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156-315.81 Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The essential means by which state synchronization works to provide failover in the event an active member goes down, ____________ is used specifically for clustered environments to allow gateways to report their own state and learn about the states of other members in the cluster.

Options:

A.

ccp

B.

cphaconf

C.

cphad

D.

cphastart

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Questions 5

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

Options:

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

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Questions 6

What processes does CPM control?

Options:

A.

Object-Store, Database changes, CPM Process and web-services

B.

web-services, CPMI process, DLEserver, CPM process

C.

DLEServer, Object-Store, CP Process and database changes

D.

web_services, dle_server and object_Store

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Questions 7

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

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Questions 8

What are the blades of Threat Prevention?

Options:

A.

IPS, DLP, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

B.

DLP, AntiVirus, QoS, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

C.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot

D.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

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Questions 9

Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within:

Options:

A.

Summary

B.

Views

C.

Reports

D.

Checkups

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Questions 10

NO: 180

What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?

Options:

A.

cpinfo -hf

B.

cpinfo –y all

C.

cpinfo –get hf

D.

cpinfo installed_jumbo

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Questions 11

Which statements below are CORRECT regarding Threat Prevention profiles in Smart Dashboard?

Options:

A.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule Only.

B.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule only.

C.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

D.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

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Questions 12

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

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Questions 13

As an administrator, you may be required to add the company logo to reports. To do this, you would save the logo as a PNG file with the name ‘cover-company-logo.png’ and then copy that image file to which directory on the SmartEvent server?

Options:

A.

SFWDIR/smartevent/conf

B.

$RTDIR/smartevent/conf

C.

$RTDIR/smartview/conf

D.

$FWDIR/smartview/conf

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Questions 14

When installing a dedicated R81 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20GB

D.

At least 20GB

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Questions 15

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

Options:

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

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Questions 16

You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?

Options:

A.

cpinfo –h all

B.

cpinfo –o hotfix

C.

cpinfo –l hotfix

D.

cpinfo –y all

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Questions 17

What are the main stages of a policy installations?

Options:

A.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit

B.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation

C.

Verification, Commit, Installation

D.

Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation

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Questions 18

You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.

What must you do to get SIC to work?

Options:

A.

Remove Geo-Protection, as the IP-to-country database is updated externally, and you have no control of this.

B.

Create a rule at the top in the Sydney firewall to allow control traffic from your network

C.

Nothing - Check Point control connections function regardless of Geo-Protection policy

D.

Create a rule at the top in your Check Point firewall to bypass the Geo-Protection

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Questions 19

What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?

Options:

A.

6 GB

B.

8GB with Gaia in 64-bit mode

C.

4 GB

D.

It depends on the number of software blades enabled

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Questions 20

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

Options:

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

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Questions 21

Check Point security components are divided into the following components:

Options:

A.

GUI Client, Security Gateway, WebUI Interface

B.

GUI Client, Security Management, Security Gateway

C.

Security Gateway, WebUI Interface, Consolidated Security Logs

D.

Security Management, Security Gateway, Consolidate Security Logs

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Questions 22

When using CPSTAT, what is the default port used by the AMON server?

Options:

A.

18191

B.

18192

C.

18194

D.

18190

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Questions 23

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

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Questions 24

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

Options:

A.

For short connections like http service – delay sync for 2 seconds

B.

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

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Questions 25

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

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Questions 26

Bob has finished io setup provisioning a secondary security management server. Now he wants to check if the provisioning has been correct. Which of the following Check Point command can be used to check if the security management server has been installed as a primary or a secondary security management server?

Options:

A.

cpprod_util MgmtlsPrimary

B.

cpprod_util FwlsSecondary

C.

cpprod_util MgmtlsSecondary

D.

cpprod_util FwlsPrimary

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Questions 27

NO: 219

What cloud-based SandBlast Mobile application is used to register new devices and users?

Options:

A.

Check Point Protect Application

B.

Management Dashboard

C.

Behavior Risk Engine

D.

Check Point Gateway

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Questions 28

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.

Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

Options:

A.

IKE Phase 1

B.

IPSEC Phase 2

C.

IPSEC Phase 1

D.

IKE Phase 2

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Questions 29

You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:

Options:

A.

R81.10 SmartConsole and Application Wiki

B.

Threat Prevention and Threat Tools

C.

Threat Wiki and Check Point Website

D.

R81.10 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention

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Questions 30

Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace both offer secured connection for remote users who are using their mobile devices. However, there are differences between the two.

Which of the following statements correctly identify each product's capabilities?

Options:

A.

Workspace supports ios operating system, Android, and WP8, whereas Connect supports ios operating system and Android only

B.

For compliance/host checking, Workspace offers the MDM cooperative enforcement, whereas Connect offers both jailbreak/root detection and MDM cooperative enforcement.

C.

For credential protection, Connect uses One-time Password login support and has no SSO support, whereas Workspace offers both One-Time Password and certain SSO login support.

D.

Workspace can support any application, whereas Connect has a limited number of application types which it will support.

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Questions 31

Bob needs to know if Alice was configuring the new virtual cluster interface correctly. Which of the following Check Point commands is true?

Options:

A.

cphaprob-aif

B.

cp hap rob state

C.

cphaprob list

D.

probcpha -a if

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Questions 32

Aaron is a Syber Security Engineer working for Global Law Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances running GAiA R81.X The Network Security Developer Team is having an issue testing the API with a newly deployed R81.X Security Management Server Aaron wants to confirm API services are working properly. What should he do first?

Options:

A.

Aaron should check API Server status with "fwm api status" from Expert mode If services are stopped, he should start them with "fwm api start".

B.

Aaron should check API Server status with "cpapi status" from Expert mode. If services are stopped, he should start them with "cpapi start"

C.

Aaron should check API Server status with "api status" from Expert mode If services are stopped, he should start them with "api start"

D.

Aaron should check API Server status with "cpm api status" from Expert mode. If services are stopped, he should start them with "cpi api start".

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Questions 33

What is the base level encryption key used by Capsule Docs?

Options:

A.

RSA 2048

B.

RSA 1024

C.

SHA-256

D.

AES

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Questions 34

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole

B.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server

D.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

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Questions 35

Which one is not a valid Package Option In the Web GUI for CPUSE?

Options:

A.

Clean Install

B.

Export Package

C.

Upgrade

D.

Database Conversion to R81.10 only

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Questions 36

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the status of processes.

B.

Sending and receiving logs.

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server.

D.

Generating and modifying certificates.

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Questions 37

In R81, where do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Options:

A.

Access Control Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

Shared Gateways Policy

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

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Questions 38

True or False: In R81, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.

Options:

A.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

B.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.

C.

True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators.

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission.

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Questions 39

Fill in the blank: A ________ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate resources by authenticating the user through an internet browser.

Options:

A.

Clientless remote access

B.

Clientless direct access

C.

Client-based remote access

D.

Direct access

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Questions 40

Bob is going to prepare the import of the exported R81.10 management database. Now he wants to verify that the installed tools on the new target security management machine are able to handle the R81.10 release. Which of the following Check Point command is true?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_installed_tools -v R77.30

B.

$CPDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_installed_tools -v R81.10

C.

$FWDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_installed_tools -v R81.10

D.

$FWDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_uninstalled_tools -v R81.10

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Questions 41

By default, how often does Threat Emulation update the engine on the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Once per day

B.

Once an hour

C.

Once a week

D.

Twice per day

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Questions 42

SecureXL is able to accelerate the Connection Rate using templates. Which attributes are used in the template to identify the connection?

Options:

A.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port

B.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port

C.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port. Pro^col

D.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port. Protocol

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Questions 43

What are the modes of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

Options:

A.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

B.

Cloud. OpenServer and Vmware

C.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

D.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

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Questions 44

What command is used to manually failover a cluster during a zero-downtime upgrade?

