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200-201 Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is the impact of encapsulation on the network?

Options:

A.

Something significant is concealed from virtually separate networks.

B.

Logically separate functions in the network are abstracted from their underlying structures.

C.

Numerous local private addresses are mapped to a public one before the data is moved.

D.

Web requests are taken on behalf of users and the response is collected from the web.

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Questions 5

Which artifact is used to uniquely identify a detected file?

Options:

A.

file timestamp

B.

file extension

C.

file size

D.

file hash

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Questions 6

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 6

What does this Cuckoo sandbox report indicate?

Options:

A.

The file is spyware.

B.

The file will open unsecure ports when executed.

C.

The file will open a command interpreter when executed.

D.

The file is ransomware.

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Questions 7

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

privilege escalation

B.

DDoS attack

C.

phishing

D.

man-in-the-middle

E.

pharming

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Questions 8

After a large influx of network traffic to externally facing devices, a security engineer begins investigating what appears to be a denial of service attack When the packet capture data is reviewed, the engineer notices that the traffic is a single SYN packet to each port Which type of attack is occurring?

Options:

A.

traffic fragmentation

B.

port scanning

C.

host profiling

D.

SYN flood

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Questions 9

What technology should be used for the verified and secure exchange of public keys between entities Tom3350050239 and Dan0932353050?

Options:

A.

Initial Key Sharing

B.

Password-Authenticated Key Exchange

C.

Encrypted Key Exchange

D.

Key Encapsulation Mechanism

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Questions 10

Which risk approach eliminates activities posing a risk exposure?

Options:

A.

risk acknowledgment

B.

risk avoidance

C.

risk reduction

D.

risk retention

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Questions 11

Which statement describes patch management?

Options:

A.

scanning servers and workstations for missing patches and vulnerabilities

B.

managing and keeping previous patches lists documented for audit purposes

C.

process of appropriate distribution of system or software updates

D.

workflow of distributing mitigations of newly found vulnerabilities

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Questions 12

What is the impact of false negative alerts when compared to true negative alerts?

Options:

A.

A true negative is a legitimate attack that triggers a brute force alert, and a false negative is when no alert and no attack is occurring.

B.

A true negative is an alert for an exploit attempt when no attack was detected, and a false negative is when no attack happens and an alert is still raised.

C.

A false negative is an event that alerts for injection attack when no attack is happening, and a true negative is an attack that happens and an alert that is appropriately raised.

D.

A false negative is someone trying to hack into the system and no alert is raised, and a true negative is an event that never happened and an alert was not raised.

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Questions 13

Which difficulty occurs when log messages are compared from two devices separated by a Layer 3 device that performs Network Address Translation?

Options:

A.

IP addresses in the log messages match

B.

Timestamps of the log messages are different.

C.

Log messages contain incorrect information

D.

IP addresses in the log messages do not match

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Questions 14

An employee received an email from a colleague’s address asking for the password for the domain controller. The employee noticed a missing letter within the sender’s address. What does this incident describe?

Options:

A.

brute-force attack

B.

insider attack

C.

shoulder surfing

D.

social engineering

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Questions 15

What are two denial of service attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

MITM

B.

TCP connections

C.

ping of death

D.

UDP flooding

E.

code red

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Questions 16

200-201 Question 16

Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?

Options:

A.

info

B.

tags

C.

MIME

D.

name

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Questions 17

An analyst see that this security alert "Default-Botnet-Communication-Detection-By-Endpoint" has been raised from the IPS. The analyst checks and finds that an endpoint communicates to the C&C. How must an impact from this event be categorized?

Options:

A.

true positive

B.

true negative

C.

false positive

D.

false negative

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Questions 18

What is session data used for in network security?

Options:

A.

It is the transaction log between monitoring software.

B.

It contains the set of parameters used for fetching logs.

C.

It is the summary of the transmission between two network devices.

D.

It tracks cookies within each session initiated from a user.

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Questions 19

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?

Options:

A.

Inline interrogation is less complex as traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data.

B.

Traffic mirroring copies the traffic rather than forwarding it directly to the analysis tools

C.

Inline replicates the traffic to preserve integrity rather than modifying packets before sending them to other analysis tools.

D.

Traffic mirroring results in faster traffic analysis and inline is considerably slower due to latency.

