of allowing only packets to or from 192.168.0.0/16. Which command set properly configures the access list?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#no access-list 100 seq 10

R1(config)#access-list 100 seq 40 deny ip any any

B.

R1(config)#ip access-list extended 100

R1(config-ext-nacl)#no 10

C.

R1(config)#no access-list 100 deny ip any any

D.

R1(config)#ip access-list extended 100

R1(config-ext-nacl)#5 permit to any any

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Questions 13

A company hires a network architect to design a new OTT wireless solution within a Cisco SD-Access Fabric wired network. The architect wants to register access points to the WLC to centrally switch the traffic. Which AP mode must the design include?

Options:

A.

Bridge

B.

Fabric

C.

FlexConnect

D.

local

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Questions 14

What is a characteristic of the Cisco DMA Center Template Editor feature?

Options:

A.

It facilitates software upgrades lo network devices from a central point.

B.

It facilitates a vulnerability assessment of the network devices.

C.

It provides a high-level overview of the health of every network device.

D.

It uses a predefined configuration through parameterized elements or variables.

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Questions 15

Which two methods are used by an AP that is typing to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbour

B.

broadcasting on the local subnet

C.

DNS lookup cisco-DNA-PRIMARY.localdomain

D.

DHCP Option 43

E.

querying other APs

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Questions 16

Which technology reduces the implementation of STP and leverages both unicast and multicast?

Options:

A.

VSS

B.

VXLAN

C.

VPC

D.

VLAN

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Questions 17

An engineer must construct an access list tot a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series WLC that will -edirect wireless guest users to a splash page that is hosted on a Cisco ISE server. The Cisco ISE servers are hosted at 10.9.11.141 and 10.1.11.141. Which access list meets the requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 18

How do the RIB and the FIB differ?

Options:

A.

FIB contains routes learned through a dynamic routing protocol, and the RIB contains routes that are static or directly connected.

B.

RIB contains the interface for a destination, and the FIB contains the next hop information.

C.

FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the data plane.

D.

RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB.

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Questions 19

Which there application has the ability to make REST calls against Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

API Explorer

B.

REST Explorer

C.

Postman

D.

Mozilla

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Questions 20

What is the result when an active route processor fails that combines NSF with SSO?

Options:

A.

An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network.

B.

The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes.

C.

An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network.

D.

The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete.

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Questions 21

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 41 use?

Options:

A.

0c:5e:ac:07:0c:29

B.

00:05:0c:07:ac:41

C.

004:41:73:18:84:29

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:29

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Questions 22

When using BFD in a network design, which consideration must be made?

Options:

A.

BFD is used with first hop routing protocols to provide subsecond convergence.

B.

BFD is more CPU-intensive than using reduced hold timers with routing protocols.

C.

BFD is used with dynamic routing protocols to provide subsecond convergence.

D.

BFD is used with NSF and graceful to provide subsecond convergence.

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Questions 23

Simulation 02

Configure HSRP between DISTRO-SW1 and DISTRO-SW2 on VLAN 100 for hosts connected to ACCESS-SW1 to achieve these goals:

1. Configure group number 1 using the virtual IP address of 192.168.1.1/24.

2. Configure DlSTRO-SW1 as the active router using a priority value of 110 and DISTRO-SW2 as the standby router.

3. Ensure that DISTRO-SW2 will take over the active role when DISTRO-SW1 goes down, and when DISTRO-SW1 recovers, it automatically resumes the active role.

DISTRO-SW2

Options:

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Questions 24

What do Chef and Ansible have in common?

Options:

A.

They rely on a declarative approach.

B.

They rely on a procedural approach.

C.

They use YAML as their primary configuration syntax.

D.

They are clientless architectures.

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Questions 25

Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery?

Options:

A.

CISCO-DNA-CONTROLLER local

B.

CAPWAP-CONTROLLER local

C.

CISCO-CONTROLLER local

D.

CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER local

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Questions 26

Drag the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

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Questions 27

What is the rose of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WN environment?

Options:

A.

it performs authentication and authorization

B.

it manages the control plane.

C.

it is the centralized network management system

D.

it manages the data plane

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Questions 28

Which signal strength and noise values meet the minimum SNR for voice networks?

Options:

A.

signal strength -67 dBm, noise 91 dBm

B.

signal strength -69 dBm, noise 94 dBm

C.

signal strength -68 dBm, noise 89 dBm

D.

signal strength -66 dBm, noise 90 dBm

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Questions 29

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures HSRP and enters the show standby command. Which two facts about the network environment are derived from the output? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The local device has a higher priority selling than the active router

B.

The virtual IP address of the HSRP group is 10.1.1.1.

C.

If the local device fails to receive a hello from the active router for more than 5 seconds, it becomes the active router.

D.

The hello and hold timers are set to custom values.

E.

If a router with a higher IP address and same HSRP priority as the active router becomes available, that router becomes the new active router 5 seconds later.

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Questions 30

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must assign an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 to the GigabitEtherenet1 interface. Which two commands must be added to the existing configuration to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Router(config-vrf)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

B.

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv4

C.

Router(config-if)#address-family ipv4

D.

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv6

E.

Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

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Questions 31

A customer deploys a new wireless network to perform location-based services using Cisco DNA Spaces The customer has a single WLC located on-premises in a secure data center. The security team does not want to expose the WLC to the public Internet. Which solution allows the customer to securely send RSSI updates to Cisco DNA Spaces?

Options:

A.

Implement Cisco Mobility Services Engine

B.

Replace the WLC with a cloud-based controller.

C.

Perform tethering with Cisco DNA Center.

D.

Deploy a Cisco DNA Spaces connector as a VM.

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Questions 32

Refer to the exhibit.

An LACP port channel is configured between Switch-1 and Switch-2, but It falls to come up. Which action will resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure Switch-1 with channel-group mode active

B.

Configure Switch-2 with channel-group mode desirable.

C.

Configure Switch-1 with channel-group mode on.

D.

Configure SwKch-2 with channel-group mode auto

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Questions 33

How does a Type 1 hypervisor function?

Options:

A.

It runs directly on a physical server and depends on a previously installed operating system.

B.

It runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system.

C.

It runs on a virtual server and depends on a previously installed operating systems

D.

It runs on a virtual server and includes its own operating system.

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Questions 34

What mechanism does PIM use to forward multicast traffic?

Options:

A.

PIM sparse mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic.

B.

PIM dense mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic.

C.

PIM sparse mode uses receivers to register with the RP.

D.

PIM sparse mode uses a flood and prune model to deliver multicast traffic.

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Questions 35

A network administrator for a small office is adding a passive IDS to its network switch for the purpose of inspecting network traffic. Which of the following should the administrator use?

Options:

A.

SNMPtrap

B.

Port mirroring

C.

Syslog collection

D.