Options:

A.

set cluster member down

B.

cpstop

C.

clusterXL_admin down

D.

set clusterXL down

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Questions 45

Which of the following Central Deployment is NOT a limitation in R81.10 SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway Clusters in Load Sharing mode

B.

Dedicated Log Server

C.

Dedicated SmartEvent Server

D.

Security Gateways/Clusters in ClusterXL HA new mode

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Questions 46

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

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Questions 47

Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

Always delivers a file to user

B.

Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files

C.

Can take up to 3 minutes to complete

D.

Delivers file only if no threats found

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Questions 48

What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int cpsead_stat

B.

cpstat cpsead

C.

fw ctl stat cpsemd

D.

cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

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Questions 49

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Questions 50

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

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Questions 51

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode.

B.

Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA.

C.

You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario.

D.

It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance.

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Questions 52

Which statement is true about ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast and Multicast)

B.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast Only)

C.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Multicast Only)

D.

Does not support Dynamic Routing

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Questions 53

Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R81.10 SmartConsole application?

Options:

A.

IPS, Anti-Bot, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation.

B.

Firewall, IPS, Threat Emulation, Application Control.

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation, Threat Extraction.

D.

Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation.

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Questions 54

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

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Questions 55

Which of the following links will take you to the SmartView web application?

Options:

A.

https:// /smartviewweb/

B.

https:// /smartview/

C.

https:// smartviewweb

D.

https:// /smartview

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Questions 56

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

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Questions 57

What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

Options:

A.

Firewall logs

B.

Configuration and database files

C.

System message logs

D.

OS and network statistics

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Questions 58

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

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Questions 59

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

Options:

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

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Questions 60

What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer

B.

SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig

C.

fwaccel commands can be used in clish

D.

Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture

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Questions 61

SecureXL improves non-encrypted firewall traffic throughput and encrypted VPN traffic throughput.

Options:

A.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve all traffic.

B.

This statement is false because SecureXL does not improve this traffic but CoreXL does.

C.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve this traffic.

D.

This statement is false because encrypted traffic cannot be inspected.

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Questions 62

Please choose correct command to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

Options:

A.

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt: add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

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Questions 63

The log server sends what to the Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

Authentication requests

B.

CPMI dbsync

C.

Logs

D.

Event Policy

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Questions 64

Alice wants to upgrade the current security management machine from R80.40 to R81.10 and she wants to check the Deployment Agent status over the GAIA CLISH. Which of the following GAIACLISH command is true?

Options:

A.

show agent status

B.

show uninstaller status

C.

show installer packages

D.

show installer status

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Questions 65

Which component is NOT required to communicate with the Web Services API?

Options:

A.

API key

B.

session ID token

C.

content-type

D.

Request payload

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Questions 66

When configuring SmartEvent Initial settings, you must specify a basic topology for SmartEvent to help it calculate traffic direction for events. What is this setting called and what are you defining?

Options:

A.

Network, and defining your Class A space

B.

Topology, and you are defining the Internal network

C.

Internal addresses you are defining the gateways

D.

Internal network(s) you are defining your networks

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Questions 67

What feature allows Remote-access VPN users to access resources across a site-to-site VPN tunnel?

Options:

A.

Specific VPN Communities

B.

Remote Access VPN Switch

C.

Mobile Access VPN Domain

D.

Network Access VPN Domain

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Questions 68

When using the Mail Transfer Agent, where are the debug logs stored?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/bin/emaild.mta. elg

B.

$FWDIR/log/mtad elg

C.

/var/log/mail.mta elg

D.

$CPDIR/log/emaild elg

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Questions 69

You have used the "set inactivity-timeout 120" command to prevent the session to be disconnected after 10 minutes of inactivity. However, the Web session is being disconnected after 10 minutes. Why?

Options:

A.

The idle timeout for the web session is specified with the "set web session-timeout" command.

B.

The number specified is the amount of the idle timeout in seconds rather than in minutes. So you have to use the command "set inactivity-timeout 600" instead.

C.

Probably, you have forgotten to make sure that nobody is accessing the management server via the SmartConsole which locks the management database.