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Questions 20

Which regular expression matches "color" and "colour"?

Options:

A.

colo?ur

B.

col[0−8]+our

C.

colou?r

D.

col[0−9]+our

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Questions 21

Which signature impacts network traffic by causing legitimate traffic to be blocked?

Options:

A.

false negative

B.

true positive

C.

true negative

D.

false positive

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Questions 22

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 22

An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized?

Options:

A.

indirect

B.

circumstantial

C.

corroborative

D.

best

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Questions 23

Which type of attack involves sending input commands to a web server to access data?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

Denial of service

C.

Cross-site scripting

D.

DNS poisoning

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Questions 24

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.

200-201 Question 24

Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?

Options:

A.

Base64 encoding

B.

TLS encryption

C.

SHA-256 hashing

D.

ROT13 encryption

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Questions 25

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 25

Which type of log is displayed?

Options:

A.

proxy

B.

NetFlow

C.

IDS

D.

sys

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Questions 26

Which type of data must an engineer capture to analyze payload and header information?

Options:

A.

frame check sequence

B.

alert data

C.

full packet

D.

session logs

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Questions 27

An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Firepower

B.

Email Security Appliance

C.

Web Security Appliance

D.

Stealthwatch

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Questions 28

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 28

Which field contains DNS header information if the payload is a query or a response?

Options:

A.

Z

B.

ID

C.

TC

D.

QR

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Questions 29

A large load of data is being transferred to an external destination via UDP 53 port. Which obfuscation technique is used?

Options:

A.

proxied traffic

B.

C&C connection

C.

data masking

D.

DNS tunneling

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Questions 30

Drag and drop the security concept from the left onto the example of that concept on the right.

200-201 Question 30

Options:

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Questions 31

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 31

A SOC analyst received a message from SIEM about abnormal activity on the Windows server The analyst checked the Windows event log and saw numerous Audit Failures logs. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Windows failed to audit the logs

B.

regular Windows log

C.

brute-force attack

D.

DoS attack

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Questions 32

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag?

Options:

A.

The ACK flag validates the receipt of the previous packet in the stream, and the same session is being closed by the RST flag.

B.

The ACK flag validates the next packets to be sent to a destination, and the RST flag is what the RST returns to indicate that the destination is reachable.

C.

The RST flag identifies the connection as reliable and trustworthy within the handshake process, and the ACK flag prepares a response by opening a session between the source and destination.

D.

The RST flag establishes the communication, and the ACK flag cancels spontaneous connections that were not specifically sent to the expecting host.

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Questions 33

What is a characteristic of a temporal score in CVSS?

Options:

A.

It can change over time

B.

It depends on the environment

C.

It has a vendor fixed value

D.

It is defined by impacted users

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Questions 34

An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and received corporate information, including email distribution lists. The intruder asked the user to engage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected machines and the intruder was able to access the corporate network.

Which testing method did the intruder use?

Options:

A.

social engineering

B.

eavesdropping

C.

piggybacking

D.

tailgating

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Questions 35

Which type of data collection requires the largest amount of storage space?

Options:

A.

alert data

B.

transaction data

C.

session data

D.

full packet capture

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Questions 36

Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the phases on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.

200-201 Question 36

Options:

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Questions 37

200-201 Question 37

Refer to the exhibit. A communication issue exists between hosts 192.168.0.11 and 34.253.101.190. What is a description of the initial TCP connection?

Options:

A.

Handshake has been established

B.

Fin flag is not set

C.

Reset flag is not set

D.

Acknowledge is not set

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Questions 38

Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the description of that evidence on the right.

200-201 Question 38

Options:

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Questions 39

What is a benefit of using asymmetric cryptography?

Options:

A.

decrypts data with one key

B.

fast data transfer

C.

secure data transfer

D.

encrypts data with one key

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Questions 40

What is the practice of giving employees only those permissions necessary to perform their specific role within an organization?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

need to know

C.

integrity validation

D.

due diligence

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Questions 41

Which process represents the application-level allow list?

Options:

A.

allowing everything and denying specific applications protocols

B.

allowing everything and denying specific executable files

C.

allowing specific format files and deny executable files

D.

allowing specific files and deny everything else

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Questions 42

Which technique obtains information about how the system works without knowing it's design details?