API integration

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Questions 36

Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?

Options:

A.

LC

B.

SC

C.

ST

D.

MPO

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Questions 37

Which technology enables a redundant supervisor engine to take over when the primary supervisor engine fails?

Options:

A.

NSF

B.

graceful restart

C.

SSO

D.

FHRP

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Questions 38

Drag and drop the tools from the left onto the agent types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 39

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the corresponding infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Options:

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Questions 40

Which QoS feature uses the IP Precedence bits in the ToS field of the IP packet header to partition traffic into different priority levels?

Options:

A.

marking

B.

shaping

C.

policing

D.

classification

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Questions 41

What are two characteristics of Cisco SD-Access elements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The border node is required for communication between fabric and nonfabric devices.

B.

Traffic within the fabric always goes through the control plane node.

C.

Fabric endpoints are connected directly to the border node.

D.

The control plane node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database.

E.

The border node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database.

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Questions 42

A company's office has publicly accessible meeting rooms equipped with network ports. A recent audit revealed that visitors were able to access the corporate network by plugging personal laptops into open network ports. Which of the following should the company implement to prevent this in the future?

Options:

A.

URL filters

B.

VPN

C.

ACLs

D.

NAC

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Questions 43

What is a client who is running 802.1x for authentication reffered to as?

Options:

A.

supplicant

B.

NAC device

C.

authenticator

D.

policy enforcement point

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Questions 44

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set enables router R2 to be configured via NETCONF?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 45

In lhe Cisco DNA Center Image Repository, what is a golden image?

Options:

A.

The latest software image that is available for a specific device type

B.

The Cisco recommended software image for a specific device type.

C.

A software image that is compatible with multiple device types.

D.

A software image that meets the compliance requirements of the organization.

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Questions 46

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 22 use?

Options:

A.

c0:42:01:67:05:16

B.

c0:07:0c:ac:00:22

C.

00:00:0c:07:ac:16

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:22

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Questions 47

An engineer must use flexible NetFlow on a group of switches. To prevent overloading of the flow collector, if the flow is idle for 20 seconds, the flow sample should be exported. Which command set should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 48

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the output confirm about the switch's spanning tree configuration?

Options:

A.

The spanning-tree mode stp ieee command was entered on this switch

B.

The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is IEEE.

C.

The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is PVST+.

D.

The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is PVST

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Questions 49

An engineer is implementing a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to improve the streaming experience for the clients of a video-on-demand server. Which action must the engineer perform to configure extended discovery to support the MPLS LDP session between the headend and tailend routers?

Options:

A.

Configure the interface bandwidth to handle TCP and UDP traffic between the LDP peers

B.

Configure a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel on both ends of the session

C.

Configure an access list on the interface to permit TCP and UDP traffic

D.

Configure a targeted neighbor session.

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Questions 50

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer troubleshoots connectivity issues with an application. Testing is performed from the server gateway, and traffic with the DF bit set is dropped along the path after increasing packet size. Removing the DF bit setting at the gateway prevents the packets from being dropped. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

PMTUD does not work due to ICMP Packet Too Big messages being dropped by an ACL

B.

The remote router drops the traffic due to high CPU load

C.

The server should not set the DF bit in any type of traffic that is sent toward the network

D.

There is a CoPP policy in place protecting the WAN router CPU from this type of traffic

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Questions 51

Which function in handled by vManage in the cisco SD-WAN fabric?

Options:

A.

Establishes BFD sessions to test liveliness of links and nodes.

B.

Distributes polices that govern data forwarding.

C.

Performs remote software upgrades for WAN Edge vSmart and vBond.

D.

Establishes iPsec tunnels with nodes

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Questions 52

What is the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture?

Options:

A.

It creates two entries for each network node, one for Its identity and another for its location on the network.

B.

It allows LISP to be applied as a network visualization overlay though encapsulation.

C.

It allows multiple Instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router.

D.

It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.

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Questions 53

What are two characteristics of vManage APIs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Southbound API is based on OMP and DTLS.

B.

Northbound API is RESTful, using JSON.

C.

Northbound API is based on RESTCONF and JSON.

D.

Southbound API is based on NETCONF and XML.

E.

Southbound API is based on RESTCONF and JSON.

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Questions 54

Which unit of measure is used to measure wireless RF SNR?

Options:

A.

mW

B.

bBm

C.

dB

D.

dBi

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Questions 55

A network engineer wants to configure console access to a router without using AAA so that the privileged exec mode is entered directly after a user provides the correct login credentials. Which action achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

Configure login authentication privileged on line con 0.

B.

Configure a local username with privilege level 15.

C.

Configure privilege level 15 on line con 0.

D.

Configure a RADIUS or TACACS+ server and use it to send the privilege level.

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Questions 56

Refer to the exhibit. An engines configured TACACS^ to authenticate remote users but the configuration is not working as expected Which configuration must be applied to enable access?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 57

Which mobility role is assigned to a client in the client table of the new controller after a Layer 3 roam?

Options:

A.

anchor

B.

foreign

C.

mobility

D.

transparent

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Questions 58

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must protect the CPU of the router from high rates of NTP, SNMP, and SSH traffic. Which two configurations must be applied to drop these types of traffic when it continuously exceeds 320 kbps? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 59

In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how Is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored?

Options:

A.

with IP SLA

B.

ARP probing

C.

using BFD

D.

with OMP

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Questions 60

Refer to the exhibit.

CR2 and CR3 ate configured with OSPF. Which configuration, when applied to CR1. allows CR1 to exchange OSPF Information with CR2 and CR3 but not with other network devices or on new Interfaces that are added to CR1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 61

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that configures BGP according to the topology. Not all options are used, and some options may be used twice.

Options:

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Questions 62

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must add the SNMP interface table to the NetFlow protocol flow records. Where should the SNMP table option be added?

Options:

A.

under the interface

B.

under the flow record

C.

under the flow monitor

D.

under the flow exporter

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Questions 63

Refer to the exhibit.

R2 is the neighboring router of R1. R2 receives an advertisement for network 192 168.10.50/32. Which configuration should be applied for the subnet to be advertised with the original /24 netmask?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 64

In which two ways does TCAM differ from CAM? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

CAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions, and TCAM is used for Layer 3 address lookups.

B.

The MAC address table is contained in CAM, and ACL and QoS Information Is stored in TCAM.

C.

CAM Is used by routers for IP address lookups, and TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions.

D.

CAM is used for software switching mechanisms, and TCAM is used for hardware switching mechanisms.

E.

The MAC address table Is contained in TCAM, and ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

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Questions 65

An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 66

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer reconfigures the pot-channel between SW1 and SW2 from an access port to a trunk and immediately notices this error in SW1's log.

Which command set resolves this error?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 67

Which method is used by an AP to join HA controllers and is configured in NVRAM?