D.

The number of minutes is correct. Probably, you have forgotten to save this setting with the "save config" command.

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Questions 70

How can you see historical data with cpview?

Options:

A.

cpview -f

B.

cpview -e

C.

cpview -t

D.

cpview -d

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Questions 71

Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?

Options:

A.

cpwd

B.

fwd

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

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Questions 72

Which command shows the current connections distributed by CoreXL FW instances?

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik stat

B.

fw ctl affinity -l

C.

fw ctl instances -v

D.

fw ctl iflist

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Questions 73

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server, where it is forwarded to___________via____________

Options:

A.

cpd, fwm

B.

cpm, cpd

C.

fwm, cpd

D.

cpwd, fwssd

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Questions 74

What are the minimum open server hardware requirements for a Security Management Server/Standalone in R81?

Options:

A.

2 CPU cores, 4GB of RAM and 15GB of disk space

B.

8 CPU cores, 16GB of RAM and 500 GB of disk space

C.

4 CPU cores, 8GB of RAM and 500GB of disk space

D.

8 CPU cores, 32GB of RAM and 1 TB of disk space

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Questions 75

Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?

Options:

A.

Read/Write, Read Only

B.

Read/Write, Read Only, None

C.

Read/Write, None

D.

Read Only, None

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Questions 76

What should the admin do in case the Primary Management Server is temporary down?

Options:

A.

Use the VIP in SmartConsole you always reach the active Management Server.

B.

The Secondary will take over automatically Change the IP in SmartConsole to logon to the private IP of the Secondary Management Server.

C.

Run the 'promote_util' to activate the Secondary Management server

D.

Logon with SmartConsole to the Secondary Management Server and choose "Make Active' under Actions in the HA Management Menu

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Questions 77

Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?

Options:

A.

Support for IPv6

B.

Granular access control

C.

Strong user authentication

D.

Secure connectivity

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Questions 78

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

Options:

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

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Questions 79

: 156

VPN Link Selection will perform the following when the primary VPN link goes down?

Options:

A.

The Firewall will drop the packets.

B.

The Firewall can update the Link Selection entries to start using a different link for the same tunnel.

C.

The Firewall will send out the packet on all interfaces.

D.

The Firewall will inform the client that the tunnel is down.

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Questions 80

What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?

Options:

A.

new host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

B.

set host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

C.

create host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

D.

add host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

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Questions 81

When setting up an externally managed log server, what is one item that will not be configured on the R81 Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

IP

B.

SIC

C.

NAT

D.

FQDN

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Questions 82

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –f register

B.

cphaprob –d –s report

C.

cpstat –f all

D.

cphaprob –a list

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Questions 83

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Wire Mode configuration, chain modules marked with ____________ will not apply.

Options:

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

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Questions 84

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

Options:

A.

Once a week

B.

Once an hour

C.

Twice per day

D.

Once per day

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Questions 85

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

Options:

A.

Analyzes each log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

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Questions 86

Where do you create and modify the Mobile Access policy in R81?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole

B.

SmartMonitor

C.

SmartEndpoint

D.

SmartDashboard

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Questions 87

Which Check Point daemon monitors the other daemons?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpd

C.

cpwd

D.

fwssd

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Questions 88

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.

Proactively detects threats.

C.

Delivers file with original content.

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

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Questions 89

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

Options:

A.

Big l

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

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Questions 90

Which CLI command will reset the IPS pattern matcher statistics?

Options:

A.

ips reset pmstat

B.

ips pstats reset

C.

ips pmstats refresh

D.

ips pmstats reset

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Questions 91

In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Options:

A.

Through the Unified Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

From SmartDashboard

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

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Questions 92

What is the difference between an event and a log?

Options:

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

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Questions 93

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

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Questions 94

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Questions 95

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

Options:

A.

clusterXL_admin down

B.

cphaprob_admin down

C.

clusterXL_admin down-p

D.

set clusterXL down-p

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Questions 96

The Firewall Administrator is required to create 100 new host objects with different IP addresses. What API command can he use in the script to achieve the requirement?