Options:

A.

DDOS attack

B.

reverse engineering

C.

DNS spoofing

D.

malware analysis

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Questions 43

What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 4625 in the log messages?

Options:

A.

The system detected an XSS attack

B.

Someone is trying a brute force attack on the network

C.

Another device is gaining root access to the system

D.

A privileged user successfully logged into the system

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Questions 44

What matches the regular expression c(rgr)+e?

Options:

A.

crgrrgre

B.

np+e

C.

c(rgr)e

D.

ce

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Questions 45

200-201 Question 45

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst examines Apache web server logs and notices the entries. Which security concern is occurring?

Options:

A.

Someone is attempting to exploit a vulnerability in XMLRPC functionality

B.

An attacker potentially gained shell access to the web server

C.

The web server is experiencing a denial-of-service attack

D.

A brute-force attack is being attempted against common administrative login pages

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Questions 46

A company receptionist received a threatening call referencing stealing assets and did not take any action assuming it was a social engineering attempt. Within 48 hours, multiple assets were breached, affecting the confidentiality of sensitive information. What is the threat actor in this incident?

Options:

A.

companyassets that are threatened

B.

customer assets that are threatened

C.

perpetrators of the attack

D.

victims of the attack

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Questions 47

What is corroborating evidence?

Options:

A.

Evidence that can be provided to cyber police for further restrictive actions over threat actors

B.

Evidence that can be presented in court in the original form, such as an exact copy of a hard drive

C.

Evidence that tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence

D.

Evidence that relies on an extrapolation to a conclusion of fact, such as fingerprints

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Questions 48

An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.

What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?

Options:

A.

queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed

B.

deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion

C.

is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory

D.

has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software

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Questions 49

A security engineer must investigate a recent breach within the organization. An engineer noticed that a breached workstation is trying to connect to the domain "Ranso4730-mware92-647". which is known as malicious. In which step of the Cyber Kill Chain is this event?

Options:

A.

Vaporization

B.

Delivery

C.

reconnaissance

D.

Action on objectives

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Questions 50

What is email greylisting as implemented by a mail transfer agent (MTA)?

Options:

A.

quarantining emails sent from outside the organization

B.

denying any email from an unrecognized sender

C.

returning emails that are potential phishing attempts

D.

allowing emails from unknown senders temporarily

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Questions 51

In digital communications, which method is recommended for securely exchanging public keys between users T0n2262144790 and D4n4126220794?

Options:

A.

Hardware Security Module

B.

Automated Certificate Management Environment

C.

Pretty Good Privacy

D.

Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

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Questions 52

What describes the vulnerability management process?

Options:

A.

securely observe and supervise devices that access sensitive enterprise data

B.

systems engineering process for establishing and preserving consistency of a product's performance

C.

involves the deployment of hotfixes and patches that are released from time to time

D.

cyclical approach of identifying classifying and mitigating software vulnerabilities

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Questions 53

What is the difference between a vulnerability and an attack surface?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is the risk of exploiting a weakness in the application, and the target application itself is the attack surface

B.

The attack surface is the SQL injection targeted on the database, and the database is the vulnerability that might be exploited.

C.

The attack surface is a sum of measured risks for a particular asset, and the vulnerability is an unmeasured exploitable risk

D.

A vulnerability is unsanitized user input sent to exploit a web application and the browser is the attack surface for the web application

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Questions 54

What describes a buffer overflow attack?

Options:

A.

injecting new commands into existing buffers

B.

fetching data from memory buffer registers

C.

overloading a predefined amount of memory

D.

suppressing the buffers in a process

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Questions 55

A member of the SOC team is checking the dashboard provided by the Cisco Firepower Manager for further Isolation actions. According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of incident response is this action?

Options:

A.

Cost-incident activity phase

B.

Preparation phase

C.

Selection and analyze phase

D.

The radiation and recovery phase

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Questions 56

Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives and false negatives are compared?

Options:

A.

Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system.

B.

Design criteria for reviewing alerts.

C.

Redefine signature rules.

D.

Adjust the alerts schedule.

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Questions 57

Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.

200-201 Question 57

Options:

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Questions 58

200-201 Question 58

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the .pcap file, which DNS server is used to resolve cisco.com?