Options:

A.

stored WLC information

B.

DNS

C.

IP Helper Addresses

D.

Primary/Secondary/Tertiary/Backup

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Questions 68

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.

Options:

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Questions 69

Which network devices secure API platform?

Options:

A.

next-generation intrusion detection systems

B.

Layer 3 transit network devices

C.

content switches

D.

web application firewalls

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Questions 70

Which outcome is achieved with this Python code?

Options:

A.

connects to a Cisco device using SSH and exports the routing table information

B.

displays the output of the show command in a formatted way

C.

connects to a Cisco device using SSH and exports the BGP table for the prefix

D.

connects to a Cisco device using Telnet and exports the routing table information

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Questions 71

Refer to the exhibit.

A GRE tunnel has been created between HO and BR routers. What is the tunnel IP on the HQ router?

Options:

A.

10.111.111.1

B.

10.111.111.2

C.

209.165.202.130

D.

209.165.202.134

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Questions 72

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

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Questions 73

An engineer must create an EEM script to enable OSPF debugging in the event the OSPF neighborship goes down. Which script must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 74

A customer transitions a wired environment to a Cisco SD-Access solution. The customer does not want to integrate the wireless network with the fabric. Which wireless deployment approach enables the two systems to coexist and meets the customer requirement?

Options:

A.

Deploy the APs in autonomous mode

B.

Deploy the wireless network over the top of the fabric

C.

Deploy a separate network for the wireless environment

D.

Implement a Cisco DNA Center to manage the two networks

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Questions 75

Refer to the exhibit.

Which code results in the working Python script displaying a list of network devices from the Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 76

A network engineer is enabling HTTPS access to the core switch, which requires a certificate to be installed on the switch signed by the corporate certificate authority Which configuration commands are required to issue a certificate signing request from the core switch?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 77

Refer to the exhibit.

After the code is run on a Cisco IOS-XE router, the response code is 204.

What is the result of the script?

Options:

A.

The configuration fails because another interface is already configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24.

B.

The configuration fails because interface GigabitEthernet2 is missing on the target device.

C.

The configuration is successfully sent to the device in cleartext.

D.

Interface GigabitEthernet2 is configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24

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Questions 78

Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Utilize DHCP option 17.

B.

Configure WLC IP address on LAN switch.

C.

Utilize DHCP option 43.

D.

Configure an ip helper-address on the router interface

E.

Enable port security on the switch port

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Questions 79

Which two parameters are examples of a QoS traffic descriptor? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

MPLS EXP bits

B.

bandwidth

C.

DSCP

D.

ToS

E.

packet size

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Questions 80

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is designing a guest portal on Cisco ISE using the default configuration. During the testing phase, the engineer receives a warning when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring?

Options:

A.

The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate

B.

The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate

C.

The connection is using an unsupported protocol

D.

The connection is using an unsupported browser

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Questions 81

Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router handle traffic after the CoPP policy is configured on the router?

Options:

A.

Traffic coming to R1 that does not match access list SNMP is dropped.

B.

Traffic coming to R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

C.

Traffic passing through R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

D.

Traffic generated by R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

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Questions 82

What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?

Options:

A.

The RP responds to the PIM join messages with the source of requested multicast group

B.

The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers.

C.

The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets.

D.

The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.

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Questions 83

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.

Options:

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Questions 84

Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?

Options:

A.

Passive

B.

Tap

C.

Inline tap

D.

Inline

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Questions 85

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tools that they describe on the right.

Options:

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Questions 86

Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

TCP MSS

B.

PMTUD

C.

DF bit Clear

D.

MTU ignore

E.

IP MTU

F.

TCP window size

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Questions 87

What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

rogue AP

B.

conventional oven

C.

fire alarm

D.

LED lights

E.

radar

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Questions 88

Which method does Cisco DNA Center use to allow management of non-Cisco devices through southbound protocols?

Options:

A.

It creates device packs through the use of an SDK

B.

It uses an API call to interrogate the devices and register the returned data.

C.

It obtains MIBs from each vendor that details the APIs available.

D.

It imports available APIs for the non-Cisco device in a CSV format.

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Questions 89

Which DHCP option provides the CAPWAP APs with the address of the wireless controller(s)?

Options:

A.

43

B.

66

C.

69

D.

150

Buy Now
Questions 90

What Is a Type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

installed as an application on an already installed operating system

B.

runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system

C.

supports over-allocation of physical resources

D.

also referred to as a "bare metal hypervisor" because it sits directly on the physical server

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Questions 91

A network engineer configures a WLAN controller with increased security for web access. There is IP connectivity with the WLAN controller, but the engineer cannot start a management session from a web browser. Which action resolves the issued

Options:

A.

Disable JavaScript on the web browser

B.

Disable Adobe Flash Player

C.

Use a browser that supports 128-bit or larger ciphers.

D.

Use a private or incognito session.

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Questions 92

Drag and drop characteristics of PIM dense mode from the left to the right.

Options:

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Questions 93

An engineer creates the configuration below. Drag and drop the authentication methods from the left into the order of priority on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 94

A customer wants to use a single SSID to authenticate loT devices using different passwords. Which Layer 2 security type must be configured in conjunction with Cisco ISE to achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Fast Transition

B.

Central Web Authentication

C.

Cisco Centralized Key Management

D.

Identity PSK

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Questions 95

Refer to the exhibit. Which command is required to verify NETCONF capability reply messages?

Options:

A.

show netconf | section rpc-reply

B.

show netconf rpc-reply

C.

show netconf xml rpc-reply

D.

show netconf schema | section rpc-reply

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Questions 96

If a client's radio device receives a signal strength of -67 dBm and the noise floor is -85 dBm, what is the SNR value?

Options:

A.

15 dB

B.

16 dB

C.

18 dB

D.

20 dB

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Questions 97

What is one difference between EIGRP and OSPF?

Options:

A.

OSPF is a Cisco proprietary protocol, and EIGRP is an IETF open standard protocol.

B.

OSPF uses the DUAL distance vector algorithm, and EIGRP uses the Dijkstra link-state algorithm

C.

EIGRP uses the variance command lot unequal cost load balancing, and OSPF supports unequal cost balancing by default.

D.

EIGRP uses the DUAL distance vector algorithm, and OSPF uses the Dijkstra link-state algorithm

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Questions 98

An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?

Options:

A.

ISE server

B.

local WLC

C.

RADIUS server

D.

anchor WLC

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Questions 99

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

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Questions 100

A network monitoring system uses SNMP polling to record the statistics of router interfaces The SNMP queries work as expected until an engineer installs a new interface and reloads the router After this action, all SNMP queries for the router fail What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The SNMP community is configured incorrectly

B.

The SNMP interface index changed after reboot.

C.

The SNMP server traps are disabled for the interface index

D.