Options:

A.

add host name ip-address

B.

add hostname ip-address

C.

set host name ip-address

D.

set hostname ip-address

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Questions 97

What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

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Questions 98

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

Options:

A.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

B.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

C.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

D.

Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

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Questions 99

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

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Questions 100

Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some graphs, tables and links.

Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?

Options:

A.

SandBlast Threat Emulation

B.

SandBlast Agent

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

SandBlast Threat Extraction

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Questions 101

What is the command switch to specify the Gaia API context?

Options:

A.

You have to specify it in the YAML file api.yml which is located underneath the /etc. directory of the security management server

B.

You have to change to the zsh-Shell which defaults to the Gaia API context.

C.

No need to specify a context, since it defaults to the Gaia API context.

D.

mgmt_cli --context gaia_api

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Questions 102

In R81.10 a new feature dynamic log distribution was added. What is this for?

  • Configure the Security Gateway to distribute logs between multiple active Log Servers to support a better rate of Logs and Log Servers redundancy

  • In case of a Management High Availability the management server stores the logs dynamically on the member with the most available disk space in /var/log

  • Synchronize the log between the primary and secondary management server in case of a Management High Availability

Options:

A.

To save disk space in case of a firewall cluster local logs are distributed between the cluster members.

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Questions 103

Which process is used mainly for backward compatibility of gateways in R81.X? It provides communication with GUI-client, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization.

Options:

A.

cpm

B.

fwd

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

D18912E1457D5D1DDCBD40AB3BF70D5D

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Questions 104

After verifying that API Server is not running, how can you start the API Server?

Options:

A.

Run command "set api start" in CLISH mode

B.

Run command "mgmt__cli set api start" in Expert mode

C.

Run command "mgmt api start" in CLISH mode

D.

Run command "api start" in Expert mode

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Questions 105

Check Point Support in many cases asks you for a configuration summary of your Check Point system. This is also called:

Options:

A.

cpexport

B.

sysinfo

C.

cpsizeme

D.

cpinfo

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Questions 106

What CLI utility runs connectivity tests from a Security Gateway to an AD domain controller?

Options:

A.

test_connectivity_ad –d

B.

test_ldap_connectivity –d

C.

test_ad_connectivity –d

D.

ad_connectivity_test –d

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Questions 107

You pushed a policy to your gateway and you cannot access the gateway remotely any more. What command should you use to remove the policy from the gateway by logging in through console access?

Options:

A.

"fw cpstop"

B.

"fw unloadlocal"

C.

"fwundo"

D.

"fw unloadpolicy''

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Questions 108

Choose the correct syntax to add a new host named “emailserver1” with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA Management CLI?

Options:

A.

mgmt_cli add host name “myHost12 ip” address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt_cli add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

mgmt_cli add host “emailserver1” address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt_cli add host name “emailserver1” ip-address 10.50.23.90

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Questions 109

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

Monitor

B.

CLI.sh

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Questions 110

What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination or client side’ is not enabled in Global Properties?

Options:

A.

A host route to route to the destination IP.

B.

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work.

C.

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary.

D.

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly.

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Questions 111

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

Options:

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

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Questions 112

Using fw monitor you see the following inspection point notion E and i what does that mean?

Options:

A.

E shows the packet before the VPN encryption, i after the inbound firewall VM

B.

E shows the packet reaching the external interface, i leaving the internal interface

C.

E shows the packet after the VPN encryption, i before the inbound firewall VM

D.

E shows the packet leaving the external interface, i reaching the internal interface

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Questions 113

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

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Questions 114

What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Mode

B.

VPN Routing Mode

C.

Wire Mode

D.

Stateless Mode

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Questions 115

What command verifies that the API server is responding?

Options:

A.

api stat

B.

api status

C.

show api_status

D.

app_get_status

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Questions 116

You want to gather and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Client Info

B.

SecuRemote

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

Check Point Capsule Cloud

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Questions 117

On R81.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Options:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

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Questions 118

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

E.