Options:

A.

224.0.0.251

B.

192.168.2.1

C.

72.163.4.185

D.

192.168.2.104

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Questions 59

An engineer must investigate suspicious connections. Data has been gathered using a tcpdump command on a Linux device and saved as sandboxmatware2022-12-22.pcaps file.The engineer is trying to open the tcpdump in the Wireshark tool. What is the expected result?

Options:

A.

The tool does not support Linux.

B.

The file is opened.

C.

The file has an incorrect extension.

D.

The file does not support the"-" character.

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Questions 60

Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

session duration

B.

total throughput

C.

running processes

D.

listening ports

E.

OS fingerprint

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Questions 61

What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk images affect a security incident? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Untampered images are used in the security investigation process

B.

Tampered images are used in the security investigation process

C.

The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

D.

Tampered images are used in the incident recovery process

E.

The image is untampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

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Questions 62

Which event artifact is used to identify HTTP GET requests for a specific file?

Options:

A.

destination IP address

B.

TCP ACK

C.

HTTP status code

D.

URI

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Questions 63

Which of these is a defense-in-depth strategy principle?

Options:

A.

identify the minimum resource required per employee.

B.

Assign the least network privileges to segment network permissions.

C.

Provide the minimum permissions needed to perform Job functions.

D.

Disable administrative accounts to avoid unauthorized changes.

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Questions 64

Developers must implement tasks on remote Windows environments. They decided to use scripts for enterprise applications through PowerShell. Why does the functionality not work?

Options:

A.

WMI must be configured.

B.

Symlinks must be enabled.

C.

Ext4 must be implemented.

D.

MBR must be set up.

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Questions 65

A system administrator is ensuring that specific registry information is accurate.

Which type of configuration information does the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE hive contain?

Options:

A.

file extension associations

B.

hardware, software, and security settings for the system

C.

currently logged in users, including folders and control panel settings

D.

all users on the system, including visual settings

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Questions 66

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 66

An analyst was given a PCAP file, which is associated with a recent intrusion event in the company FTP server Which display filters should the analyst use to filter the FTP traffic?

Options:

A.

dstport == FTP

B.

tcp.port==21

C.

tcpport = FTP

D.

dstport = 21

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Questions 67

Which type of data consists of connection level, application-specific records generated from network traffic?

Options:

A.

transaction data

B.

location data

C.

statistical data

D.

alert data

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Questions 68

What is personally identifiable information that must be safeguarded from unauthorized access?

Options:

A.

date of birth

B.

driver's license number

C.

gender

D.

zip code

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Questions 69

200-201 Question 69

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC team member receives a case from his colleague with notes attached. The artifacts and alerts associated with the case must be analyzed and a conclusion must be provided. What is the cause of the alert?

Options:

A.

An insider threat compromised the service account to delete sensitive data.

B.

External attackers gained access and are exfiltrating data stealthily.

C.

A ransomware attack is underway, encrypting files and deleting originals.

D.

A misconfigured backup process malfunctioned, causing unexpected file changes.

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Questions 70

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 70

What kind of activity occurs in the network?

Options:

A.

TCP reset attack

B.

DNS redirect attack

C.

DNS flood

D.

UDP flood

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Questions 71

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 71

What is occurring in this network traffic?

Options:

A.

High rate of SYN packets being sent from a multiple source towards a single destination IP.

B.

High rate of ACK packets being sent from a single source IP towards multiple destination IPs.

C.

Flood of ACK packets coming from a single source IP to multiple destination IPs.

D.

Flood of SYN packets coming from a single source IP to a single destination IP.

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Questions 72

A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs?

Options:

A.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name

B.

protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port

C.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and username

D.

protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name

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Questions 73

Which type of data is used to detect anomalies in the network?

Options:

A.

statistical data

B.

alert data

C.

transaction data

D.

metadata

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Questions 74

How is attacking a vulnerability categorized?

Options:

A.

action on objectives

B.

delivery

C.

exploitation

D.

installation

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Questions 75

During which phase of the forensic process are tools and techniques used to extract information from the collected data?

Options:

A.

investigation

B.

examination

C.

reporting

D.

collection

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Questions 76

Which security monitoring data type is associated with application server logs?