The SNMP server traps are disabled for the link state.

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Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer attempts to bundle interface Gi0/0 into the port channel, but it does not function as expected. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on interface Gi0/0.

B.

Configure no shutdown on interface Gi0/0

C.

Enable fast LACP PDUs on interface Gi0/0.

D.

Set LACP max-bundle to 2 on interface Port-channeM

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Questions 102

A customer requests a design that includes GLBP as the FHRP The network architect discovers that the members of the GLBP group have different throughput capabilities Which GLBP load balancing method supports this environment?

Options:

A.

host dependent

B.

least connection

C.

round robin

D.

weighted

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Questions 103

Which action is performed by Link Management Protocol in a Cisco StackWise Virtual domain?

Options:

A.

It rejects any unidirectional link traffic forwarding

B.

It determines if the hardware is compatible to form the StackWise Virtual domain

C.

discovers the StackWise domain and brings up SVL interfaces.

D.

It determines which switch becomes active or standby

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Questions 104

How does the EIGRP metric differ from the OSPF metric?

Options:

A.

The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth only. The OSPF metric is calculated on delay only.

B.

The EIGRP metric is calculated based on delay only. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay.

C.

The EIGRP metric Is calculated based on bandwidth and delay. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth only.

D.

The EIGRP metric Is calculated based on hop count and bandwidth. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay.

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Questions 105

How can an engineer prevent basic replay attacks from people who try to brute force a system via REST API?

Options:

A.

Add a timestamp to the request In the API header.

B.

Use a password hash

C.

Add OAuth to the request in the API header.

D.

UseHTTPS

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Questions 106

How does a fabric AP fit in the network?

Options:

A.

It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node

B.

It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

C.

It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node

D.

It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

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Questions 107

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure a SPAN session. What is the effect of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Traffic sent on VLANs 10, 11, and 12 is copied and sent to interface g0/1.

B.

Traffic sent on VLANs 10 and 12 only is copied and sent to interface g0/1.

C.

Traffic received on VLANs 10, 11, and 12 is copied and sent to Interface g0/1.

D.

Traffic received on VLANs 10 and 12 only is copied and sent to interface g0/1.

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Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit:

An engineer configures VRRP and issues the show commands to verify operation. What does the engineer confirm about VRRP group 1 from the output?

Options:

A.

There is no route to 10.10.1.1/32 in R2’s routing table

B.

If R1 reboots, R2 becomes the master virtual router until R2 reboots

C.

Communication between VRRP members is encrypted using MD5

D.

R1 is primary if 10.10.1.1/32 is in its routing table

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Questions 109

Why would an engineer use YANG?

Options:

A.

to transport data between a controller and a network device

B.

to access data using SNMP

C.

to model data for NETCONF

D.

to translate JSON into an equivalent XML syntax

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Questions 110

Which cisco DNA center application is responsible for group-based accesss control permissions?

Options:

A.

Design

B.

Provision

C.

Assurance

D.

Policy

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Questions 111

Refer to the exhibit.

On which interfaces should VRRP commands be applied to provide first hop redundancy to PC-01 and PC-02?

Options:

A.

G0/0 and G0/1 on Core

B.

G0/0 on Edge-01 and G0/0 on Edge-02

C.

G0/1on Edge-01 and G0/1 on Edge-02

D.

G0/0 and G0/1 on ASW-01

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Questions 112

An engineer is working with the Cisco DNA Center API Drag and drop the methods from the left onto the actions that they are used for on the right.

Options:

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Questions 113

Refer to the exhibit.

What step resolves the authentication issue?

Options:

A.

use basic authentication

B.

change the port to 12446

C.

target 192 168 100 82 in the URI

D.

restart the vsmart host

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Questions 114

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must permit traffic from these networks and block all other traffic An informational log message should be triggered when traffic enters from these prefixes Which access list must be used?

Options:

A.

access-list acl_subnets permit ip 10.0.32.0 0 0.0.255 log

B.

access-list acl_subnets permit ip 10.0.32.0 0.0.7.255 log

C.

access-list acl_subnets permit ip 10.0.32.0 0.0.7.255 access-list acl_subnets deny ip any log

D.

access-list acl_subnets permit ip 10.0.32.0 255.255.248.0 log

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Questions 115

Refer to the exhibit. Which result does the python code achieve?

Options:

A.

The code encrypts a base64 decrypted password.

B.

The code converts time to the "year/month/day" time format.

C.

The code converts time to the yyyymmdd representation.

D.

The code converts time to the Epoch LINUX time format.

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Questions 116

Which element enables communication between guest VMs within a virtualized environment?

Options:

A.

hypervisor

B.

vSwitch

C.

virtual router

D.

pNIC

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Questions 117

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two reasons for IP SLA tracking failure? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

The destination must be 172 30 30 2 for icmp-echo

B.

A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2.

C.

The source-interface is configured incorrectly.

D.

The default route has the wrong next hop IP address

E.

The threshold value is wrong

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Questions 118

Refer to the exhibit.

Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?

Options:

A.

1

B.

7

C.

13

D.

15

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Questions 119

Refer to The exhibit.

Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

Options:

A.

VRF VFN_A

B.

VRF VPN_B

C.

management VRF

D.

default VRF

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Questions 120

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

Options:

A.

applications

B.

disk

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

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Questions 121

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer entered the command no spanning-tree bpduguard enable on interface Fa 1/0/7. What is the effect of this command on Fa 1/0/7?

Options:

A.

It remains in err-disabled state until the shutdown/no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

B.

It remains in err-disabled state until the errdisable recovery cause failed-port-state command is entered in the global configuration mode.

C.

It remains in err-disabled state until the no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

D.

It remains in err-disabled state until the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard disable command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

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Questions 122

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

Options:

A.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 gets 'logging directly to console'

B.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg 'log directly to console'

C.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 puts 'logging directly to console'

D.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 string 'logging directly to console'

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Questions 123

A company requires a wireless solution to support its mam office and multiple branch locations. All sites have local Internet connections and a link to the main office lor corporate connectivity. The branch offices are managed centrally. Which solution should the company choose?

Options:

A.

Cisco United Wireless Network

B.

Cisco DNA Spaces

C.

Cisco Catalyst switch with embedded controller

D.

Cisco Mobility Express

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Questions 124

Which two characteristics apply to the endpoint security aspect of the Cisco Threat Defense architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

detect and black ransomware in email attachments

B.

outbound URL analysis and data transfer controls

C.

user context analysis

D.

blocking of fileless malware in real time

E.

cloud-based analysis of threats

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Questions 125

Which VXLAN component is used to encapsulate and decapsulate Ethernet frames?

Options:

A.

VNI

B.

GRE

C.

VTEP

D.

EVPN

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Questions 126

How does NETCONF YANG represent data structures?