SmartEvent

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Questions 119

R81.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Options:

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Versions R75 and higher

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Questions 120

What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

Options:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

4

D.

6

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Questions 121

fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

cpwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

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Questions 122

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

Options:

A.

fw conn all

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

show all connections

D.

show connections

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Questions 123

What happen when IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?

Options:

A.

It will generate Geo-Protection traffic

B.

Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center

C.

It will not block malicious traffic

D.

Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control

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Questions 124

Which features are only supported with R81.10 Gateways but not R77.x?

Options:

A.

Access Control policy unifies the Firewall, Application Control & URL Filtering, Data Awareness, and Mobile Access Software Blade policies.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

D.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

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Questions 125

Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set_ccp multicast

B.

cphaconf set_ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf set_ccp no_broadcast

D.

cphaprob set_ccp no_broadcast

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Questions 126

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

Options:

A.

In R81, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R81, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R81, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R81, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

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Questions 127

What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?

Options:

A.

The Database revisions will not be synchronized between the management servers

B.

SmartConsole must be closed prior to synchronized changes in the objects database

C.

If you wanted to use Full Connectivity Upgrade, you must change the Implied Rules to allow FW1_cpredundant to pass before the Firewall Control Connections.

D.

For Management Server synchronization, only External Virtual Switches are supported. So, if you wanted to employ Virtual Routers instead, you have to reconsider your design.

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Questions 128

What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

With SDF enabled, the involved VPN Gateways only supports IKEv1

B.

Acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF

C.

With SDF enabled, only ClusterXL in legacy mode is supported

D.

With SDF enabled, you can only have three Sync interfaces at most

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Questions 129

Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

Options:

A.

R81 Management API-

B.

Identity Awareness Web Services API

C.

Open REST API

D.

OPSEC SDK

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Questions 130

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

Options:

A.

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then Reboot.

B.

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu.

C.

Edit/proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot.

D.

run fw multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot.

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Questions 131

The Event List within the Event tab contains:

Options:

A.

a list of options available for running a query.

B.

the top events, destinations, sources, and users of the query results, either as a chart or in a tallied list.

C.

events generated by a query.

D.

the details of a selected event.

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Questions 132

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

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Questions 133

Which of the following process pulls application monitoring status?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpwd

D.

cpd

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Questions 134

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

B.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on

C.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

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Questions 135

Which of the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

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Questions 136

Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

Options:

A.

Check Point Remote User

B.

Check Point Capsule Workspace

C.

Check Point Mobile Web Portal

D.

Check Point Capsule Remote

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Questions 137

During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

Options:

A.

Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation

B.

Host having a Critical event found by IPS

C.

Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus

D.

Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot

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Questions 138

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

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Questions 139

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Drop

C.

NAT

D.

None

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Questions 140

What are the different command sources that allow you to communicate with the API server?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

B.

SmartConsole GUI Console, mgmt_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

C.

SmartConsole GUI Console, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

D.

API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

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Questions 141

Which of the following authentication methods ARE NOT used for Mobile Access?

Options:

A.

RADIUS server

B.

Username and password (internal, LDAP)

C.

SecurID

D.

TACACS+

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Questions 142

Fill in the blank: The tool _____ generates a R81 Security Gateway configuration report.

Options:

A.

infoCP

B.

infoview

C.

cpinfo

D.

fw cpinfo

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Questions 143

SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

Options:

A.

Management Dashboard

B.

Gateway

C.

Personal User Storage

D.

Behavior Risk Engine

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Questions 144

Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

Options:

A.

15 sec

B.

60 sec

C.

5 sec

D.

30 sec

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Questions 145

When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.

Options:

A.

SecureID

B.

SecurID

C.

Complexity

D.

TacAcs

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Questions 146

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.

Options:

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport -p

D.

cpinfo –recover

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Questions 147

In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is the most accurate CLI command?