Options:

A.

transaction data

B.

session data

C.

alert data

D.

statistical data

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Questions 77

A security engineer must determine why a new core application does not work as desired The client can send requests toward the application server but receives no response One of the requirements is to gather all packets Data needs to be reliable without any delay or packet drops Which solution best meets this need?

Options:

A.

3 device logs

B.

span port

C.

port mirroring

D.

tap device

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Questions 78

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 78

An engineer is analyzing a PCAP file after a recent breach An engineer identified that the attacker used an aggressive ARP scan to scan the hosts and found web and SSH servers. Further analysis showed several SSH Server Banner and Key Exchange Initiations. The engineer cannot see the exact data being transmitted over an encrypted channel and cannot identify how the attacker gained access How did the attacker gain access?

Options:

A.

by using the buffer overflow in the URL catcher feature for SSH

B.

by using an SSH Tectia Server vulnerability to enable host-based authentication

C.

by using an SSH vulnerability to silently redirect connections to the local host

D.

by using brute force on the SSH service to gain access

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Questions 79

Which two protocols are used for DDoS amplification attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ICMPv6

B.

DNS

C.

NTP

D.

TCP

E.

HTTP

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Questions 80

What is a scareware attack?

Options:

A.

using the spoofed email addresses to trick people into providing login credentials

B.

overwhelming a targeted website with fake traffic

C.

gaming access to your computer and encrypting data stored on it

D.

inserting malicious code that causes popup windows with flashing colors

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Questions 81

Which evasion method is being used when TLS is observed between two endpoints?

Options:

A.

Obfuscation

B.

Encryption

C.

X.509 certificate authentication

D.

Traffic insertion

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Questions 82

When communicating via TLS, the client initiates the handshake to the server and the server responds back with its certificate for identification.

Which information is available on the server certificate?

Options:

A.

server name, trusted subordinate CA, and private key

B.

trusted subordinate CA, public key, and cipher suites

C.

trusted CA name, cipher suites, and private key

D.

server name, trusted CA, and public key

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Questions 83

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 83

A company employee is connecting to mail google.com from an endpoint device. The website is loaded but with an error. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking attack

B.

Endpoint local time is invalid.

C.

Certificate is not in trusted roots.

D.

man-m-the-middle attack

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Questions 84

How does an SSL certificate impact security between the client and the server?

Options:

A.

by enabling an authenticated channel between the client and the server

B.

by creating an integrated channel between the client and the server

C.

by enabling an authorized channel between the client and the server

D.

by creating an encrypted channel between the client and the server

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Questions 85

A user reports that a mobile application is working very slowly. A DDoS detection tool reports high-volume traffic. During which phase does the CSIRT ensure that the incident does not continue and confirm that the organization has taken the required actions?

Options:

A.

preparation

B.

containment

C.

recovery

D.

eradication

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Questions 86

A network engineer informed a security team of a large amount of traffic and suspicious activity from an unknown source to the company DMZ server The security team reviewed the data and identified a potential DDoS attempt According to NIST, at which phase of incident response is the security team?

Options:

A.

containment and eradication

B.

preparation

C.

recovery

D.

detection and analysis

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Questions 87

An employee reports that someone has logged into their system and made unapproved changes, files are out of order, and several documents have been placed in the recycle bin. The security specialist reviewed the system logs, found nothing suspicious, and was not able to determine what occurred. The software is up to date; there are no alerts from antivirus and no failed login attempts. What is causing the lack of data visibility needed to detect the attack?

Options:

A.

The threat actor used a dictionary-based password attack to obtain credentials.

B.

The threat actor gained access to the system by known credentials.

C.

The threat actor used the teardrop technique to confuse and crash login services.

D.

The threat actor used an unknown vulnerability of the operating system that went undetected.

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Questions 88

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 88

What is occurring in this network?

Options:

A.

ARP cache poisoning

B.

DNS cache poisoning

C.

MAC address table overflow

D.

MAC flooding attack

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Questions 89

Drag and drop the data sources from the left onto the corresponding data types on the right.

200-201 Question 89

Options:

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Questions 90

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 90

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Identifying possible malware communications and botnet activity

B.

Monitoring of encrypted and unencrypted web sessions for diagnostics.

C.

Analysis of traffic flows during network capacity testing

D.