Options:

A.

as strict data structures denned by RFC 6020

B.

in an XML tree format

C.

in an HTML format

D.

as modules within a tree

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Questions 127

Refer to the exhibit. Which python code parses the response and prints “18:32:21.474 UTC sun Mar 10 2019?

Options:

A.

print(response['resut'][0||'simple_time']}

B.

print(response[result']['body']['simple_time']}

C.

print(response['body']['simple_time']}

D.

print(response[jresult']['body']['simple_time']}

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Questions 128

An engineer must configure a router to leak routes between two VRFs Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 129

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures routing between all routers and must build a configuration to connect R1 to R3 via a GRE tunnel Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 130

What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?

Options:

A.

The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server.

B.

The number of hops it takes to reach the authoritative time source.

C.

The amount of offset between the device clock and true time.

D.

The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.

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Questions 131

Refer to the exhibit. What is generated by the script?

Options:

A.

the cdp neighbors

B.

the routing table

C.

the router processes

D.

the running configuration

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Questions 132

Refer to the exhibit.

Which commands are required to allow SSH connection to the router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 133

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set is needed to configure and verify router R3 to measure the response time from router R3 to the file server located in the data center?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 134

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 135

The Gig0/0 interface of two routers is directly connected with a 1G Ethernet link. Which configuration must be applied to the interface of both routers to establish an OSPF adjacency without maintaining a DR/BDR relationship?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 136

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must set up connectivity between a campus aggregation layer and a branch office access layer. The engineer uses dynamic trunking protocol to establish this connection, however, management traffic on VLAN1 is not passing. Which action resolves the issue and allow communication for all configured VLANs?

Options:

A.

Allow all VLANs on the trunk links

B.

Disable Spanning Tree for the native VLAN.

C.

Configure the correct native VLAN on the remote interface

D.

Change both interfaces to access ports.

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Questions 137

What is a TLOC in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

value that identifies a specific tunnel within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay

B.

identifier that represents a specific service offered by nodes within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay

C.

attribute that acts as a next hop for network prefixes

D.

component set by the administrator to differentiate similar nodes that offer a common service

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Questions 138

What Is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?

Options:

A.

The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match.

B.

The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

C.

Router prefix lookups happen in TCAM. MAC address table lookups happen In CAM.

D.

TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

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Questions 139

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow all users in the 10.2.2.0/24 subnet to access the Internet. To conserve address space the public Interface address of 209 165 201.1 must be used for all external communication. Which command set accomplishes these requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 140

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

ideal for data center

B.

complicated deployment

C.

ideal for client/end-user system

D.

referred to as bare-metal

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Questions 141

An engineer must configure an ACL that permits packets which include an ACK in the TCP header Which entry must be included in the ACL?

Options:

A.

access-list 10 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack

B.

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack

C.

access-list 10 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

D.

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

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Questions 142

What is a characteristics of a vSwitch?

Options:

A.

supports advanced Layer 3 routing protocols that are not offered by a hardware switch

B.

enables VMs to communicate with each other within a virtualized server

C.

has higher performance than a hardware switch

D.

operates as a hub and broadcasts the traffic toward all the vPorts

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Questions 143

Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

Options:

A.

IKF

B.

TLS

C.

IPsec

D.

ESP

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Questions 144

What happens when a FlexConnect AP changes to standalone mode?

Options:

A.

All controller-dependent activities stop working except the DFS.

B.

All client roaming continues to work

C.

Only clients on central switching WLANs stay connected.

D.

All clients on an WLANs are disconnected

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Questions 145

what is a benefit of using a Type 2 hypervisor instead of a Type 1 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

better application performance

B.

Improved security because the underlying OS is eliminated

C.

Improved density and scalability

D.

ability to operate on hardware that is running other OSs

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Questions 146

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is able to ping the R3 fa0/1 Interface. Why do the extended pings fail?

Options:

A.

The DF bit has been set

B.

The maximum packet size accepted by the command is 147G bytes

C.

R2 and R3 do not have an OSPF adjacency

D.

R3 is missing a return route to 10.99.69.0/30

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Questions 147

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

Options:

A.

NetFlow updates to the collector are sent 50% less frequently.

B.

Every second IPv4 packet is forwarded to the collector for inspection.

C.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced when compared with what is required for full NetFlow.

D.

The resolution of sampling data increases, but it requires more performance from the router.

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Questions 148

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Options:

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Questions 149

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 150

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

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Questions 151

What is a characteristics of traffic policing?

Options:

A.

lacks support for marking or remarking

B.

must be applied only to outgoing traffic

C.

can be applied in both traffic directions

D.

queues out-of-profile packets until the buffer is full

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Questions 152

How do EIGRP metrics compare to OSPF metrics?

Options:

A.

EIGRP metrics are based on a combination of bandwidth and packet loss, and OSPF metrics are based on interface bandwidth.

B.

EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm, and OSPF uses The DUAL algorithm

C.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is undefined

D.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is 110

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Questions 153

What is the JSON syntax that is formed the data?

Options:

A.

{'Name'';''Bob johnon';''Age': Sevenfive,''Alive'': true,''FavoriteFoods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}

B.

{'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age': 75 ''Alive'': true,''Favorite Foods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}

C.

{'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age: 75,''Alive: true, FavoriteFoods;[Cereal, Mustard';''Onions}}

D.

{'Name'': 'Bob johnon','Age': 75,'Alive': true,''FavoriteFoods': 'Cereal';'Mustard','Onions'}}

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Questions 154

What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

Options:

A.

Container

B.

Mainframe

C.

Host

D.

virtual machine

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Questions 155

What is the recommended minimum SNR for data applications on wireless networks?

Options:

A.

15

B.

20

C.

25

D.

10

Buy Now
Questions 156

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer checks connectivity between two routers. The engineer can ping the remote endpoint but cannot see an ARP entry. Why is there no ARP entry?

Options:

A.

The ping command must be executed in the global routing table.

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/0 Is configured in VRF CUST-A, so the ARP entry is also in that VRF.

C.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol must be enabled In each VRF.

D.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol is disabled in the global routing table.

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Questions 157

What is used to validate the authenticity of the client and is sent in HTTP requests as a JSON object?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

JWT

D.

TLS

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Questions 158

An engineer is configuring Local WebAuth on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. According to RFC 5737, WHICH VIRTUAL IP address must be used in this configuration?

Options:

A.

192.0.2.1

B.

172.20.10.1

C.

1.1.1.1

D.

192.168.0.1

Buy Now
Questions 159

Which definition describes JWT in regard to REST API security?

Options:

A.

an encrypted JSON token that is used for authentication

B.

an encrypted JSON token that is used for authorization

C.

an encoded JSON token that is used to securely exchange information

D.

an encoded JSON token that is used for authentication

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Questions 160

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block Telnet traffic from hosts in the range of 10.100 2.248 to 10.100.2 255 to the network 10.100.3.0 and permit everything else. Which configuration must the engineer apply'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 161

Which type of tunnel Is required between two WLCs to enable Intercontroller roaming?