Options:

A.

fw ctl sdstat

B.

fw ctl affinity –l –a –r –v

C.

fw ctl multik stat

D.

cpinfo

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Questions 148

Which of the following is a new R81 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies ae sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

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Questions 149

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

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Questions 150

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Stateful Inspection

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

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Questions 151

Fill in the blank: The “fw monitor” tool can be best used to troubleshoot ____________________.

Options:

A.

AV issues

B.

VPN errors

C.

Network traffic issues

D.

Authentication issues

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Questions 152

Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

Options:

A.

To satellites through center only.

B.

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets.

C.

To center and to other satellites through center.

D.

To center only.

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Questions 153

Office mode means that:

Options:

A.

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

B.

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

C.

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

D.

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

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Questions 154

What is the recommended number of physical network interfaces in a Mobile Access cluster deployment?

Options:

A.

4 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the internet, a third interface for synchronization, a fourth interface leading to the Security Management Server.

B.

3 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the Internet, a third interface for synchronization.

C.

1 Interface – an interface leading to the organization and the Internet, and configure for synchronization.

D.

2 Interfaces – a data interface leading to the organization and the Internet, a second interface for synchronization.

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Questions 155

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R81.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R81?

Options:

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

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Questions 156

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

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Questions 157

You need to change the number of firewall Instances used by CoreXL. How can you achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot required

B.

cpconfig; reboot required

C.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot not required

D.

cpconfig; reboot not required

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Questions 158

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

Options:

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

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Questions 159

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.

Options:

A.

WMI

B.

Eventvwr

C.

XML

D.

Services.msc

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Questions 160

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob-a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

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Questions 161

What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?

Options:

A.

Cpstop then find keyword “certificate” in objects_5_0.C and delete the section

B.

Reinitialize SIC on the security gateway then run “fw unloadlocal”

C.

Reset SIC from Smart Dashboard

D.

Change internal CA via cpconfig

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Questions 162

Which is not a blade option when configuring SmartEvent?

Options:

A.

Correlation Unit

B.

SmartEvent Unit

C.

SmartEvent Server

D.

Log Server

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Questions 163

When SecureXL is enabled, all packets should be accelerated, except packets that match the following conditions:

Options:

A.

All UDP packets

B.

All IPv6 Traffic

C.

All packets that match a rule whose source or destination is the Outside Corporate Network

D.

CIFS packets

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Questions 164

Please choose the path to monitor the compliance status of the Check Point R81.10 based management.

Options:

A.

Gateways & Servers --> Compliance View

B.

Compliance blade not available under R81.10

C.

Logs & Monitor --> New Tab --> Open compliance View

D.

Security & Policies --> New Tab --> Compliance View

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Questions 165

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R81 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.

Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

Options:

A.

remove database lock

B.

The database feature has one command lock database override.

C.

override database lock

D.

The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

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Questions 166

Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

Log Consolidator

D.

Log Server

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Questions 167

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Manage Setting

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway and Servers

D.

Logs and Monitor

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Questions 168

Which command would you use to set the network interfaces’ affinity in Manual mode?

Options:

A.

sim affinity -m

B.

sim affinity -l

C.

sim affinity -a

D.

sim affinity -s

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Questions 169

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

Options:

A.

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.

SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not

C.

IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.

IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.

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Questions 170

On what port does the CPM process run?

Options:

A.

TCP 857

B.

TCP 18192

C.

TCP 900

D.

TCP 19009

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Questions 171

Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?

Options:

A.

The CoreXL FW instanxces assignment mechanism is based on Source MAC addresses, Destination MAC addresses

B.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on the utilization of CPU cores

C.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on IP Protocol type

D.

The CoreXl FW instances assignment mechanism is based on Source IP addresses, Destination IP addresses, and the IP ‘Protocol’ type

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Questions 172

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .

Options:

A.

User Directory

B.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

C.

Captive Portal

D.

UserCheck

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Questions 173

Which application should you use to install a contract file?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

WebUI

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

SmartProvisioning

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Questions 174

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.10?

Options:

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

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Exam Code: 156-315.81
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert R81
Last Update: Apr 18, 2024
Questions: 617

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