Review of session logs for performance optimization in a distributed application environment

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Questions 91

Which statement describes threat hunting?

Options:

A.

It is an activity by an entity to deliberately bring down critical internal servers.

B.

It is a prevention activity to detect signs of intrusion, compromise, data theft, abnormalities, or malicious activity.

C.

It includes any activity that might go after competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their systems.

D.

It is a vulnerability assessment conducted by cyber professionals.

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Questions 92

What is an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations

B.

an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements

C.

an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration of operational services

D.

an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations

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Questions 93

A CMS plugin creates two files that are accessible from the Internet myplugin html and exploitable php A newly discovered exploit takes advantage of an injection vulnerability m exploitable php To exploit the vulnerability an HTTP POST must be sent with specific variables to exploitable php A security engineer notices traffic to the webserver that consists of only HTTP GET requests to myplugin html Which category does this activity fall under?

Options:

A.

weaponization

B.

installation

C.

reconnaissance

D.

exploitation

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Questions 94

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

Options:

A.

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

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Questions 95

Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?

Options:

A.

The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.

B.

The total incident escalations per week.

C.

The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.

D.

The total incident escalations per month.

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Questions 96

What is used to maintain persistent control of an exploited device?

Options:

A.

rootkit

B.

ARP spoof

C.

DDoS

D.

encryption

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Questions 97

A suspicious user opened a connection from a compromised host inside an organization. Traffic was going through a router and the network administrator was able to identify this flow. The admin was following 5-tuple to collect needed data. Which information was gathered based on this approach?

Options:

A.

direct path

B.

user name

C.

protocol

D.

NAT

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Questions 98

What is the principle of defense-in-depth?

Options:

A.

Agentless and agent-based protection for security are used.

B.

Several distinct protective layers are involved.

C.

Access control models are involved.

D.

Authentication, authorization, and accounting mechanisms are used.

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Questions 99

Which technology prevents end-device to end-device IP traceability?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

load balancing

C.

NAT/PAT

D.

tunneling

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Questions 100

A company encountered a breach on its web servers using IIS 7 5 Dunng the investigation, an engineer discovered that an attacker read and altered the data on a secure communication using TLS 1 2 and intercepted sensitive information by downgrading a connection to export-grade cryptography. The engineer must mitigate similar incidents in the future and ensure that clients and servers always negotiate with the most secure protocol versions and cryptographic parameters. Which action does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

Upgrade to TLS v1 3.

B.

Install the latest IIS version.

C.

Downgrade to TLS 1.1.

D.

Deploy an intrusion detection system

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Questions 101

Which system monitors local system operation and local network access for violations of a security policy?

Options:

A.

host-based intrusion detection

B.

systems-based sandboxing

C.

host-based firewall

D.

antivirus

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Questions 102

What is the name of the technology that searches for and reports on known weaknesses and flaws present in an organization’s IT infrastructure?

Options:

A.

vulnerability scanner

B.

identity and access management

C.

configuration management

D.

mobile device management

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Questions 103

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 103

What does this output indicate?

Options:

A.

HTTPS ports are open on the server.

B.

SMB ports are closed on the server.

C.

FTP ports are open on the server.

D.

Email ports are closed on the server.

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Questions 104

A developer is working on a project using a Linux tool that enables writing processes to obtain these required results:

If the process is unsuccessful, a negative value is returned.

If the process is successful, 0 value is returned to the child process, and the process ID is sent to the parent process.

Which component results from this operation?

Options:

A.

parent directory name of a file pathname

B.

process spawn scheduled

C.

macros for managing CPU sets

D.

new process created by parent process

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Questions 105

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?

Options:

A.

The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

B.

The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

C.

The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

D.

The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

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Questions 106

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

Options:

A.

examination

B.

investigation

C.

collection

D.

reporting

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Questions 107

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 107

A security analyst wraps up the shift and passed open ticket notes to the night shift SOC team analyst. The ticket name in question is "Investigating suspicious activity on a Windows Server’’. Which operating system components must the analyst prioritize to uncover the attacker's persistence mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Review the Windows Defender setup and failed login attempts in Event Viewer

B.

Investigate the Task Scheduler entries and Windows Defender settings.

C.

Analyze the Windows Registry changes and Task Scheduler tasks.