Options:

A.

mobility

B.

LWAPP

C.

CAPWAP

D.

iPsec

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Questions 162

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must load balance traffic that comes from the NAT Router and is destined to 10.10.110.10, to several FTP servers. Which two commands sets should be applied? (Choose two).

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Buy Now
Questions 163

Which two features does the Cisco SD-Access architecture add to a traditional campus network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

software-defined segmentation

B.

private VLANs

C.

SD-WAN

D.

modular QoS

E.

identity services

Buy Now
Questions 164

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set must be added to permit and log all traffic that comes from 172.20.10.1 in interface GigabitEthernet0/1 without impacting the functionality of the access list?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 165

Which function does a fabric AP perform in a cisco SD-access deployment?

Options:

A.

It updates wireless clients' locations in the fabric

B.

It connects wireless clients to the fabric.

C.

It manages wireless clients' membership information in the fabric

D.

It configures security policies down to wireless clients in the fabric.

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Questions 166

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 32 use?

Options:

A.

00:5e:0c:07:ac:20

B.

04:18:20:83:2e:32

C.

05:5e:5c:ac:0c:32

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:20

Buy Now
Questions 167

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must log in to the router via the console, but the RADIUS servers are not reachable Which credentials allow console access1?

Options:

A.

the username "cisco" and the password "Cisco"

B.

no username and only the password "test123"

C.

no username and only the password "cisco123"

D.

the username "cisco" and the password “cisco123"

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Questions 168

Refer io me exhibit.

An engineer configures the trunk and proceeds to configure an ESPAN session to monitor VLANs10. 20. and 30. Which command must be added to complete this configuration?

Options:

A.

Device(config.mon.erspan.stc)# no filter vlan 30

B.

Devic(config.mon.erspan.src-dst)# no vrf 1

C.

Devic(config.mon.erspan.src-dst)# erspan id 6

D.

Device(config.mon-erspan.Src-dst)# mtu 1460

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Questions 169

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the appropriate tools on the right.

Options:

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Questions 170

Refer to the exhibit. Which EEM script generates a critical-level syslog message and saves a copy of the running configuration to the bootflash when an administrator saves the running configuration to the startup configuration?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 171

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny Telnet traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the Loopback interface of router R2 during, the weekend hours. All other traffic between the loopback interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be allowed at all times Which command set accomplishes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 172

What is one benefit of adopting a data modeling language?

Options:

A.

augmenting management process using vendor centric actions around models

B.

refactoring vendor and platform specific configurations with widely compatible configurations

C.

augmenting the use of management protocols like SNMP for status subscriptions

D.

deploying machine-friendly codes to manage a high number of devices

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Questions 173

Refer to the exhibit.

Object tracking has been configured for VRRP-enabled routers Edge-01 and Edge-02 Which commands cause Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 in the event that interface G0/0 goes down on Edge-01?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 174

Which two Cisco SD-WAN components exchange OMP information?

Options:

A.

vAnaiytlcs

B.

vSmart

C.

WAN Edge

D.

vBond

E.

vManage

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Questions 175

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker can advertise OSPF fake routes from 172.16.20.0 network to the OSPF domain and black hole traffic. Which action must be taken to avoid this attack and still be able to advertise this subnet into OSPF?

Options:

A.

Configure 172.16.20.0 as a stub network.

B.

Apply a policy to filter OSPF packets on R2.

C.

Configure a passive Interface on R2 toward 172.16.20.0.

D.

Configure graceful restart on the 172.16.20.0 interface.

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Questions 176

Which IPv4 packet field carries the QoS IP classification marking?

Options:

A.

ID

B.

TTL

C.

FCS

D.

ToS

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Questions 177

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator troubleshoots an EtherChannel that keeps moving to err-disabled. Which two actions must be taken to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Reload the switch to force EtherChannel renegotiation

B.

Ensure that interfaces Gi1/0/2 and Gi1/0/3 connect to the same neighboring switch.

C.

Ensure that the switchport parameters of Port channel1 match the parameters of the port channel on the neighbor switch

D.

Ensure that the corresponding port channel interface on the neighbor switch is named Port-channel1.

E.

Ensure that the neighbor interfaces of Gi1/0/2 and Gi/0/3 are configured as members of the same EtherChannel

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Questions 178

Drag anti drop the characteristics from the ten onto the configuration models on the right.

Options:

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Questions 179

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture which device manages endpoint ID to edge node bindings?

Options:

A.

fabric control plane node

B.

fabric wireless controller

C.

fabric border node

D.

fabric edge node

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Questions 180

Refer the exhibit.

Which configuration elects SW4 as the root bridge for VLAN 1 and puts G0/2 on SW2 into a blocking state?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Buy Now
Questions 181

What are the main components of Cisco TrustSec?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE and Enterprise Directory Services

B.

Cisco ISE. network switches, firewalls, and routers

C.

Cisco ISE and TACACS+

D.

Cisco ASA and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense

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Questions 182

A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilities a migrate from a traditional campus design to a programmer fabric designer?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 access

B.

three-tier

C.

two-tier

D.

routed access

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Questions 183

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Options:

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Questions 184

Refer to the exhibit.

The IP SLA is configured in a router. An engineer must configure an EEM applet to shut down the interface and bring it back up when there is a problem with the IP SLA. Which configuration should the engineer use?

Options:

A.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event track 10 state down

B.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event track 10 state unreachable

C.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event sla 10 state unreachable

D.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event sla 10 state down

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Questions 185

While configuring an IOS router for HSRP with a virtual IP of 10 1.1.1. an engineer sees this log message.

Which configuration change must the engineer make?

Options:

A.

Change the HSRP group configuration on the local router to 1.

B.

Change the HSRP virtual address on the local router to 10.1.1.1.

C.

Change the HSRP virtual address on the remote router to 10.1.1.1.

D.

Change the HSRP group configuration on the remote router to 1.

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Questions 186

Refer to the exhibit. What does the error message relay to the administrator who is trying to configure a Cisco IOS device?

Options:

A.

A NETCONF request was made for a data model that does not exist.

B.

The device received a valid NETCONF request and serviced it without error.

C.

A NETCONF message with valid content based on the YANG data models was made, but the request failed.

D.

The NETCONF running datastore is currently locked.

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Questions 187

A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520 at a site directly next to a large commercial airport. Users report that they intermittently lose WI-FI connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes. Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list

B.

Restore the DCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference.

C.

Configure channels on the UNIk2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only

D.

Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference.

E.

Disable DFS channels to prevent interference with Doppler radar

Buy Now
Questions 188

What is the function of a VTEP in VXLAN?

Options:

A.

provide the routing underlay and overlay for VXLAN headers

B.

dynamically discover the location of end hosts in a VXLAN fabric

C.

encapsulate and de-encapsulate traffic into and out of the VXLAN fabric

D.

statically point to end host locations of the VXLAN fabric

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Questions 189

Drag and drop the threat defense solutions from the left onto their descriptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 190

A company has an existing Cisco 5520 HA cluster using SSO. An engineer deploys a new single Cisco Catalyst 9800 WLC to test new features. The engineer successfully configures a mobility tunnel between the 5520 cluster and 9800 WLC. Client connected to the corporate WLAN roam seamlessly between access points on the 5520 and 9800 WLC. After a failure on the primary 5520 WLC, all WLAN services remain functional; however, Client roam between the 5520 and 9800 controllers without dropping their connection. Which feature must be configured to remedy the issue?

Options:

A.

mobility MAC on the 5520 cluster

B.

mobility MAC on the 9800 WLC

C.

new mobility on the 5520 cluster

D.

new mobility on the 9800 WLC

Buy Now
Questions 191

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

R1#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

B.

R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

C.

R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

D.

R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0

E.

R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

Buy Now
Questions 192

Refer to the exhibit.

Which HTTP JSON response does the python code output give?

Options:

A.

NameError: name 'json' is not defined

B.

KeyError 'kickstart_ver_str'

C.

7.61

D.

7.0(3)I7(4)

Buy Now
Questions 193

Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

HEAD

B.

REMOVE

C.

PULL

D.

PATCH

E.

ADD

F.

PUSH

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Questions 194

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer implemented several configuration changes and receives the logging message on switch1. Which action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Change the VTP domain to match on both switches

B.

Change Switch2 to switch port mode dynamic auto

C.

Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic auto

D.

Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic desirable

Buy Now
Questions 195

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

Options:

A.

An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B.

The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C.

The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D.

The client database on the original controller is updated the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

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Questions 196

which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Oracle VM VirtualBox

B.

VMware server

C.

Citrix XenServer

D.

Microsoft Virtual PC

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Questions 197

Drag and drop the virtual components from the left onto their deceptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 198

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the Json syntax that is formed from the data?

Options:

A.

{Name: Bob Johnson, Age: 75, Alive: true, Favorite Foods: [Cereal, Mustard, Onions]}

B.

{"Name": "Bob Johnson", "Age": 75, "Alive": true, "Favorite Foods": ["Cereal", "Mustard", "Onions"]}

C.

{"˜Name': "˜Bob Johnson', "˜Age': 75, "˜Alive': True, "˜Favorite Foods': "˜Cereal', "˜Mustard', "˜Onions'}

D.

{"Name": "Bob Johnson", "Age": Seventyfive, "Alive": true, "Favorite Foods": ["Cereal", "Mustard", "Onions"]}

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Questions 199

Which two threats does AMP4E have the ability to block? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

ransomware

C.

Microsoft Word macro attack

D.

SQL injection

E.

email phishing

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Questions 200

Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch Which command meets this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 201

Which characteristic distinguishes Ansible from Chef?

Options:

A.

Ansible lacs redundancy support for the master server. Chef runs two masters in an active/active mode.

B.

Ansible uses Ruby to manage configurations. Chef uses YAML to manage configurations.

C.

Ansible pushes the configuration to the client. Chef client pulls the configuration from the server.

D.

The Ansible server can run on Linux, Unix or Windows. The Chef server must run on Linux or Unix.

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Questions 202

Refer to me exhibit. What is the cause of the log messages?

Options:

A.

hello packet mismatch

B.

OSPF area change

C.

MTU mismatch

D.

IP address mismatch

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Questions 203

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures NAT on R1 and enters the show command to verity the configuration What does the output confirm?

Options:

A.

The first pocket triggered NAT to add on entry to NAT table

B.

R1 is configured with NAT overload parameters

C.

A Telnet from 160.1.1 1 to 10.1.1.10 has been initiated.

D.

R1 to configured with PAT overload parameters

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Questions 204

Refer to Exhibit.

MTU has been configured on the underlying physical topology, and no MTU command has been configured on the tunnel interfaces. What happens when a 1500-byte IPv4 packet traverses the GRE tunnel from host X to host Y, assuming the DF bit is cleared?

Options:

A.

The packet arrives on router C without fragmentation.

B.

The packet is discarded on router A

C.

The packet is discarded on router B

D.

The packet arrives on router C fragmented.

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Questions 205

Which algorithms are used to secure REST API from brute attacks and minimize the impact?

Options:

A.

SHA-512 and SHA-384

B.

MD5 algorithm-128 and SHA-384

C.

SHA-1, SHA-256, and SHA-512

D.

PBKDF2, BCrypt, and SCrypt

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Questions 206

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to R to enable R to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 207

If the noise floor is -90 dBm and wireless client is receiving a signal of -75 dBm, what is the SNR?

Options:

A.

15

B.

1.2

C.

-165

D.

.83

Buy Now
Questions 208

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts, drag and drop the commands into the configuration to achieve these results. Some commands may be used more than once. Not all commands are used.

Options:

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Questions 209

Which congestion queuing method on Cisco IOS based routers uses four static queues?

Options:

A.

Priority

B.

custom

C.

weighted fair

D.

low latency

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Questions 210

Drag and drop the solutions that comprise Cisco Cyber Threat Defense from the left onto the objectives they accomplish on the right.

Options:

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Questions 211

Which features does Cisco EDR use to provide threat detection and response protection?

Options:

A.

containment, threat intelligence, and machine learning

B.

firewalling and intrusion prevention

C.

container-based agents

D.

cloud analysis and endpoint firewall controls

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Questions 212

When a wireless client roams between two different wireless controllers, a network connectivity outage is experience for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this problem?

Options:

A.

Not all of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.

B.

Not all of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.

C.

All of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.

D.

All of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.

Buy Now
Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured Cisco ISE to assign VLANs to clients based on their method of authentication, but this is not working as expected. Which action will resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

require a DHCP address assignment

B.

utilize RADIUS profiling

C.

set a NAC state

D.

enable AAA override

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Questions 214

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

monitor

C.

bridge

D.

local

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Questions 215

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

Options:

A.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514

B.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514

C.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514

D.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514

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Questions 216

Which two mechanisms are available to secure NTP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

IP prefix list-based

B.

IPsec

C.

TACACS-based authentication

D.

IP access list-based

E.

Encrypted authentication

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Questions 217

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the protocols they apply to on the right?

Options:

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Questions 218

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is investigating why guest users are able to access other guest user devices when the users are connected to the customer guest WLAN. What action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

implement MFP client protection

B.

implement split tunneling

C.

implement P2P blocking

D.

implement Wi-Fi direct policy

Buy Now
Questions 219

What is a benefit of a virtual machine when compared with a physical server?