D.

Focus on the user account log-ins and delete newly added Run keys in the registry

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Questions 108

What is rule-based detection when compared to statistical detection?

Options:

A.

proof of a user's identity

B.

proof of a user's action

C.

likelihood of user's action

D.

falsification of a user's identity

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Questions 109

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

Options:

A.

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach.

B.

True positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability.

C.

False positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach.

D.

False positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability.

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Questions 110

What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?

Options:

A.

principle of least privilege

B.

organizational separation

C.

separation of duties

D.

need to know principle

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Questions 111

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.

Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4

B.

Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4 and deep packet inspection verifies connection at Layer 7

C.

Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7

D.

Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7 and stateful inspection allows visibility on Layer 4

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Questions 112

An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage7

Options:

A.

Run "ps -ef to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources

B.

Run "ps -u" to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server

C.

Run "ps -m" to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap

D.

Run "ps -d" to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion

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Questions 113

Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

200-201 Question 113

Options:

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Questions 114

Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than normal to prevent detection?

Options:

A.

timing attack

B.

traffic fragmentation

C.

resource exhaustion

D.

tunneling

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Questions 115

200-201 Question 115

Refer to the exhibit Which TLS version does this client support?

Options:

A.

13

B.

1.0 and 1.2

C.

12

D.

1.1 and 13

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Questions 116

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 116

Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

200-201 Question 116

Options:

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Questions 117

What describes the impact of false-positive alerts compared to false-negative alerts?

Options:

A.

A false negative is alerting for an XSS attack. An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an XSS attack happened A false positive is when an XSS attack happens and no alert is raised

B.

A false negative is a legitimate attack triggering a brute-force alert. An engineer investigates the alert and finds out someone intended to break into the system A false positive is when no alert and no attack is occurring

C.

A false positive is an event alerting for a brute-force attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that a legitimate user entered the wrong credential several times A false negative is when a threat actor tries to brute-force attack a system and no alert is raised.

D.

A false positive is an event alerting for an SQL injection attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an attack attempt was blocked by IPS A false negative is when the attack gets detected but succeeds and results in a breach.

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Questions 118

What ate two categories of DDoS attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

split brain

B.

scanning

C.

phishing

D.

reflected

E.

direct

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Questions 119

Which attack method intercepts traffic on a switched network?

Options:

A.

denial of service

B.

ARP cache poisoning

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

command and control

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Questions 120

What describes the concept of data consistently and readily being accessible for legitimate users?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

availability

C.

accessibility

D.

confidentiality

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Questions 121

STION NO: 102

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 121

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Options:

A.

A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

B.

A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.

C.

There are three active data exfiltration alerts.

D.

A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.

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Questions 122

Which vulnerability type is used to read, write, or erase information from a database?

Options:

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

cross-site request forgery

C.

buffer overflow

D.

SQL injection

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Questions 123

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag?

Options:

A.

The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag terminates spontaneous connections.

B.

The ACK flag confirms the received segment, and the RST flag terminates the connection.

C.

The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag indicates that a packet needs to be resent

D.

The ACK flag marks the connection as reliable, and the RST flag indicates the failure within TCP Handshake

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Questions 124

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 124

Which technology produced the log?

Options:

A.

antivirus

B.

IPS/IDS

C.

proxy

D.

firewall

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Questions 125

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?

Options:

A.

TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter integrity and provides full duplex network.

B.

SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.

C.

TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools

D.

SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.

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Questions 126

A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an ISO file that is saved in CDFS format. Which type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

CD data copy prepared in Windows

B.

CD data copy prepared in Mac-based system

C.

CD data copy prepared in Linux system

D.

CD data copy prepared in Android-based system

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Questions 127

What is vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points.

B.

A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats.

C.

A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses.

D.

A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications

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Questions 128

200-201 Question 128

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC engineer is analyzing Cuckoo Sandbox report for a file that has been identified as suspicious by the endpoint security system. What is the state of the file?

Options:

A.

The file was identified as PE32 executable with a high level of entropy to bypass AV via encryption.

B.

The file was detected as an executable binary file, but no suspicious activity was detected and it is false positive.

C.

The file was detected as executable and was marked by the SSDeep hashing algorithm as suspicious.

D.

The file identified as an executable binary for Microsoft Word with macros creating hidden process via PowerShell.

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Questions 129

Which security monitoring data type requires the largest storage space?

Options:

A.

transaction data

B.

statistical data

C.

session data

D.

full packet capture

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Questions 130

Which principle is being followed when an analyst gathers information relevant to a security incident to determine the appropriate course of action?

Options:

A.

decision making

B.

rapid response

C.

data mining

D.

due diligence

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Questions 131

Exhibit.

200-201 Question 131

An engineer received a ticket about a slowdown of a web application, Drug analysis of traffic, the engineer suspects a possible attack on a web server. How should the engineer interpret the Wiresharat traffic capture?

Options:

A.

10.0.0.2 sends GET/ HTTP/1.1 And Post request and the target responds with HTTP/1.1. 200 OC and HTTP/1.1 403 accordingly. This is an HTTP flood attempt.

B.

10.0.0.2 sends HTTP FORBIDDEN /1.1 And Post request, while the target responds with HTTP/1.1 200 Get and HTTP/1.1 403. This is an HTTP GET flood attack.

C.

10.128.0.2 sends POST/1.1 And POST requests, and the target responds with HTTP/1.1 200 Ok and HTTP/1.1 403 accordingly. This is an HTTP Reserve Bandwidth flood.

D.

10.128.0.2 sends HTTP/FORBIDDEN/ 1.1 and Get requests, and the target responds with HTTP/1.1 200 OK and HTTP/1.1 403. This is an HTTP cache bypass attack.

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Questions 132

What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?

Options:

A.

A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent the communication between sandboxes.

B.

A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.

C.

A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.

D.

A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.

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Questions 133

What is a disadvantage of the asymmetric encryption system?

Options:

A.

It is slow compared to the symmetric encryption system.

B.

Asymmetric encryption is used to transfer the data, and symmetric is used to encrypt small chunks of data.

C.

Asymmetric encryption is an old technique, and symmetric encryption is the newer one.

D.

It is less secure because it uses a single key for encryption.

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Questions 134

How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?

Options:

A.

An attack vector recognizes the potential outcomes of an attack, and the attack surface is choosing a method of an attack.

B.

An attack surface identifies vulnerable parts for an attack, and an attack vector specifies which attacks are feasible to those parts.

C.

An attack surface mitigates external vulnerabilities, and an attack vector identifies mitigation techniques and possible workarounds.

D.

An attack vector matches components that can be exploited, and an attack surface classifies the potential path for exploitation

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Questions 135

What does the SOC metric MTTC provide in incident analysis'?

Options:

A.

average time it takes to fix the issues caused by the incident

B.

average time it takes to recognize and stop the incident

C.

average time it takes to detect that the incident has occurred

D.

average time the attacker has access to the environment

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Questions 136

Drag and drop the technologies from the left onto the data types the technologies provide on the right.

200-201 Question 136

Options:

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Questions 137

If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?

Options:

A.

input validation

B.

hash collision

C.

integer overflow

D.

command injection

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Questions 138

What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ?

Options:

A.

additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients

B.

unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic

C.

deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network

D.

attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network

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Questions 139

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 139

An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?

Options:

A.

The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.

B.

The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.

C.

The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.

D.

The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.

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Questions 140

Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?

Options:

A.

detection and analysis

B.

post-incident activity

C.

preparation

D.

containment, eradication, and recovery

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Questions 141

200-201 Question 141

Refer to the exhibit A penetration tester runs the Nmap scan against the company server to uncover possible vulnerabilities and exploit them Which two elements can the penetration tester identity from the scan results? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UIDs and group identifiers

B.

number of concurrent connections the server can handle

C.

running services and applications

D.

server uptime and internal clock

E.

server purpose and functionality

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Questions 142

An engineer is investigating a case of the unauthorized usage of the “Tcpdump” tool. The analysis revealed that a malicious insider attempted to sniff traffic on a specific interface. What type of information did the malicious insider attempt to obtain?

Options:

A.

tagged protocols being used on the network

B.

all firewall alerts and resulting mitigations

C.

tagged ports being used on the network

D.

all information and data within the datagram

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Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)
Last Update: Mar 5, 2026
Questions: 476

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