Options:

A.

Multiple virtual servers can be deployed on the same physical server without having to buy additional hardware.

B.

Virtual machines increase server processing performance.

C.

The CPU and RAM resources on a virtual machine cannot be affected by other virtual machines.

D.

Deploying a virtual machine is technically less complex than deploying a physical server.

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Questions 220

Which outbound access list, applied to the WAN interface of a router, permits all traffic except for http traffic sourced from the workstation with IP address 10.10.10.1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 221

How does Cisco Trustsec enable more access controls for dynamic networking

environments and data centers?

Options:

A.

classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

B.

uses flexible NetFlow

C.

classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP

address correct

D.

assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

Buy Now
Questions 222

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows Customer2 hosts to access the FTP server of Customer1 that has the IP address of 192.168.1.200?

Options:

A.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global

ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 VlanlO

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20

B.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer2

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customerl

C.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customerl

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer2

D.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.255 172.16.1.1 global

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 global

ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 VlanlO

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20

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Questions 223

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthemet 0/1. Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 224

Refer the exhibit.

Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?

Options:

A.

This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.

B.

This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.

C.

Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID

D.

Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID

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Questions 225

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/1 and Gi0/1 to on.

B.

Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/1 to active

C.

Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to trunk

D.

Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.

Buy Now
Questions 226

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Options:

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Questions 227

Which component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution provides user and flow context analysis?

Options:

A.

Cisco Firepower and FireSIGHT

B.

Cisco Stealth watch system

C.

Advanced Malware Protection

D.

Cisco Web Security Appliance

Buy Now
Questions 228

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 229

Refer to the exhibit.

After implementing the configuration 172.20.20.2 stops replaying to ICMP echoes, but the default route fails to be removed. What is the reason for this behavior?

Options:

A.

The source-interface is configured incorrectly.

B.

The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo

C.

The default route is missing the track feature

D.

The threshold value is wrong.

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Questions 230

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to create a configuration to allow the Blue VRF to leak into the global routing table, but the configuration does not function as expected. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Change the access-list destination mask to a wildcard.

B.

Change the source network that Is specified in access-list 101.

C.

Change the route-map configuration to VRF_BLUE.

D.

Change the access-list number in the route map

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Questions 231

What is the difference between CEF and process switching?

Options:

A.

CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage.

B.

CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.

C.

CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet.

D.

Process switching is faster than CEF.

Buy Now
Questions 232

An engineer is concerned with the deployment of new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements?

Options:

A.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

B.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

C.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

D.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

Buy Now
Questions 233

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between London and New York is down. Which command set must be applied to the NewYork switch to resolve the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 234

Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 235

Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 236

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures monitoring on SW1 and enters the show command to verify operation. What does the output confirm?

Options:

A.

SPAN session 1 monitors activity on VLAN 50 of a remote switch

B.

SPAN session 2 only monitors egress traffic exiting port FastEthernet 0/14.

C.

SPAN session 2 monitors all traffic entering and exiting port FastEthernet 0/15.

D.

RSPAN session 1 is incompletely configured for monitoring

Buy Now
Questions 237

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

Options:

A.

EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF

B.

EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.

C.

EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors

D.

EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

Buy Now
Questions 238

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a new HSRP group. While reviewing the HSRP status, the engineer sees the logging message generated on R2. Which is the cause of the message?

Options:

A.

The same virtual IP address has been configured for two HSRP groups

B.

The HSRP configuration has caused a spanning-tree loop

C.

The HSRP configuration has caused a routing loop

D.

A PC is on the network using the IP address 10.10.1.1

Buy Now
Questions 239

At which Layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

Options:

A.

EEM applets or scripts

B.

Session layer

C.

YMAL output from responses to API calls

D.

Northbound APIs

Buy Now
Questions 240

A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

Options:

A.

container

B.

Type 1 hypervisor

C.

hardware pass-thru

D.

Type 2 hypervisor

Buy Now
Questions 241

Which controller is capable of acting as a STUN server during the onboarding process of Edge devices?

Options:

A.

vBond

B.

vSmart

C.

vManage

D.

PNP server

Buy Now
Questions 242

What is the data policy in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

list of ordered statements that define node configurations and authentication used within the SD-WAN overlay

B.

Set of statements that defines how data is forwarded based on IP packet information and specific VPNs

C.

detailed database mapping several kinds of addresses with their corresponding location

D.

group of services tested to guarantee devices and links liveliness within the SD-WAN overlay

Buy Now
Questions 243

Which version of NetFlow does Cisco Threat Defense utilize to obtain visibility into the network?

Options:

A.

NBAR2

B.

IPFIX

C.

8

D.

flexible

Buy Now
Questions 244

Which action limits the total amount of memory and CPU that is used by a collection of VMs?

Options:

A.

Place the collection of VMs in a resource pool.

B.

Place the collection of VMs in a vApp.

C.

Limit the amount of memory and CPU that is available to the cluster.

D.

Limit the amount of memory and CPU that is available to the individual VMs.

Buy Now
Questions 245

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the corresponding tools on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 246

What is one characteristic of Cisco DNA Center and vManage northbound APIs?

Options:

A.

They push configuration changes down to devices.

B.

They implement the RESTCONF protocol.

C.

They exchange XML-formatted content.

D.

They implement the NETCONF protocol.

Buy Now
Questions 247

Which A record type should be configured for access points to resolve the IP address of a wireless LAN controller using DNS?

Options:

A.

CISCO.CONTROLLER.localdomain

B.

CISCO.CAPWAP.CONTROLLER.localdomain

C.

CISCO-CONTROLLER.localdomain

D.

CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain

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Questions 248

Which device is responsible for finding EID-to-RLOC mappings when traffic is sent to a LISP-capable site?

Options:

A.

map server

B.

map resolver

C.

ingress tunnel router

D.

egress tunnel router

Buy Now
Questions 249

A network administrator is designing a new network for a company that has frequent power spikes. The company wants to ensure that employees can the best solution for the administrator to recommend?

Options:

A.

Generator

B.

Cold site

C.

Redundant power supplies

D.

Uninterruptible power supply

Buy Now
Questions 250

Which JSON script is properly formatted?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 251

Refer to the exhibit.

These commands have been added to the configuration of a switch Which command flags an error if it is added to this configuration?

Options:

A.

monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 6

B.

monitor session 1 source vlan 10

C.

monitor session 1 source interface FatEtheret0/1 x

D.

monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 7,port-channel8

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Questions 252

Which of the following security methods uses physical characteristics of a person to authorize access to a location?

Options:

A.

Access control vestibule

B.

Palm scanner

C.

PIN pad

D.

Digital card reader

E.

Photo ID

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Exam Code: 350-401
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
Last Update: Apr 25, 2024
Questions: 843

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